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    2025大同高一上学期11月期中考试英语含解析

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    2025大同高一上学期11月期中考试英语含解析

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    这是一份2025大同高一上学期11月期中考试英语含解析,共12页。试卷主要包含了15, B等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    注意事项:
    1. 答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上相应的位置。
    2. 全部答案在答题卡上完成,答在本试卷上无效。
    3. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案用0.5mm黑色笔迹签字笔写在答题卡上。
    4. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
    5. 本试卷共8页,听力部分15分,其余试题85分,共100分。考试时间90分钟。
    第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分15分)
    第一节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    例:Hw much is the shirt?
    A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
    答案是C。
    1. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
    A. At hme B. In an ffice. C. In a restaurant.
    2. What des the man like best?
    A. Seeing mvies. B. Playing basketball. C. Watching ftball matches.
    3. Wh is the man prbably talking t?
    A. A tailr. B. A shp assistant. C. A designer.
    4. Hw much des this package cst by airmail?
    A. 7 dllars. B. 21 dllars. C. 42 dllars.
    5. When will Jhn g hme?
    A. At 1:00. B. At 2:00. C. At 3:00.
    第二节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面2段对话,每段对话后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6至7题。
    6. Where will the speakers g first?
    A. T a park. B. T a theatre. C. T a restaurant.
    7. What is the big surprise?
    A. The man has gt a better pay.
    B. The wman will receive a fine gift.
    C. The man has changed a better jb.
    听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
    8. What will the speakers d when they meet?
    A. Discuss their play. B. Talk abut a party. C. Plan a new prject.
    9. When will the man’s English lessn end tmrrw?
    A. At 6:30 pm. B. At 7:00 pm. C. At 7:30 pm.
    10. Hw many peple will meet tmrrw?
    A. Tw peple. B. Fur peple. C. Five peple.
    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分22.5分)
    第一节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项。
    A
    The British Museum is unique in bringing tgether under ne rf the cultures f the wrld, spanning cntinents and ceans. Whether yu want t be inspired by histry and culture, r yu’re interested in gaining new skills and experiences, the museum prvides a wrld f pprtunities with its eight millin bjects.
    Make the mst f yur visit
    ●View a map f the museum.
    ●Explre mre f the museum with ur bject trails r try a selectin f ur Museum Missins.
    ●Take a self-guided tur f the museum using ur Audi app (available in varius languages including British Sign Language). Dwnlad via the App Stre r Ggle Play Stre.
    Ticket infrmatin
    Entry t the museum is free, but access t sme exhibitins will charge yu. The museum limits numbers f peple t ensure there’s rm fr yu t safely enjy yur visit. Yu’re advised t bka free ticket t guarantee the entry. Self-led grups f 10 r mre peple will need t bk a grup ticket. Schl grups shuld cntact the bx ffice t bk their visit t the museum.
    Opening times
    Daily: frm 10:00 am t 5:00 pm(Fridays: 8:30 pm)
    Last entry: 4:45 pm(Fridays: 8:15 pm)
    The museum is clsed frm 24 December t 26 December.
    Cafes and restaurants
    Curt Cafés: frm 10:00 am t 5:00 pm
    Great Curt Restaurant: frm 11:30 am t 5:00 pm (last sitting 4:00 pm)
    Transprt
    Bicycle racks are available inside the gates f the main entrance n Great Russell Street. If yu’re planning t visit by car, please be aware that the museum desn’t ffer parking facilities. There is a taxi rank n Great Russell Street at the museum’s main gates. Ging t the museum by bus r subway is very cnvenient, which can be yur first chice.
    Fr mre infrmatin, visit the British Museum’s website.
