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    河南省信阳市新县2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中质量监测英语试卷

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    河南省信阳市新县2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中质量监测英语试卷

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    这是一份河南省信阳市新县2024-2025学年八年级上学期期中质量监测英语试卷,共15页。试卷主要包含了听力理解,阅读理解,完形填空,语篇填空,补全对话,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    一、听力理解 (20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
    第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
    1. Hw ften shuld the wman take the medicine?
    A. Once a day. B. Twice a day. C. Three times a day.
    2. Hw will the by g t schl?
    A. Ride the bike. B. Take the car. C. Take the subway.
    3. What can the by eat nw?
    A. Candy. B. Apples. C. Junk fd.
    4. What day is it tday?
    A. It’s Wednesday. B. It’s Thursday. C. It’s Friday.
    5. Hw many hurs did Julia sleep last night?
    A. 3. B. 5. C. 8.
    第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
    6. Which is the by’s favrite team?
    A. England. B. France. C. America.
    7. Wh des the wman plan t watch the Wrld Cup with?
    A. Her father. B. The man. C. Her brther.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
    8. What des Jim ask May t d?
    A. T lk after his pet. B. T teach him t play tennis.
    C. T g t Lndn with him.
    9. Hw lng is Jim ging t stay in Lndn?
    A. Fr abut tw weeks. B. Fr abut three weeks.
    C. Fr abut ne mnth.
    听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12 三个小题。
    10. Why did the speaker stay at hme fr tw weeks?
    A. Because he had the flu. B. Because his ft hurt. C. Because he had sre eyes.
    11. Wh gave the speaker a lt f help in studies?
    A. His parents. B. His brther and sister. C. His teachers and classmates.
    12. What des the speaker learn during thse days?
    A. He learned hw t use WeChat.
    B. He learned hw t teach himself.
    C. He learned hw t ask his classmates fr help.
    听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15 三个小题。
    13. What are the tw speakers mainly talking abut?
    A. Weekend plans. B. Hliday activities. C. Favrite mvies.
    14. Hw des the wman like Ice Age 4?
    A. It’s great. B. It’s funny. C. It’s bring.
    15. When will they meet?
    A. At 4:00. B. At 6:00. C. At 8:00.
    第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。

    A B C D E
    16. _______ 17. _______ 18. _______ 19. _______ 20. _______
    二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
    A
    A lt f peple like t spend their time ding sme reading. They may read stries, nvels,
    magazines (杂志), newspapers and s n. Here I’d like t recmmend(推荐) The Trend t yu.
    The Trend
    Cntents(目录) Nvember 2023▲
    2. ▲
    ◆A study shws that many students eat t much fast fd s they are getting fat. Read and find ut hw t eat healthily.
    8. Be a gd friend
    ◆A test(测验) t find ut hw imprtant friends are t yu
    ◆5 things yu can d with friends this winter hliday
    11. Trendy zne
    ◆Famus designer (设计师) Alice talks abut the must- have clthes fr this winter.
    ◆Hw t make a bag with ld clthes
    Speak with yur bdy
    ◆ Bdy language (语言) in English- speaking cuntries
    16. Shw me yur pet(宠物)
    ◆Nice phts f cute pets
    ◆Gd ideas fr keeping pets
    20. E- mail Jane
    ◆Three peple's interesting stries abut their trips
    根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
    ( )21. Which f the fllwing is the best fr “ ▲ ”?
    A. Schl trips B. Students’ lives
    C. Make new friends D. Say n t fast fd
    ( )22. What d we knw abut Alice?
    A. She had a clthes stre.
    B. She gt famus last winter.
    C. She turns ld clthes int bags.
    D. She knws what clthes are ppular.
    ( )23. T knw smething abut bdy language, yu can read pages (页) .
    A.8-10 B.11-12
    C.13-15 D. 16-19
    ( )24. On page 20, yu can read smething abut .
    A. cute pets B. interesting trips
    C. language learning D. healthy eating habits
    ( )25. The Trend is prbably a .
