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    湖南省名校联考联合体2024-2025学年高一上学期期中考试英语试卷(Word版附解析)

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    湖南省名校联考联合体2024-2025学年高一上学期期中考试英语试卷(Word版附解析)

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    这是一份湖南省名校联考联合体2024-2025学年高一上学期期中考试英语试卷(Word版附解析),共16页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7,15等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    时量:120 分钟 满分:150分
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
    第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    例: Hw much is the shirt?
    A. £19.15.B. £9.18.C. £9.15.
    答案是C。
    1. What did Tm want t be?
    A. A librarian.B. A writer.C. A singer.
    2. Where des the man plan t g next mnth?
    A. Ls Angeles.B. Shanghai.C. Seattle.
    3. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
    A. Mrs. Jhnsn’s lessns.
    B. Imprtance f asking questins.
    C. The exam results.
    4. When des the man finish his first class?
    A. At 9:10 a. m.B. At 10:10 a. m.C. At 11:00 a. m.
    5. Wh is prbably the wman?
    A. The man’s dctr.B. The man’s friend.C. The man’s teacher.
    第二节 (共15 小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. What des Jhn cme t the cffee shp fr?
    A. Getting relaxed.B. Ding his wrk.C. Meeting Sarah.
    7. What is Jhn’s favrite cffee?
    A. Cappuccin.B. Espress.C. Latte.
    听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
    8. What des the man want t d with the brken chairs?
    A. Return them.B. Replace them.C. Repair them.
    9. What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
    A. C-wrkers.
    B. Manager and clerk.
    C. Shp wner and custmer.
    听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
    10. What did Chris d at a schl event tday?
    A. He wrte a reprt.
    B. He tk part in dances.
    C. He exchanged presents with thers.
    11. What des Chris dislike mst abut tday’s event?
    A. The strange hst.
    B. The fllw-up task.
    C. The students’ perfrmance.
    12. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
    A. In a dance studi.B. At schl.C. At hme.
    听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
    13. Which cuntry was the wman’s starting pint f the jurney?
    A. Russia.B. Mnglia.C. China.
    14. Hw many peple were there n the trip?
    A. 10.B. 11.C. 13.
    15. What did the wman see in Siberia?
    A. Animals.B. Trees.C. Rivers.
    16. What is said abut the wman?
    A. She rde a camel n the trip.
    B. She caught several fish in China.
    C. She ate ndles n the train.
    听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
    17. Wh is prbably the speaker?
    A. A freshman.B. A teacher.C. A frmer graduate student.
    18. What is the speaker ding?
    A. She’s giving a speech.B. She’s teaching a lessn.C. She’s making a reprt.
    19. What shuld the students d at cllege accrding t the speaker?
    A. Live a healthy lifestyle.
    B. Frm their wn clubs.
    C. Prepare fr their future careers.
    20. What des the speaker advise the listeners t d?
    A. G n jurneys.
    B. Develp their wn persnalities.
    C. Dn’t jin t many clubs.
    第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节 (共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    2024 British Day Needs Vlunteers!
    The British Day has becme an imprtant part f the annual grand events in Guangdng Prvince since 2010, which welcmes friends frm all ver the wrld. This year’s British Day is themed “Cl Britannia”, taking yu n a childhd time machine t explre childhd memries. And here vlunteers are needed.

    When & Where
    Date: Saturday, Nv. 2, 2024, frm 11:00 AM t 5:00 PM.
    Lcatin: Zhujiang New Twn, Tianhe District, Guangzhu City.
    Wh t apply
    Mainly fr cllege students studying in the Greater Bay Area wh
    * are eager t spread Chinese and freign cultures;
    * have gd ral English cmmunicatin skills and experience in vlunteering fr large utdr activities;
    * have a strng sense f respnsibility and teamwrk.
    What t gain
    * The experience f cultural exchanges between China and the UK;
    * The pprtunity t imprve yur ral English;
    * Vlunteer certificates(证书)( in Chinese and English) and thank-yu letters;
    * A limited-editin T-shirt f British Day as a suvenir.
    What t d
    Vlunteers will handle different tasks.
    Grup 1: Handle n-site ticketing, event layut and material srting.
    Grup 2: Offer event guidance t guests. Answer questins frm stall wners and guests.
    Grup 3: Assist stage activities like perfrmances t ensure smth prgress.
    Grup 4: Aid in charity raffle(慈善抽奖) ticket sales, including intrducing activities and srting prizes.
    Hw t apply
    Please send yur resume(简历) with a simple self-intrductin t events @ britchamgd.cm befre 12: 00 nn, Beijing time n Oct. 22, 2024.Vlunteers successfully selected will be infrmed by phne and email befre Oct. 24. Vlunteers wh have been accepted but are unable t participate due t persnal reasns must apply t the rganizer at least five days in advance.
    Cme and jin us!