    11. What is advised t d befre visiting the museum?
    A. Buy a map f Lndn. B. Hire a tur guide.
    C. Bk a ticket in advance. D. Dwnlad a language app.
    12. When d yu have t leave the museum n Fridays?
    A. 4:00 pm. B. 5:00 pm.
    C. 8:15 pm. D. 8:30 pm.
    13. Which is the mst recmmended way t get t the museum?
    A. By bike. B. By subway.
    C. By taxi. D. By car.
    B
    What d yu d with the things yu lve? Yu prbably take care f them and keep them safe. That’s nt what Camern Payne des. The by frm Nrth Carlina is sharing his lve f bks by giving them away.
    When Camern heard abut a family wh lst everything in a huse fire, he was lking fr a way t help them. He was sad that all f their bks were destryed. That’s when he created his prgram, which gives bks away t peple in need.
    Camern’s prgram cllects bks fr yung peple f all ages and reading levels. He cllects bks fr kids wh are blind r with lw visin, t, because he wants everyne t have bks. Camern knws that bks can help kids think abut their future. They d this by helping kids dream abut what they might be when they grw up. Learning abut new things can give kids new interests. Six years later, Camern is still giving away bks.
    Many f the bks he gives away were given t him by thers, but Camern’s grandmther als shps fr bks that dn’t cst a lt. She buys bks that are new r that lk new. In additin t wrking with schls, Camern and his grandmther give bks t children in places near their hme, such as hspitals, libraries, and
    day camps.
    Camern wants t keep his prgram ging and grwing. Over the past six years, he has given away mre than 3000 bks. He has als wn many prizes fr his wrk. His prgram has grwn ver the years, t. Last Christmas, Camern was able t give away tys besides bks.
    Camern Payne is making a difference in kids’ lives by giving away the things he lves. Wh needs help in yur cmmunity? Hw might yu help?
    14. Why did Camern create his prgram?
    A. Because he lst everything in a huse fire.
    B. Because he saw the sadness f a pr family.
    C. Because he wanted t share his lve f bks.
    D. Because he felt sad abut thers’ lss f bks.
    15. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. The cllected bks are nt fit fr beginners.
    B. Camern hpes t win prizes by his prgram.
    C. Camern gets supprt frm his family member.
    D. There are n suitable bks fr blind children.
    16. Which may be the best title?
    A. Reading enriches the mind.
    B. If yu wuld take, give first.
    C. A gd bk is a gd friend.
    D. Bks presented, lve shared.
    C
    N matter hw many steps yu take each day, yur health benefits add up. But thse wh take 7,000 steps a day may be adding years t their lives.
    New research fund that middle-aged adults wh tk that many steps daily were up t 70 percent less likely t die at a yunger-than- expected age than thse whse mvement ttalled fewer than 7,000 steps a day. The study, which invlved 2,110 middle-aged adults wh wre a step-cunting device and then were tracked fr nearly 11 years, was published in the jurnal JAMA Netwrk Open. Hw fast participants walked (referred t as their step intensity)did nt affect their mrtality risk. Rather, thse wh walked mre lived lnger. The researchers fund, hwever, that taking mre than 10,000 steps a day — the number ften cited as a daily gal fr health — prduced n further drp in mrtality risk.
    Physical activity like walking is cnsidered ne f the mst imprtant things peple can d t imprve their well-being, accrding t the Centers fr Disease Cntrl and Preventin. A frmer CDC directr described physical activity as the clsest thing we have t a wnder drug. Amng its benefits, walking can reduce risk fr high bld pressure, heart disease, diabetes and depressin and it can help cntrl weight and imprve sleep. It is cnsidered gd fr yur bnes, muscles, heart and brain. Althugh walking is cnsidered safe fr mst peple, thse wh have any cncerns shuld check with their dctr befre starting any new physical activity rutine. Fr adults generally, natinal guidelines fcus n time spent n an activity rather than number f steps, recmmending 150 minutes a week f prper activity, such as walking.