    A. newspaper B. magazine
    C. strybk D. nvel
    B
    My name is Jennifer and nw I am in Beijing. I came t China ne year ag, but I didn’t see much f the cuntry. S I decided t leave my wrk and g n a 3- mnth trip by bike.
    My parents were bth surprised when they heard the news (消息). They tried t talk me ut f it.“ It's nt safe. Yu' re in anther cuntry,” they said. But I made up my mind(拿定主意).
    Befre this bike trip, I culd never ride fr ver tw hurs in ne day. S n the first tw days, I rde just five hurs a day. I gt strng after riding fr sme days. At last, it was easy fr me t ride fr eight hurs each day.
    I saw a lt f beautiful things and had sme delicius fd n the way. But the best f the trip was the peple. All f them were friendly. Once I met sme visitrs in Yunnan. We caught sme fish in the lake and cked it ver a fire ( 火). It was great! I als met a grup f ld peple. They were in their 60s and 70s, but they were better at riding than I was. We talked a lt, and they helped me fix (修理) my bike.
    When the trip came t the end, I wanted t keep ging. It is an experience (经历)I will never frget.
    根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
    ( )26. Why did Jennifer g n her bike trip?
    A. T get strng.
    B. T make sme mney.
    C. T see mre f China.
    D. T find a city t wrk in.
    ( )27. Why did Jennifer’s parents want t stp her frm taking the trip?
    A. They thught she was t yung.
    B. They thught the trip was dangerus.
    C. They thught she shuld keep wrking.
    D. They thught the trip tk t much time.
    ( )28. At last, Jennifer culd ride fr abut hurs mre than she culd at first.
    A.2 B.3 C.5 D.8
    ( )29. What did Jennifer d during her bike trip?
    ①She helped fix bikes.
    ②She caught sme fish,
    ③She had delicius fd.
    ④She met a lt f nice peple.
    A.①②③ B.①②④
    C.①③④ D.②③④
    ( )30. What's the best title f the passage?
    A. My great bike trip
    B. A nice American girl
    C. My first trip t China
    D. Friendly Chinese peple
    C
    70- year- ld Tan Xiangying is a grandma f tw kids in Xitu Twn, Chngqing. Every week, she ges t the primary schl(小学) there t jin a reading saln(沙龙).
    The reading saln is abut family educatin ( 教 育). At first, Tan thught educatin was a teacher’s wrk, and that parents r grandparents just needed t meet children's basic needs (基本需求). After taking a few classes in the saln, Tan learned that her ideas abut educatin were nt right. Nw she knws every persn in the family has a big impact(影响) n kids. She asked ver 10 peple her age t jin the saln. Als, she’s happy that she has a wnderful schl life. She never thught abut that befre.
    Cui Xialan is the first teacher t give classes in the reading saln. In 2015, Cui fund that many children's parents wrked away frm hme and that these children lived with their grandparents. Mst f the grandparents knew little abut hw t wrk well with the children. That was nt gd. S she came up with the idea f the reading saln.
    In seven years, the number f peple in the reading saln has grwn frm 10 t mre than 500. Many ther schls als have their reading salns fr parents and grandparents. Cui is happy abut that. She said,“ It’s imprtant that the schl and the family wrk tgether. I hpe every child can grw in a healthy envirnment(环境).”
    根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
    ( )31. Why des Tan g t the primary schl every week?
    A. T give sme lessns.
    B. T help clean the schl.
    C. T learn abut educatin.
    D. T visit her grandchildren.
    ( )32. What des the underlined wrd“ that” in Paragraph 2 refer t?
    A. Being a grandma.
    B. Asking thers t jin the saln.
    C. Having a wnderful schl life.
    D. Knwing mre abut family educatin.
    ( )33. What des Paragraph 3 talk abut?
    A. Why Cui started the reading saln.
    B. What many parents thught f educatin.
    C. Why many parents wrk away frm hme.
    D. Hw Cui gives classes in the reading saln.
    ( )34. Frm the last paragraph, we knw the reading saln is .