    21. What can guests d n this year’s British Day?
    A. Take n a time machine.
    B. Visit the British cities.
    C. Interview sme vlunteers.
    D. Experience childhd happiness again.
    22. Wh are mst likely t be accepted as vlunteers fr the event?
    A. High schl students in Guangzhu wh are gd at ral English.
    B. Students f Shenzhen University wh ften g t utdr cmmunity services.
    C. Prfessinals in Guangzhu wh try t prmte the cultural exchanges.
    D. British cllege students wh lve Chinese culture and speak Chinese fluently.
    23. Which statement is TRUE accrding t the passage?
    A. Vlunteers are required t wrk mre than 8 hurs fr the event.
    B. Vlunteers will gain a cmmn T-shirt as a present.
    C. Vlunteers will all have t ffer event guidance t guests.
    D. Vlunteers unable t serve the event shuld infrm the rganizer befre Oct.28,2024.
    B
    When Heman Bekele was 6, he gt a chemistry set fr Christmas. He used it t mix up “ptins(魔水)”. Back then, nly his parents paid attentin. Nw, in 2024, at 15, Heman is used t a lt mre peple watching his wrk.
    In Octber 2023, 3M and Discvery Educatin named Heman the winner f their Yung Scientist Challenge. His prize: $25,000. His accmplishment: inventing a sap that culd ne day treat and prevent sme frms f skin cancer.
    It culd take years befre the sap is available t custmers. But Heman, a 10th grader at Wdsn High, is determined. Over the summer, he spent every weekday in a lab at the Jhns Hpkins Blmberg Schl f Public Health. When he ges back t schl this fall, he’ ll be at the lab less ften. But he’ ll stick t his dream and try hard t make it cme true.
    Heman was brn in Africa. He remembers seeing peple in Africa wrking in the ht sun withut prtectin fr their skin. Because f that, sme f them develped skin cancer, a disease caused by t much expsure(暴露) t the sun. Treating the cancer is cstly, abut $40,000. Heman wndered if there was a cheaper way fr peple t deal with the disease. He thught f adding a skin-cancer medicine called imiquimd t a bar f sap. “What is ne thing that everyne can use?” Heman recalls thinking. “Everyne uses sap and water fr cleaning. S sap wuld prbably be the best ptin.”
    Heman needed help t bring his idea t life. In 2023, he came acrss the 3M Challenge and submitted a vide explaining his idea. Sn, he received an invitatin t the cmpany’s headquarters. He spke in frnt f a panel f judges. That day, he was named the winner. Since then, Heman has been wrking n develping his idea and sme adult experts are guiding him, saying he’s passinate and inspiring.
    24. Why did Heman win the Yung Scientist Challenge?
    A. He discvered a new chemical element.
    B. He invented a sap that culd prevent skin cancer.
    C. He created a ptin t cure cmmn illnesses.
    D. He develped a sunscreen with lng-lasting effects.
    25. Why did Heman view sap as the best chice fr his inventin?
    A. Because it was a cmmn item peple ften use.
    B. Because he had a persnal interest in making sap.
    C. Because he wanted t target a specific grup f peple.
    D. Because he believed in the healing functin f sap.
    26. What is TRUE abut Heman’s experience at the 3M cmpany’s headquarters?
    A. He was nt well-prepared in frnt f the judges.
    B. It ffered him a chance t explain his idea nline.
    C. It was pretty challenging but rewarding in the end.
    D. His parents kept him cmpany thrughut the event.
    27. What is the significance(意义) f Heman’s inventin based n his persnal backgrund?
    A. It shws his lve fr skin care.
    B. It shws his interest in the beauty industry.
    C. It shws his cmmitment t envirnmental prtectin.
    D. It shws his desire t cntribute t African cmmunity.
    C
    Ramna is nly seven years ld, but her paintings sell fr arund US $2,000 dllars each. That is a gd price, especially since each painting takes her n mre than 10 minutes.
    She desn’t paint the same subjects as the average 7-year-ld girl, either. There are n pictures f Mummy and Daddy, r her friends r schl. Ramna prefers abstract(抽象的) art. She des nt paint the real wrld. Instead, she paints her feelings abut it in brad sweeps f bright clur. In fact, Ramna is an elephant.
    Ramna is nt the nly artist at the Elephant Safari Park n the Indnesian island f Bali, r in Asia as a whle. Art cmes naturally t them, “Fr many years, zkeepers have knwn that elephants bth in zs and in the wild will pick up sticks and ddle in the dirt,” says Mia Fineman, an art histrian frm New Yrk and authr f the bk “When Elephants Paint”.
    Mia Fineman says that elephants frm different parts f Asia have different styles. Thse frm central Thailand, fr example, prefer cl, dark clurs like blue and green. “When I view a painting, I can usually tell what regin it’s frm, and which elephant created it,” she says.
    Elephant art first appeared in 1997, when tw Russian cnceptual artists first had the idea f encuraging elephants t paint. Fr them, the art lay in the idea f elephants painting, rather than in the paintings themselves.