    17. What is the discvery f the new research?
    A. Middle-aged adults are mre wrried abut their health.
    B. Middle-aged men taking 7000 steps a day may live lnger.
    C. Hw fast we walked culd have an influence n ur fitness.
    D. Taking 10000 steps a day is better than 7000 steps fr health.
    18. What des the underlined phrase in paragraph 2 mean?
    A. Death rate. B. Living quality.
    C. Health benefits. D. Physical activity.
    19. What can we infer frm the text?
    A. Physical activity can take the place f drugs gradually.
    B. Walking has mre benefits ver ther frms f exercise.
    C. It is suggested that adults walk at mst 150 mins a week.
    D. Yu’d better ask yur dctr if wrried abut new exercise.
    20. In which clumn f a newspaper can we find this text?
    A. Sprts. B. Health.
    C. Opinin. D. Science.
    第二节 (共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    Camping with Kids: A Guide fr Family-Friendly Outdr Fun
    Heading ut t the wilderness with the little nes is a big deal, especially if it’s fr the first time. Yur kids’ first camping trip is an adventure, but it can be difficult t manage. With careful planning, yu can create memries that will last a lifetime, and yur kids will be asking when the next trip will be.
    21 . Befre yu head ut t the campgrund, talk abut camping at hme. Tell them what t expect, and read camping stries. There are sme great bks abut camping t teach yur kids abut what they’ll be experiencing.
    Invite the kids in packing. 22 . Talk abut each item yu’re packing and why they’ll need it, s they understand what each item is fr. Remember t ask if there’s anything special they wuld like t bring alng and listen t their pinins.
    Ask them what they want t eat and d. Kids are little humans with likes, interests, and expectatins. Planning yur trip arund yur kids’ interests will wrk t create a smther trip. Help them understand there may be limitatins. 23 .
    Make camping educatinal. Even if yur little nes aren’t hme schled, camping is the perfect educatinal pprtunity. Here are sme examples f ways yu can make camping educatinal:
    ● 24 .
    ●Take nature hikes arund the area and teach yur kids abut the different wild animals and the sunds they make.
    ●Pay attentin t histrical sites and interactive visitr centers at nearby parks.
    25 . With the abve tips, yur family will set ut fr the adventure f a lifetime and will talk abut it fr years t cme.
    A. Intrduce yur kids t camping.
    B. Plan accrdingly, and then plan again.
    C. Bring bks t read while camping with kids.
    D. Fr example, they’re nt ging t be living n ice cream.
    E. It is imprtant t make them take part in the packing prcess.
    F. That’s why parents shuld get everything prepared fr their kids.
    G. Camping with kids desn’t have t be stressful with prper planning.
    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分37.5分)
    第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    Once upn a time, a father and his sn went t a kite flying festival. The sn was very excited t see all the clurful 26 in the sky and asked his father t buy him ne. T make him 27 , the father went t a nearby stre and bught ne. The sn started t 28 his kite excitedly. The wind 29 the kite high int the air. Sn it was high up in the sky.
    After a while, he thught t himself, “It seems that the string is 30 the kite frm flying higher. If I 31 it, the kite will be free t fly even higher.” S he asked his father fr a small knife and cut the string.
    Withut the string, the kite did g a little bit 32 . Hwever, it sn began t cme dwn and 33 n a tall tree. The sn was unhappy. He expected that the kite wuld fly higher after he cut the string, nt fall dwn. He turned t his father fr a(an) 34 .
    “Well, the string wasn’t hlding the kite dwn; 35 , it was helping it stay up when the wind died dwn and guiding it in the right directin when the wind 36 ,” the father explained. “When we cut the string, the kite lst that 37 and fell dwn. In the same way, we may feel that 38 , like rules r hard tasks, are hlding us back, but they are actually guiding us in the right 39 . In ther wrds, limits can guide us 40 .”