    A. free B. serius
    C. successful D. special
    ( )35. What's the best title fr the passage?
    A. A great grandma
    B. The use f schl.
    C. Family is imprtant
    D. A special reading saln
    D
    There are sme things that we dn't ften think abut, like walking, because there really is n need t. 36
    All thrugh ur lives, we are learning new things. But many f us dn't really knw the best way t learn. 37 Here are their findings.
    Almst ( 几乎) all students re- read ( 重 读) when they are trying t learn new infrmatin (信息). 38 If yu re- read smething as sn as yu have finished learning the first time, there is almst n use.
    Self- testing (自我测试) is ne f the best ways f remembering new things. 39 Self- testing is fast and easy and wrks well.
    Many students underline (在······下面划线) things when they are reading smething fr the first time. But this desn't help much with learning.
    40 It is much better t learn less at ne time and study it a few days later.
    根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使短文意思通顺、内容完整,并将其标号填写在下面题号后的横线上。
    36. 37. 38. 39. 40、
    三、完形填空 (共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
    先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
    Three years ag, I mved t a new huse. It had a big garden, 41 the garden lked terrible
    because grass grew all ver it. I 42 t cut (割) the grass and grw sme vegetables in the garden. I started t act and 43 cut half f the grass. Then, I saw smething 44 — a small flwer. It was yellw and lked like a star. It lked s 45 that I just cut the grass arund it. In the fllwing days, when I trimmed (修整) the 46 , I always cut arund the flwer. At that time,I didn’t 47 at all that there wuld be a surprise fr me.
    The next year, I nce again trimmed my garden t grw vegetables. I was surprised t see that there were mre 48 in my garden. They all came frm the little 49 ne. I was very happy, s nce again I 50 them.
    Nw, three years later, these yellw flwers still 51 in my garden. I lve t see them. The flwers als make me think abut ther gd 52 we can bring ut in ur lives: Every smile (微笑) we share makes thers smile t. When we 53 thers, we can make thers happy. At the same time, we can bring ut the kindness ( 善 良) in thse arund 54 . If we can all share lve with thers, all f ur days may be 55 lve then.
    ( )41. A. as B. but
    C. if D. r
    ( )42. A. decided B. stpped
    C. frgt D. preferred
    ( )43. A. instead B. still
    C. ften D. sn
    ( )44. A. wrng B. different
    C. serius D. scary
    ( )45. A. ld B. famus
    C. beautiful D. clean
    ( )46. A. curt B. park
    C. farm D, garden
    ( )47. A. find B. hear
    C. knw D. understand
    ( )48. A. birds B. trees
    C. flwers D. vegetables
    ( )49. A. yellw B. blue
    C、red D. pink
    ( )50. A. felt like B. cut arund
    C. listened t D. pinted at
    ( )51. A. wrk B. happen
    C. start D. grw
    ( )52. A. ideas B. places
    C. things D. ways
    ( )53. A. welcme B. help
    C. meet D. teach
    ( ) 54. A. us B. them
    C. it D. yu
    ( )55. A. busy with B. gd at
    C. famus fr D. full f
    四、语篇填空 (15小题, 每小题1分,共15分)
    第一节 阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
    Wang Qiang wants t be a gd English speaker. He 56 t be gd at giving speeches (演讲) in English. He reads sme bks t learn hw t d that. Then, he starts practicing what he learned.
    Wang Qiang desn't say his speech the 57 way ver and ver. He knws that's f n use t him. 58 , he practices prperly (正确地). One. part f that is t have imprvement (提高) gals. Fr 59 , Wang Qiang knws he desn't knw hw t prnunce (发音) sme wrds. S, he wrks n that 60 he is able t d that.
    Anther part f practicing prperly is caring abut quality (质量) instead f quantity (数量). S, Wang Qiang desn't practice fr 61 just t put the time in. Instead, he practices until he sees imprvement.