    Over time, peple have cme t enjy the elephant art fr itself. N ne will put Ramna and her friends in the same categry(类别) as famus painters like Rembrandt r Picass. But their wrks are nt just randm brush strkes, either. Elephants are knwn t be sensitive and thughtful creatures. There is n reasn why they shuld nt express their feelings abut the wrld arund them and what the human race has dne t the wrld.
    We may ne day cme t understand the meaning f elephant art. But will we like what it has t say abut us?
    28. The underlined wrd “ddle” in paragraph 3 prbably means “______”.
    A. fight fearlesslyB. draw rughlyC. walk carelesslyD. play happily
    29. Why did the tw Russian artists encurage elephants t paint?
    A. They thught the act f elephant painting was an art.
    B. Elephants culd express their feelings abut the wrld.
    C. Elephants’ paintings were wrth a lt f mney.
    D. Lst elephants culd be fund because f their paintings.
    30. What des the writer think f clephant art?
    A. Elephant art can equal human art.
    B. Paintings by elephants are meaningless.
    C. Much remains t be discvered abut elephant art.
    D. It is impssible t discver what elephant art means.
    31. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
    A. A new way f making mney.
    B. An advanced methd f training elephants.
    C. Different lifestyles f elephants in parks.
    D. The amazing art f elephants’ paintings.
    D
    Jyce Laiza lives alne in a cmmunity fr lder peple in the American state f Flrida. When she is hme, the retired ffice wrker ften talks in a friendly female vice that asks abut her day. A few kilmeters away, the same vice helped 83-year-ld Deanna Dezern when her friend died. In New Yrk state, it plays games and music fr92-year-ld Marie Bradbent. And in Washingtn state, it helps 83-year-ld Jan Wrrell make new friends.
    The wmen are sme f the first in the United States t receive the rbt ElliQ made by Intuitin Rbtics. The cmpany and ther fficials say it is the nly device(设备) using artificial intelligence(AI) t help lder Americans frm lneliness.
    The device lks like a small table light, which has an eyeless, muthless head that lights up and turns. It remembers each user’s interests and their talks, helping create a special experience with each new discussin. It can be as deep as the meaning f life r as light as a small jke.
    ElliQ als plays music and prvides creative r encuraging sayings. On a vide screen that cmes with it, it will shw different cities and places f interest. The device leads exercises, asks abut the wner’s health, and gives reminders t take medicines and drink water. It can als supprt vide calls and cntact family, friends, r dctrs in an emergency.
    Intuitin Rbtics says nne f the cnversatins are heard by the cmpany, with the infrmatin staying n each wner’s device.
    Charltte Mather-Taylr is directr f the Brward Cunty, Flrida, Area Agency n Aging. She said the COVID-19 pandemic and its fllwing results left many lder peple mre discnnected. Her agency has prvided 300 ElliQs which, she believes, help the situatin. She said, “We’ve seen very psitive results with it. Peple generally like her and she makes them smile and brings jy.”
    Brigham Yung University prfessr Julianne Hlt-Lunstad, wh studies the effects f lneliness n health, wrries that a device like ElliQ might have shrt-term helpful effects but it culd make peple less likely t seek human cmmunicatin. She tld The Assciated Press that the difficult feeling f lneliness shuld push peple t recnnect scially.
    32. What makes the rbt ElliQ unique?
    A. It is made by Intuitin Rbtics in America.
    B. It can play games and music fr the ld.
    C. It uses AI t help the ld fight lneliness.
    D. It can talk in a friendly female vice.
    33. What d we knw abut ElliQs?
    A. They are intelligent and well-runded wmen.
    B. They can have deep discussins with the wners.
    C. They are small table lights with human-like heads.
    D. They may send the cnversatins t the cmpany.
    34. What can be inferred frm Hlt-Lunstad’s cmment?
    A. ElliQs will push mre peple t recnnect scially.
    B. ElliQs make n difference t smthing ut lneliness.
    C. ElliQs will have a prmising future fr their gd effects.
    D. ElliQs will have less helpful effects in the lng term.
    35. What’s the main purpse f the passage?
    A. T intrduce a special AI device.
    B. T shw us hw t perate a new device.
    C. T ffer sme advice n remving lneliness.
    D. T call fr mre care fr the ld.
    第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    Being Yur Best Self
    Yu may anxiusly want t be yur best self. And here is hw.
    Live accrding t yur persnal values.
    Ignring yur cre beliefs can make yu feel distressed(极为苦恼的) r cnflicted. Discver yur persnal values by listing the things imprtant t yu, identifying times yu’ve felt truly happy, and deciding yur desire in life. Fr instance, yu might value helping thers and being creative. 36 .
    D at least ne activity yu enjy every day.
    Schedule time every day t d smething that makes yu feel happy. This can help yu enjy life mre and becme yur best self.
    37
    It’s easier t feel happy if yu’ re prud f wh yu are, and knwing yur strengths can help. Yur strengths might include things like slving math prblems, writing, singing, r cmpeting in athletics. Additinally, yu might have interpersnal skills, analytical skills, r critical thinking skills. 38 Make a list f yur talents, skills, and knwledge. Then, review it ften t help yu remember hw awesme yu are.