    26. A. kites B. birds C. ballns D. cluds
    27. A. cnfused B. anxius C. frightened D. happy
    28. A. keep B. make C. fly D. take
    29. A. filled B. blew C. drpped D. shk
    30. A. preventing B. helping C. attracting D. guiding
    31. A. fasten B. fld C. cver D. break
    32. A. farther B. lnger C. higher D. quicker
    33. A. grew B. landed C. climbed D. hid
    34. A. explanatin B. suggestin C. acceptance D. slutin
    35. A. finally B. gradually C. bviusly D. actually
    36. A. picked up B. fell dwn C. went away D. came near
    37. A. sight B. weight C. faith D. supprt
    38. A. changes B. challenges C. limits D. failures
    39. A. mvement B. directin C. rganizatin D. arrangement
    40. A. dwnward B. frward C. inward D. afterward
    第二节 单句填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    (一)单词拼写
    41. Jenny felt ________(尴尬的)alne with strangers.
    42. I hadn’t seen Ann fr 20 years, but I ________(辨认出)her immediately.
    43. There were three ________(一代人)at the party—grandparents, parents and children.
    (二)短语拼写
    44. ________ ________(要是……会怎么样)that dream cmes true?
    45. We are lking frward t the new life in ________ ________ ________(高中).
    46. Sme peple ________ ________(丧失信心)when they cme acrss defeats while thers rise t challenges.
    (三)单句语法填空(在空白处填入所需内容的正确形式)
    47. Let’s g and wrk ut in the gym, ________ we?
    48. There is smething ________(cnfuse)in yur presentatin.
    49. It’s raining quite ________(heavy). She wn’t cme back sn.
    50. Are yu ________(cntact)the travel agent the day after tmrrw?
    第四部分 写作 (满分25分)
    51. 假定你是李华,今年暑假你和家人去了北岳恒山旅游。请你给英国的朋友 Chris写一封邮件分享这次经历,内容包括:
    1. 旅游经历;
    2. 你的感想。
    注意:1. 写作词数应为80个左右;
    2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    Dear Chris,
    I’m writing t share with yu my family travel t Hengshan Muntain this summer vacatin.
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    大同市2024—2025学年度第一学期期中高一年级教学质量监测
    英语答案详解
    第一部分 听力 (共两节,满分15分)
    1-5CCBBC 6-10 CAABB
    Text 1
    M: Anne, ur rder hasn’t cme yet.
    W: Yes. I guess the waiter frgt ur rder. Actually I was ging t rder takeut at hme.
    Text 2
    M: What is n TV tnight?
    W: There will be a mvie abut ftball n the sprts channel.
    M: Great! I’m a ftball fan.
    Text 3
    M: Gd mrning, I bught the sweater yesterday. But it desn’t fit.
    W: Oh, I knw. D yu want t change it fr anther size?
    M: N. I fund the sweater was faulty. S can I get my mney back?
    Text 4
    W: Can I send this package t the USA?
    M: Certainly. By airmail r seamail?
    W: Hw different are these rates?
    M: Yur package weighs 420 grams. S it is 21 dllars by air, r 7 dllars by sea.
    Text 5
    W: Jhn, are yu ging straight hme after schl this afternn?
    M: N, I wn’t finish my class until ne ’ clck, and after that I’ m ging t spend tw hurs at the library befre ging hme.
    Text 6
    W: I’m hungry, hney.
    M: OK, tell me where yu wuld like t g fr dinner.
    W: Well, it is up t yu. Remember, yu prmised t give me a big surprise.
    M: Well, then, I say we first have dinner at “Old Jhnsn’s” and then g t the theatre afterwards.
    W: That is a surprise, but that isn’t quite big.
    M: Srry, I’ve frgtten. There is anther surprise I haven’t tld yu. I have gt a raise because f my gd wrk.
    W: Wnderful! Yu are s great.
    Text 7
    W: Are yu free nw?
    M: N, I’m nt free tday.
    W: Then when can we meet tgether?
    M: D yu mean t talk abut the play we will act ut?
    W: Right. It’s really necessary fr us t prepare well this time. Yu knw it is really imprtant fr us including Jane and Judy.
    M: I certainly knw that.
    W: Well, that’s why I’m ging t meet with yu. Can yu spare sme time n matter hw busy yu are?