    T 62 his imprvement, Wang Qiang recrds himself by making shrt vides (视频). Then he watches the vides again and again. He can see nt nly his errrs (错误) but als his 63 pints. He can als shw it t thers and get 64 ideas.
    Frm that, Wang Qiang can find ut where he has imprved. Mre imprtantly, he can find ut where he needs t wrk hard 65 and keep practicing.
    56. 57. 58. 59. 60. .
    61. 62. 63. 64. 65. .
    第二节 阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
    Jy lves instant ndles (方便面). She eats them at least nce a week. Althugh (尽管) she knws it is nt gd 66 her t eat a lt, she still lves instant ndles. She thinks they 67 cheap (便宜的) and delicius. When she cks them, she ften adds ( 加) smething t make them mre delicius. S, what 68 she add t make her ndles mre delicius? When she cks the ndles, she always puts 69 egg in them. She lves eggs. They are ne f her favrites. Smetimes she adds sme pieces f meat 70 sme vegetables t her ndles.
    66. 67. 68. 69. 70. .
    五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    A: Hell, Jhn! (71) ?
    B: Tmrrw? Oh,I'm ging t take a trip in the cuntryside.
    A: Sunds great! (72) ?
    B: Certainly nt. I'm glad yu are interested and can g with me. Let's start ff early tmrrw mrning.
    A:(73) ?
    B: Let's meet at half past six.
    A:OK. Where shall we meet?
    B:(74) . We can g there by bus.
    A: That's fine. See yu tmrrw!
    B:(75) !
    六、书面表达(20分)
    假如你是光明中学的一名学生。你校校报英语专栏倡议“戒掉坏习惯”并以此为主题向同学们征文。请你根据以下写作要求,写一篇英语短文,向该专栏投稿。
    写作要求:1)你有什么坏习惯,你是怎么养成的;
    2)这个坏习惯对你的影响,你准备如何改正;
    3) 文中不得出现考生的真实姓名和学校名称;
    4)词数90左右。















    A. S sme scientists- in the USA interviewed (采访) sme great students t find sme answers.
    B. Yu can just answer questins and see the answers at the back f a bk, r yu can ask and answer questins with a friend.
    C. Spending hurs and hurs learning and remembering smething new with n stpping isn't a gd way f learning.
    D. The way wrks best if yu re- read smething abut fur days after yu first learned it.
    E. There are ther things we dn't ften think abut, like learning, but we shuld.
    hur, hpe, they, same, instead, check, gd, until, n, example
    2024-2025学年度上期期中质量监测试卷
    八年级英语参考答案
    一、听力理解
    第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
    1. M: Yu have a serius cld. Take this medicine three times a day until yu get better.
    W: OK, thank yu, dctr.
    2. W: There will be mre cars n the street. I think peple will use the subways mre.
    M: Yes, I will g t schl by bike every day.
    3. M: Mm, I’d like sme candy.
    W: Eating t much junk fd isn’t gd fr yur health. What abut sme fruit?
    M: OK.
    4. M: Hell, Ann. When are yu ging t have yur birthday party?
    W: I plan t have it in tw days.
    M: Oh, it’s n Friday.
    5. M: Julia, yu lk tired tday.
    W: I didn’t sleep well last night. I usually sleep eight hurs. But last night I slept five hurs.
    第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
    M: D yu like watching ftball games?
    W: Yes. They are exciting.
    M: The Wrld Cup begins next mnth. I expect my favrite team t win.
    W: Which is yur favrite team?
    M: I like England best.
    W: My brther likes watching ftball games, t. We plan t watch them then. D yu want t jin us?
    M: Sure. That will be interesting.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
    (phne bell rings)
    M: Hell, May! This is Jim.
    W: Hi, Jim!
    M: Culd yu give me a hand?
    W: Sure. What’s the prblem?
    M: I’m ging t see my aunt in Lndn. Wuld yu mind lking after my pet dg?
    W: Of curse nt. Hw lng are yu ging t stay there?
    M: Fr abut three weeks.
    W: Have a gd trip!
    M: Thank yu.