    Wrk n imprving yur weaknesses s yu can vercme them.
    39 If they truble yu, try t imprve them by learning new skills r trying smething different, like starting a wrkut prgram t imprve the fitness level yu are unhappy with. In time, yu might be able t imprve yurself.
    Express yur emtins s they dn’t get piled up.
    Yur feelings are super imprtant. Ignring them can actually make them wrse. 40 Here are sme ptins: talk t smene, write a jurnal, d smething creative r exercise.
    A. List yur skills t slve yur prblems.
    B. Instead, chse a healthy way t let them ut.
    C. These emtins will greatly increase yur pressure.
    D. Recgnize yur strengths t help yu have self-cnfidence.
    E. S yu may chse a jb in nursing and paint as a hbby.
    F. Everyne has shrtcmings, s dn’t feel bad abut yurs.
    G. Similarly, yu might be very creative r enjy teaming with peple.
    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节 (共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    My senir year f high schl lks a lt different nw than it did just a few shrt mnths ag.
    I am 17 and have cmpeted at the sprt’s highest levels. I was lking frward t cntinuing my athletic career in cllege, but n September 20, 2021, my wrld 41 in an instant.
    I was 42 fr the cming hmecming pep rally(赛前动员会) at a friend’s huse when ne f my flips(空翻) went 43 and I landed directly n my neck and face. I was fully cnscius(神志清醒的) as I 44 in the grass and 45 that I culdn’t feel my arms and legs. I was rushed t the hspital. When I awke, 46 warned me that mst peple wh suffer this srt f injury never 47 again, but I 48 t believe them!
    I never 49 smiling. My athleticism(体育才能) has helped me fully fcus n my 50 , and I make up my mind t 51 the dctrs are wrng and get back t walking n my wn tw feet. I als hpe t help peple knw abut what it’s like t 52 a severe injury, s I 53 my recvery n scial media. By 54 my struggles and victries, I hpe t tuch the hearts f thers wh are ging thrugh a 55 time in their lives.
    41. A. endedB. happenedC. cntinuedD. changed
    42. A. restingB. writingC. practisingD. finishing
    43. A. badB. wrngC. blankD. crazy
    44. A. layB. playedC. rlledD. mved
    45. A. realizedB. thughtC. hpedD. regretted
    46. A. dctrsB. parentsC. friendsD. teachers
    47. A. runB. jumpC. standD. walk
    48. A. failedB. refusedC. decidedD. aimed
    49. A. rememberB. stpC. enjyD. risk
    50. A. experimentB. mindC. recveryD. task
    51. A. shwB. findC. dubtD. accept
    52.A. cme up withB. catch up withC. live withD. cnnect with
    53. A. recrdB. reflectC. seekD. get
    54. A. learningB. judgingC. sharingD. explaining
    55. A. usefulB. familiarC. regularD. tugh
    第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Nv. 22, 2023, just befre turning 20, Ji Xiaming received a letter frm Ca Yajun, a girl frm a middle schl in Daye, Hubei prvince.
    The girl was ne f the 526 middle schl students in Daye 56 tk part in a charity prject fcused n prviding psychlgical(心理的) supprt t children in the cuntryside. Lin Lusheng, the prject directr, 57 (stress) that teenagers in the prject are at an age when they begin t meet pressure and g thrugh typical psychlgical changes. “But many children are less likely 58 (share) their feelings with adults such as parents r teachers, which, if ignred, can lead t psychlgical prblems,” he added. Accrding t him, 80 t 90 percent f the 59 (vlunteer) f the prject are university students in their 20s.
    In Ca’s letter, she mentined feelings vercme by schlwrk, asked abut 60 (effect) study methds, and was curius abut university life. Ji sincerely respnded 61 the letter, sharing details abut her educatinal experiences and university life. Upn 62 (receive) Ji’s reply, Ca was verjyed. “She described university life as s clrful and inspiring. It 63 (definite) really encurages me t study hard and struggle fr my dream university,” she said. S far, the prject 64 (ffer) letter cmpaninship services t rural children frm 1,217 schls acrss the cuntry, including nine schls in Daye, exchanging 65 ttal f 1.42 millin letters.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节 (满分15分)
    假定你是李华,你的英国朋友 Chris在新学校与新同学相处不愉快,很烦恼。他发来邮件询问你的建议。请你用英文给他回复,内容包括:
    1.表明目的;
    2.表示理解;
    3.提出建议(至少三条)。
    注意:
    1.写作词数应为80个左右;
    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    第二节 (满分25分)
    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    The smallest laf f bread
    Once there was a serius shrtage(短缺,不足) f fd in the twn. A rich and kind baker called all the prest children in twn t his bakery(面包店) and gave ne laf f bread t each f them and tld them t cme back every day fr bread until the hard days ended.
    Rather than being thankful fr the baker’s kindness, many f the children fught ver wh wuld get the largest laf. They cmplained, were bitter(愤愤不平的) abut their present situatin, and were just ut fr what they culd get.