    M: Hw abut 7:30 pm tmrrw? Half an hur after I finish my English lessn.
    W: OK! That suits me fine. I’ll call them. We’ll see yu tmrrw evening.
    第二部分 阅读(满分22.5分)
    第一节:阅读理解(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    11—13 CDB
    【解析】本文是一篇应用文。文章介绍了大英博物馆的相关信息。
    11.细节理解题。根据 Ticket infrmatin部分中的“Yu’re advised t bk a free ticket t guarantee the entry.”可知由于人数限制, 建议提前订票。故选C。
    12.细节理解题。根据 Opening times部分中的“Daily: frm 10:00 am t 5:00 pm(Fridays: 8:30 pm)(每日:上午10时至下午5时(星期五:晚上8时30分))”可知
    星期五是晚上8:30闭馆。故选D。
    13. 细节理解题。根据 Transprt部分中的“Ging t the museum by bus r subway is very cnvenient, which can be yur first chice.”可知,去博物馆最佳选择是乘坐公交车或地铁。故选B。
    14-16DCD
    【解析】本文是一篇记叙文。文章介绍了一个来自北卡罗来纳州的男孩 Camern Payne通过送书的方式来分享他对书籍的热爱。
    14. 细节理解题。根据第二段“When Camern heard abut a family wh lst everything in a huse fire, he was lking fr a way t help them. He was sad that all f their bks were destryed. That’s when he created his prgram, which gives bks away t peple in need.(当 Camern听说有一家人在一场火灾中失去了一切时,他在想办法帮助他们。他很伤心他们所有的书都被毁了。就在那时,他创建了一个项目,把书送给有需要的人)”可知,他为有人在火灾中失去了所有的书而伤心,所以Camern创建了这个项目。故选D。
    15.细节理解题。根据第四段中“Many f the bks he gives away were given t him by thers, but Camern’s grandmther als shps fr bks that dn’t cst a lt. She buys bks that are new r that lk new.(他赠送的很多书都是别人送给他的,但 Camern的祖母也会自己买不贵的书。她买新的或看起来新的书。)”可知,Camern的祖母是非常支持他的。故选C。
    16.主旨大意题。根据第一段“The by frm Nrth Carlina is sharing his lve f bks by giving them away.”及全文内容可知, Camern通过送书的方式分享他对书籍的喜爱,所以“赠人书籍,分享爱”是本文的最佳标题。故选D。
    17-20BADB
    【解析】本文是一篇说明文,主要介绍了一项新的研究发现每天走7000步能延长中年人的寿命以及散步的好处。
    17. 推理判断题。根据第二段“New research fund that middle-aged adults wh tk that many steps daily were up t 70 percent less likely t die at a yunger-than-expected age than thse whse mvement ttalled fewer than 7,000 steps a day.(一项新的研究发现,每天走那么多步的中年人比每天走不到7000步的中年人死于比预期更早的年龄的可能性要低70%。)”可知每天走 7000步的中年人有可能寿命更长, 故选B。
    18. 词意猜测题。结合上题以及第二段“Hw fast participants walked (referred t as their step intensity)did nt affect their mrtality risk. Rather, thse wh walked mre lived lnger.(参与者走得多快(即他们的步数强度)并不影响他们的死亡风险。相反,走路多的人寿命更长。)”可知,走得快并不能降低早死的风险,走得多的人才行,所以“mrtality risk”指的是死亡率。故选A。
    19. 细节理解题。由第二段中的“Althugh walking is cnsidered safe fr mst peple, thse wh have any cncerns shuld check with their dctr befre starting any new physical activity rutine.(尽管散步被认为对大多数人是安全的,但是那些有忧虑的人在开始任何新的体育活动之前应该咨询医生)”故选D。