    听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12 三个小题。
    Last mnth, I hurt my ft when I played sccer and had t stay at hme fr abut tw weeks. I began t learn the lessns by myself. I studied English n the Internet. I rang up my teachers and classmates when I had questins in my studies. They gave me a lt f help. During thse days, I learned hw t teach myself. Nw I get well enugh t g t schl. I must be mre careful when I play sprts.
    听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15 三个小题。
    W: Hi, Michael! Wuld yu like t d smething with me this weekend?
    M: Sure! What shall we d?
    W: I dn’t knw. D yu have any ideas?
    M: Why dn’t we see a mvie?
    W: It sunds gd t me. Which mvie shall we see?
    M: Let’s see Ice Age 4.
    W: I dn’t lve it a lt. It’s fr kids and it’s bring. Hw abut ging t see Mad Dctr Brwn. I hear it’s quite a funny mvie.
    M: OK! Let’s g t see that. When is it n?
    W: It’s n at 8:00 this Saturday. Shall we have smething t eat befre the mvie?
    M: Sure. That sunds great. What abut ging t that new Italian restaurant?
    W: Great idea! Let’s meet there at 6:00.
    M: OK! See yu!
    第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
    D yu want t keep healthy? Here are sme ways fr yu. First, yu need t have gd eating habits. Yu’d better eat mre fruit and vegetables. They’re gd fr yur health. Try t eat less fast fd. Secnd, d exercise ften. It can help t build yurself up. Then, yu need t have enugh sleep. It will help yu keep active during the day. Next, remember that happiness is very imprtant. Be happy all the time. If yu’re always unhappy, yu may feel sick. Last, yu shuldn’t have unhealthy habits, such as smking and drinking. They can cause many illnesses.
    听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
    1-5 CABAB 6-10 ACABB 11-15 CBACB 16-20 ECADB
    二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
    21-25:DDCBB 26-30:CBBDA 31-35:CCACD 36-40:EADBC
    三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    41-45 BADBC 46-50 DCCAB 51-55 DCBAD
    四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    第一节
    56.hpes 57. same 58. Instead 59. example 60. until 61. hurs 62. check 63. gd 64.their 65. n
    66. fr 67.are 68. des 69. an 70.r/and
    五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,句中大小写错误,每两个扣0.5分,单词拼写错误每两个扣1分。答案不唯一,如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯,上下文意思连贯无错误,应当给分。共10分)
    71. What are yu ging t d tmrrw/...
    72. Wuld yu mind if I g with yu/ ...
    73. When shall we meet/...
    74. Let's meet at the bus stp in frnt f my huse/ ...
    75. See yu tmrrw/…
    六、书面表达(20分)
    One pssible versin:
    I have a bad habit —— spending t much time playing cmputer games. In the past, I thught it culd help me relax, s I played a lt in my free time.
    Later I fund I was wrng. This habit is in fact quite bad. It makes me s tired that I can't study well at schl. Als, playing cmputer games is bad fr my eyes and I have t wear glasses.
    Nw I knw the best way t relax is ding sprts. S I plan t stp this bad habit and d mre sprts frm nw n.
    英语作文评分标准:(1) 本题总分为20分,按4个档次给分。 (2) 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。 (3) 词数少于80和多于120的,从总分中减去2分。(4) 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。(5) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。(6) 如书写较差以至影响交际,将其分数降低一个档次。
    (2) 各档次的给分范围和要求:
    第四档
    完成了试题规定的任务: 1.覆盖所有内容要点。2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。3.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。4.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
    16~20
    第三档
    基本完成了试题规定的任务: 1.漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。2.作文的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。3.些许语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。4.简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
    整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
    11~15分
    第二档
    未恰当完成试题规定的任务: 1.或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。2.结构单调,词汇项目有限。3.些许语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。4.使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
    信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
    6~10分
    第一档
    未完成试题规定的任务:1.遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。2.结构单调,词汇项目有限。3.语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。4.语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
    信息未能传达给读者。
    1~5分
    0分
    未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

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