    Hwever, amng the crwd was a neatly dressed little girl wh had a different attitude. Day after day, patiently, she waited fr the thers t stp fighting, and she gratefully tk the smallest laf. Then, she thanked the baker and happily brught the laf hme t share with her family.
    One day, while slicing(把……切成薄片) the bread, her mther fund several silver cins inside the laf. Quite surprised, she shwed her daughter what she had discvered in the bread.
    The next day, as usual, the children went back t the bakery. Sme impatient children culdn’t wait t get the bread. Sme kept their eyes n the big laf. Still thers were making a nise, taking the baker’s kindness and genersity fr granted. The little girl als returned. Hlding ut the palm f her hand, the girl shwed the silver cins t the baker and said, “Sir, we fund yur mney inside the laf f bread that yu s generusly gave t us. Yu must have accidentally drpped the cins while yu were baking the laf.” This smehw didn’t surprise the baker. He gt clser t the little girl smilingly and said lvingly, “N, n, my child. I did nt make a mistake.” Hearing this, the crwd were curius abut what wuld happen and began t quiet dwn.
    注意:
    1.续写词数应为150个左右;
    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    2024年秋季高一期中联考
    英语参考答案
    21. D。细节理解题。由首段中的“taking yu n a childhd time machine t explre childhd memries(让你乘坐童年的时光机,再次探索童年的记忆)”可知。
    22. B。细节理解题。由 Wh t apply部分中的“Mainly fr cllege students studying in the Greater Bay Area(主要为大湾区的大学生)”及“have gd ral English cmmunicatin skills and experience in vlunteering fr large utdr activities”可知。
    23. D。细节理解题。由最后一段中的“Vlunteers wh have been accepted but are unable t participate due t persnal reasns must apply t the rganizer at least five days in advance.”可知,必须提前五天告知负责人,故选 D。由文中 Date 部分中的“frm 11:00 AM t 5:00 PM”可知,工作时间为6小时,排除选项A; 由文中“A limited-editin T-shirt f British Day as a suvenir(限定版T恤作纪念物)”可排除选项 B;由文中 What t d 部分中的“Vlunteers will handle different tasks.”及“Grup 2: Offer event guidance t guests.”可知,给客人提供引导仅是第二组的任务,排除选项C。
    【语篇解读】本文介绍了少年科学家 Heman Bekele 发明了一种能预防和治疗某些皮肤癌的肥皂,赢得了3M和 Discvery Educatin的 Yung Scientist Challenge,并获得了25000美元奖金的故事。
    24. B。细节理解题。题干意为:为什么 Heman 赢得了 Yung Scientist Challenge的比赛? 根据第二段中的“His accmplishment: inventing a sap that culd ne day treat and prevent sme frms f skin cancer”可知,答案为 B项。
    25. A。推理判断题。题干意为:为什么 Heman将肥皂作为他发明的最佳选择? 根据第四段中的“Everyne uses sap and water fr cleaning. S sap wuld prbably be the best ptin.”可知, Heman 选择肥皂是因为它是一种人们常用的生活物品。故选A项。
    26. C。推理判断题。题干意为:关于 Heman在3M公司总部的经历哪一项是正确的? 根据最后一段可知,他先提交了视频解释自己的创意,然后被邀请到3M公司总部并在评委组面前发表演讲,这对一个十几岁的少年来说无疑是充满挑战的,但是他最后成功获得了奖金,结果是值得的。故选C项。
    27. D。推理判断题。题干意为:基于 Heman的成长背景,他的发明的意义是什么? 根据第四段可知他出生在非洲,看到非洲同胞由于过多地暴露在太阳下而患上皮肤癌,但治疗费用昂贵,他想要通过发明一种肥皂来改善这种状况,因此选择D选项:他想为非洲社会做出贡献。
    【语篇解读】本文为说明文。作者首先以大象 Ramna为例,介绍了大象绘画这一奇特现象,也提出了让读者思考的问题。
    28. B。词义理解题。根据第三段画线词前的“Art cmes naturally t them”以及第六段中的“But their wrks are nt just randm brush strkes, either”可知 ddle与绘画有关。
    29. A。细节理解题。根据第五段中的“Fr them, the art lay in the idea f elephants painting(对于两位艺术家而言,艺术在于大象绘画这个想法)”可知。
    30. C。推理判断题。依据最后一段可知答案。A项意为:大象艺术可以与人类艺术媲美。与原文第六段二句(没人会把 Ramna和她的伙伴们的作品与著名的画家伦勃朗和毕加索的作品归为一类。)不符。
    31. D。主旨大意题。根据全文可知,作者以大象 Ramna为例,介绍了神奇的大象绘画。