    20. 推理判断题。根据本文主要内容——介绍了一项新的研究发现每天走7000步能延长中年人的寿命以及散步的好处,可知本文应该是出自报纸上的健康专栏。故选B。
    第二节:七选五(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    21-25AEDCG
    【解析】这是一篇说明文。文章介绍和孩子第一次露营时的一些指导。
    21. 根据A项内容“向孩子介绍此次的露营情况”与下句中的“Befre yu head ut t the campgrund, talk abut camping at hme.”(出发前和孩子在谈论此次露营)内容连贯一致,故选A。
    22. 根据E项内容“让孩子参与行李打包是非常重要的”与前一句“邀请孩子一起打包行李”以及下句“谈论你正在打包的东西和为什么他们需要这些东西、因此孩子们可以明白这些东西是有什么用”,内容一致,故选E。
    23. 根据本段第一句主题句“询问孩子们他们想吃的东西”以及前一句“帮助孩子们弄明白有一些限制”可知D项内容“比如说,孩子们不能以吃冰淇淋为生”符合文意,故选D。
    24. 根据主题句“使得露营有教育意义”得知“露营时给孩子们带一些书”做法正确,故选C。
    25. 根据G项内容“有了合理的计划,和孩子们一起去露营就不会紧张”可知对上文起到总结作用,故选 G。
    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分37.5分)
    第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    26. A 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. A 37. D 38. C 39. B 40. B
    【解析】这是一篇记叙文。文章主要记叙父子俩放风筝的经历,父亲教导儿子去领悟约束能够引导人们前进的哲理。
    26. 考查名词词义辨析。A. kite风筝;B. bird小鸟;C. balln气球;D. clud云朵。根据句意“看见天空中全是五颜六色的风筝,儿子非常激动。”可知A项正确。
    27. 考查形容词词义辨析。A. cnfused困惑的;B. anxius焦虑的;C. frightened害怕的;D. happy开心的。根据句意“为了让儿子开心,父亲到附近的商店去给他买风筝。”可知D 项正确。
    28. 考查动词词义辨析。A. keep保持;B. make制作;C. fly放飞;D. take 拿走。根据句意“儿子开始激动地放飞起风筝。”可知C 项正确。
    29. 考查动词词义辨析。 A. fill填充;B. blw风吹;C. drp掉下;D. shake 晃动。根据句意“风把风筝吹到了高空。”可知B 项正确。
    30. 考查动词词义辨析。A. prevent阻止;B. help 帮助;C. attract吸引;D. guide 引导。根据句意“风筝线似乎在阻止风筝飞高。”可知A项正确。
    31.考查动词词义辨析。A. fasten 系紧;B. fld 折叠;C. cver 遮盖;D. break剪断。根据句意“如果我剪断风筝线,风筝会变得自由,飞得更高。”可知D 项正确。
    32. 考查形容词词义辨析。A. farther 更远;B. lnger 更长;C. higher更高;D. quicker更快。根据句意“没有了风筝线,风筝的确会飞高一点。”可知C项正确。
    33. 考查动词词义辨析。A. grw生长;B. land着陆;C. climb 攀登;D. hide 躲藏。根据句意“风筝很快就开始下坠,落在了树上。”可知B项正确。
    34.考查名词词义辨析。A. explanatin解释;B. suggestin 建议;C. acceptance接受;D. slutin 解决办法。根据句意“他转向父亲寻求解释。”可知A 项正确。
    35. 考查副词词义辨析。A. finally 最后;B. gradually 逐渐;C. bviusly显然;D. actually 实际。根据句意“风筝线不是拉风筝下来,实际上它是在风小的时候帮助风筝飞起来,在风大的时候控制风筝的方向。”可知D项正确。
    36. 考查短语用法辨析。A. pick up 增强;B. fall dwn倒下;C. g away 离开;D. cme near 走近。根据句意“实际上,是在风小的时候帮助风筝飞起来,在风大的时候控制风筝的方向。”可知A项正确。
    37. 考查名词词义辨析。A. sight视力;B. weight重量;C. faith信念;D. supprt支撑。根据句意“风筝失去了支撑就坠落下来。”可知D 项正确。
    38. 考查名词词义辨析。A. change 改变;B. challenge 挑战;C. limit约束;D. failure失败。根据句意“我们会感觉到像规矩或艰巨的任务等这样的约束会阻碍我们前进。”可知C项正确。
    39. 考查名词词义辨析。A. mvement运动;B. directin方向;C. rganizatin 组织;D. arrangement 安排。根据句意“但它们实际上在引导我们向正确的方向前进。”可知B 项正确。
    40. 查副词词义辨析。A. dwnward 向后;B. frward 向前;C. inward 向内;D. afterward 过后。根据句意“换言之,约束能引导我们前进。”可知B 项正确。