    【语篇解读】本文是一篇说明文,题材为科技与生活。本文主要介绍了一款设备——机器人ElliQ。ElliQ的特殊之处在于它是唯一一款使用人工智能来帮助美国老年人对抗孤独的设备。
    32. C。细节理解题。根据第二段中的“The cmpany and ther fficials say it is the nly device(设备) using artificial intelligence(AI) t help lder Americans frm lneliness.”可知,机器人ElliQ是唯一一款使用AI技术来帮助美国老年人摆脱孤独的设备。由此可知,ElliQ的特殊之处在于它能够运用人工智能与老人交流来帮助老年人对抗孤独。故选C项。
    33. B。推理判断题。根据第三段中的“It can be as deep as the meaning f life r as light as a small jke.”可知,ElliQ可以与主人进行讨论,话题可以像生命的意义一样深刻,也可以像一个小笑话一样轻松,故选 B项。A项:它们是智能、全面的女性;C项:它们是人头形状的小台灯;D项:它们可以把谈话内容发送给公司。这三项均与原文描述不符。
    34. D。推理判断题。根据第七段中的“a device like ElliQ might have shrt-term helpful effects but it culd make peple less likely t seek human cmmunicatin”可知,像ElliQ这样的设备确实会产生一些短期的有益效果,但它可能会使人们不太可能寻求人类交流。由此推知,从长远来看,它帮助效果不大,故选D项。A项:ElliQs将会促使更多的人重新建立社交联系;B项:ElliQs对人类抵抗孤独没有任何作用;C项:由于良好的效果,ElliQs前景将会很好。这三项均与原文描述不符。
    35. A。推理判断题。文章第一到第五段主要介绍机器人设备 ElliQ的功能,即使用人工智能帮助美国老年人摆脱孤独。最后两段分别介绍了佛罗里达州布劳沃德县老龄化地区机构的主任 Charltte Mather-Taylr 和杨百翰大学教授 Julianne Hlt-Lunstad对这款设备的看法。由此推知,本文的主要写作目的是介绍一款特殊的人工智能设备。
    36. E。选项E中的“nursing”为帮助别人的职业, “paint”为体现创造性的爱好,与前一句“Fr instance, yu might value helping thers and being creative.”形成对应。
    37. D。从文章结构可知此处应为本段小标题,应对应选择祈使句。本段内容主要讲认识自己的优势会让自己“prud f wh yu are”和“remember hw awesme yu are”,由此可知,应选D:“意识到你自己的优势可以帮助你获得自信”。
    38. G。本段讲要认识自己的优势,然后列举了一些优势并且最后一句进行总结,可推知此句也应该是并列的优势。
    39. F。此段小标题中的关键词“weaknesses”意为“缺点,不足”,与选项F中的“shrtcmings”为同义替换,且作为段首句,承接小标题展开叙述。
    40. B。前文说忽略情绪会适得其反,由此可知应该要释放情绪即“let them ut”,并且后文“Here are sme ptins ...”举例给出具体的释放方式。
    【语篇解读】作者在一次赛前训练中因动作失误受了伤,医生们提醒作者,她很可能再也不能走路了,但作者从来都不相信这一点,她下定决心证明医生说的是错的。
    41. D。根据上文可知,作者在高中阶段参加过体育比赛,在大学想继续她的运动生涯,但是在2021年9月20日这一天她的世界瞬间改变了。
    42. C。根据下文的“cming”和“flips(空翻)”可知,比赛还没有进行,所以作者在朋友家为即将到来的比赛进行练习。
    43. B。根据空后的“I landed directly n my neck and face”可知,作者落地的姿势不对,即动作环节出问题了。 g wrng意为“出现问题;出故障”。
    44. A。根据上文可知,作者脸部着地,由此可推知,作者当时应是在草地上躺着,等待救援。
    45. A。根据下文可知,作者意识到感觉不到自己的手和脚。
    46. A。根据上文可知,作者受了伤,被立即送到了医院,故作者醒来后应是医生们告知她的受伤情况。
    47. D。根据下文可知, 作者下定决心要证明医生们的提醒是错误的——回到能用两条腿走路的状态,可知医生告知作者大多受过这种伤的人再也不能走路了。
    48. B。根据下文可知,作者下定决心要恢复到能用腿走路的状态,拒绝相信医生。
    49. B。根据下文可知,作者对体育运动的热爱使作者能够完全专注于自己的康复,持有一种积极乐观的态度,故作者从未停止微笑。
    50. C。根据下文“walking n my wn tw feet”可知,作者一直相信自己可以恢复到用腿走路的状态。
    51. A。根据下文可知,作者下定决心要恢复到能用腿走路的状态,要证明医生们是错误的。
    52. C。作者想让人们了解忍受严重的伤痛的生活是什么样的。
    53. A。根据上文可知,作者想让人们了解自己忍受伤痛的生活,所以作者记录下了自己康复的过程。
    54. C。根据语境并结合选项可知,作者希望通过分享自己与伤痛的斗争和胜利来帮助其他人。
    55. D。作者希望触动那些在生活中经历困难的人的内心。
    【语篇解读】本文主要讲述了一个慈善项目中的大学生志愿者与高中生结对,给其提供心理支持。
    56. wh/ that。考查定语从句。设空处为引导定语从句的关系词,先行词是 students。关系词在定语从句中作主语,指人,故填关系代词 wh/ that。
    57. stressed。考查谓语动词的时态。根据第58题后面的“he added”可知,本题与之时态一样,所以使用一般过去时。
    58. t share。考查非谓语动词。此空前面出现“many children are less likely”,根据 likely的用法可知,此空应填动词不定式。
    59. vlunteers。考查名词单复数。根据本句中的“80 t 90 percent f the 59 (vlunteer)”可知,本空应使用名词的复数形式。
    60. effective。考查词性转换。根据本空后的“study methds”可知此空填形容词修饰名词。
    61. t。考查介词。 respnd t the letter, 意思是“回信”。
    62. receiving。考查非谓语动词。本空前面是介词 upn;介词后面的动词使用-ing形式。
    63. definitely。考查词性转换。本空修饰动词 encurages,作状语,使用其副词形式,故填 definitely。
    64. has ffered。考查谓语动词的时态。本句有时间状语 S far,所以应该使用现在完成时;主语是 the prject,为单数,故填 has ffered。
    65. a。考查冠词。短语 a ttal f, 意思是“总计”。
    第四部分
    第一节
    【参考范文】
    Dear Chris,
    Hearing that yu have difficulty getting alng well with yur new classmates, I am writing t ffer yu my suggestins.
    I definitely understand yur feelings, but cheer up. It’s time t find an pprtunity t have a full and frank talk with them face t face and be sure t explain hw yu feel. Friendships are like flwers which need t be taken gd care f, s yu shuld be friendlier and always be a gd listener. It’s natural that yu smetimes disagree with yur new classmates, but yu need t respect different pinins. Last but nt least, it might be a gd idea t always supprt yur new classmates thrugh thick and thin.
    Hpefully yu’ll find these ideas helpful.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    第二节
    【参考范文】
    “Keep the mney. This is a reward fr yu!” the baker added. “A reward fr me?” the girl was quite surprised. All these days, she was deeply grateful t the baker fr his genersity and understanding. Nw she wndered why she deserved the “reward”. Nticing her hesitatin, the baker patted her n the head kindly, saying, “Yu are always kind, patient and grateful. Yu knw gd things ften cme t thse wh can wait and be thankful. Yu are wrth it.” With these wrds, he gently tk the girl t the frnt and patiently explained t the kids what had happened.
    Mved by the girl’s stry, the children lwered their heads in shame. Everything began t change. They waited in line. There were n mre cmplaints, arguments r fighting fr the largest laf. Every kid tk the bread plitely and ffered thanks t the baker. What a heart-warming scene! The little girl, with her quiet grace, had becme a symbl f hpe and a reminder that even in the mst challenging times, virtues like patience, gratitude, and hnesty culd lead t unexpected blessings.
    【文本解读】这篇文章的核心内容是一个面包师对一个小女孩的奖励。小女孩因为耐心、感恩和善待他人而得到了面包师的赏识。面包师在面包中放入银币,而小女孩发现了这些银币后,并没有私自留下,而是将它们归还给了面包师。
    这个故事强调了耐心和感恩的重要性,以及善行会得到回报的主题。同时我们也了解到,即使在贫穷和困难的环境中,保持友好、积极和感恩的态度仍然能够带来良好的结果。
    这个故事的续写强调了小女孩的行为如何影响了周围的人,以及面包师如何利用这个机会教育孩子们关于分享、等待、善待他人和感恩的重要性。
    【写作要点】
    第一段:根据首句关键词“reward”、原文第二段中的“thankul … kindness … cmplained …”以及第三段中的“had a different attitude ... patiently ... gratefully ... happily ... share ...”等伏笔,可知本段要写小女孩的优秀品质,如 kindness, patience, gratefulness等。但要特别注意, hnesty不能作为“reward”的原因。同时,结合第二段首句可知,本段要写小女孩的言行举止影响到了周围的人。
    第二段:根据首句关键词“Mved”“shame”可知,本段可结合孩子们的心理、动作、表情来描写孩子们受到触动之后的变化,并与文中的伏笔形成呼应,然后自然升华主题和感悟。
    听力材料
    Text 1
    M: Tm wanted t becme a singer, right?
    W: Actually, he hped t be a writer, because he always had a lt f ideas t share. But nw he aims t be a librarian. He enjys reading and rganizing bks.
    Text 2
    W: Ryan, were yu brn in Seattle?
    M: Yep, I finished primary schl there. Then my parents mved t Shanghai. And they have lived there ever since. I nw live alne in Ls Angeles, and I will pay them a visit next mnth.
    Text 3
    M: I feel like chsing Mrs. Jhnsn’s curse. I heard she wuld ask many questins in class.
    W: I signed up fr her lessns last term. Thugh the lessns weren’t relaxing, my prgress last term was satisfactry.
    Text 4
    W: Tdd, what’s yur typical day at university like?
    M: Well, I usually get up arund 8:00 a. m. My first class starts at 9:10 a. m. It lasts an hur. And I have lunch with my rmmates, usually after 11:00 a. m.