    第二节 单句填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    注意:短语填空(44-46)错一词,不给分
    41. awkward/ embarrassed 42. recgnised/ recgnized/ identified 43. generatins
    44. What if 45. senir high schl 46. lse heart/ lse cnfidence
    47. shall 48. cnfusing 49. heavily 50. cntacting
    【解析】
    41. 考查形容词。根据句意“詹妮与陌生人独处时感觉很尴尬。”可知空格处应该使用形容词 awkward/ embarrassed。
    42. 考查动词。根据句意“我二十年没见安了,但马上认出了她。”可知空格处应该使用动词 recgnized/ recgnised/ identified。
    43. 考查名词。根据句意“祖父母、父母和孩子三代人出席了聚会。”可知空格处应该使用名词 generatins。
    44. 考查代词短语。根据句意“如果梦想实现了怎么样?”可知空格处应该使用代词短语 what if。
    45. 考查名词短语。根据句意“我们期望高中的新生活。”可知空格处应该使用名词短语 senir high schl。
    46. 考查动词短语。根据句意“遇到挫折,有些人会灰心丧气,可有些人会面对挑战。”可知空格处应该使用动词短语 lse heart/ lse cnfidence。
    47. 考查反意疑问句。根据句意“让我们去体育馆锻炼吧,怎么样?”可知空格处应该使用 shall we进行反意疑问。
    48. 考查形容词用法。根据句意“你的展示中有令人难懂的东西。”可知空格处应该使用形容词 cnfusing修饰前面的不定代词。
    49. 考查副词用法。根据句意“雨下得很大。”可知空格处应该使用 heavily修饰前面的动词。
    50. 考查一般将来时。根据句意“你后天打算联系旅行社吗? ”可知空格处应该用现在进行时表示将来的计划。
    第四部分 写作 (满分25分)
    【参考范文】
    Dear Chris,
    I’m writing t share with yu my family travel t Hengshan Muntain this summer vacatin. Hengshan Muntain, lcated in the sutheast f Datng City in Shanxi Prvince, is a famus histrical turist destinatin with beautiful natural scenery.
    It was a sunny day when I went hiking with my parents in Hengshan Muntain. The air in the muntains was fresh and clean. We walked thrugh frests, crssed streams, and climbed rcky paths. Alng the way up, we saw many clurful flwers and heard sme beautiful birds singing.
    Being in nature made me feel very happy and relaxed. I realized hw imprtant it is t take a break frm the busy city life and enjy the peacefulness f nature. This experience taught me appreciate the beauty f the natural wrld and take care f ur envirnment.
    Lking frward t yur early reply!
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    【导语】本篇写作属于应用文,要求考生写一篇介绍自己暑假旅游经历和感想的电子邮件。
    【详解】
    1. 词汇表达
    休息一下:take a break frm
    欣赏美景:appreciate the beauty
    期盼回复:lk frward t yur reply
    2. 复杂句式
    ①Hengshan Muntain, lcated in the sutheast f Datng City in Shanxi Prvince, is a famus histrical turist destinatin with beautiful natural scenery. (运用过去分词作定语)
    ②It was a sunny day when I went hiking with my parents in Hengshan Muntain.(运用 when 引导的定语从句)
    ③I realized hw imprtant it is t take a break frm the busy city life and enjy the peacefulness f nature.(运用 hw 引导的宾语从句)

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