    Text 5
    W: Is there anything I can d fr yu? Maybe bring yu sme nvels t pass the time in the hspital?
    M: That’s really sweet f yu. Actually, I wuld appreciate it if yu helped me with my English hmewrk.
    W: Sure. Which unit have yu studied, by the way?
    Text 6
    M: Hi, Sarah. I’ve heard a lt abut yur wrk. D yu cme here ften?
    W: Thanks, Jhn! Nt really, but I lve the atmsphere. S, what brings yu here?
    M: I’m feeling burnt-ut at wrk. It’s gd t have such a quiet cffee shp t relax.
    W: It is! I cme here t escape the busy life smetimes. I heard they have the best cappuccin here.
    M: Yes. By the way, what’s yur favrite cffee?
    W: Oh, I’m a fan f latte. Hw abut yu?
    M: Espress all the way. It can clear my mind.
    Text 7
    M: Gd afternn. I’ve received the 20 chairs I rdered here, but the legs f fur chairs are brken.
    W: Srry. I’m afraid there must be a prblem with the delivery. Wuld yu like me t change them?
    M: N, that’s nt necessary. Actually, I bught tw spare chairs at first. And tw f my clleagues quit this mnth. S 16 new chairs are enugh. My manager wants me t ask fr the return f the fur brken chairs.
    W: I see. As sn as we receive the fur brken chairs, we’ll give yur mney back t yur accunt.
    M: OK. Thank yu.
    Text 8
    W: Hi, Chris. Hw was schl?
    M: Well, tday we had an event that was quite an adventure.
    W: Oh? What happened?
    M: It was a “Cultural Exchange Day” when students frm different cuntries presented their cultures.
    W: That’s cl.
    M: Well, the unexpected part was that the hst asked us t take part in traditinal dances frm every culture.
    W: That des sund a bit ut f the cmmn.
    M: I tried t g alng with it, but I culdn’t shake ff the feeling f discmfrt. And the wrst part is that nw I have t write a summary f what I’ve seen tday.
    W: I suppse that culd nt be t hard.
    M: That’s nt the pint. I have already had enugh hmewrk t finish.
    W: Dn’t wrry. I will accmpany yu. There is n hurry t make dinner.
    Text 9
    M: I heard that yu tk a train jurney.
    W: Yes, I started frm Russia, travelled thrugh Mnglia, and ended up in China.
    M: Ww! That was a lng way!
    W: Yes, it was. It tk three weeks. I went n a tur with ten ther friends. It did cst a lt f mney, but it was wrth it.
    M: Cl! What was the landscape like?
    W: Much f what we saw was flatland, mile after mile. As we reached Siberia, we saw many trees. When we gt t Mnglia, we caught sight f sme camels and winding rivers every nce in a while.
    M: S what did yu eat during the trip?
    W: We stpped several times alng the way and bught fd that the lcal peple were selling— dried fish and ther types f Russian fd. And we ate instant ndles n the train.
    Text 10
    W: Gd mrning! On behalf f the whle university, it is with great pleasure that I give a warm welcme t all the new faces jining ur university. Cngratulatins n starting this exciting jurney f higher educatin in Flrida! Althugh I graduated ne year ag, I clearly remember hw curius and excited I was n my first day here. The university is nt just a place fr learning. It is mre f a place fr establishing relatinships and is the stepping stne t yur future career. Arund the campus, yu will discver lts f knwledge waiting t be explred. Chse a club that interests yu the mst, but yu dn’t need t jin t many. Prfessrs and classmates will becme yur guides. Remember, every challenge is an pprtunity t braden yur views. Our university is full f varius cultures, ideas and talents. Embrace this clrful cllege life, fr it enriches yur knwledge and prepares yu fr the glbal challenges ahead. Welcme t the university where yur jurney f knwledge and self-discvery begins.Dear Chris,
    Hearing that yu have difficulty getting alng well with yur new classmates,
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    “Keep the mney. This is a reward fr yu!” the baker added.
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Mved by the girl’s stry, the children lwered their heads in shame.
    _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    题序
    1
    2
    3
    4
    5
    6
    7
    8
    9
    10
    11
    12
    13
    14
    15
    答案
    B
    B
    A
    B
    B
    A
    B
    A
    C
    B
    B
    C
    A
    B
    B
    题序
    16
    17
    18
    19
    20
    21
    22
    23
    24
    25
    26
    27
    28
    29
    30
    答案
    C
    C
    A
    C
    C
    D
    B
    D
    B
    A
    C
    D
    B
    A
    C
    题序
    31
    32
    33
    34
    35
    36
    37
    38
    39
    40
    41
    42
    43
    44
    45
    答案
    D
    C
    B
    D
    A
    E
    D
    G
    F
    B
    D
    C
    B
    A
    A
    题序
    46
    47
    48
    49
    50
    51
    52
    53
    54
    55
    答案
    A
    D
    B
    B
    C
    A
    C
    A
    C
    D

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