吉林省吉林市高新技术产业开发区2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试 英语试题（含解析）

这是一份吉林省吉林市高新技术产业开发区2024-2025学年八年级上学期期末考试 英语试题（含解析），共23页。试卷主要包含了5分）， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、学号填写在答题卡上，并将条形码准确粘贴在条形码区域内。
2. 答题时，考生务必按照考试要求在答题卡上的指定区域内作答，在草稿纸、试卷上答题无效。
听力部分（共30分）一、听力（共30分）
Ⅰ. 情景反应
根据听到的句子，选择恰当的应答语。每小题读三遍。（7.5分）
1. A. It’s Mnday. B. It’s seven ’ clck. C. It’s May 4.
2. A. At five ’clck. B. In five minutes. C. Abut five minutes.
3. A. Gd news. B. I’m srry. C. N, thanks.
4. A. Yes, she des. B. Yes, she is. C. Yes, she can.
5. A. Yes, never. B. Yes, I did. C. N, I dn’t.
Ⅱ. 对话理解
根据听到的对话内容，选择正确答案。对话读三遍。（7.5分）
听对话，回答以下各小题。
6. Where did Tm g n vacatin?
A. T the farm. B. T the summer camp. C. At hme.
7. Wh did Tm g with?
A. His parents. B. His uncle. C. His friends.
听对话，回答以下各小题。
8. What’s the weather like?
A. Ht. B. Warm. C. Cl.
9. Which is the largest swimming pl?
A. Center Swimming Pl. B. Green Swimming Pl. C. Park Swimming Pl.
10. Why dn’t they chse Green Swimming Pl?
A. Because its service is very bad.
B. Because it is the mst crwded.
C. Because its ticket is expensive.
Ⅲ. 图片理解 （7.5分）
看图听描述，选择与听到的描述内容相符合的选项，下列图中有一幅图片与描述内容无关。每小题读三遍。
A. B. C. D. E. F. 11.________ 12. ________ 13. ________ 14. ________ 15. ________
Ⅳ. 短文理解 （7.5分）
根据听到的短文内容，选择正确答案。短文读三遍。
16. On Saturday mrning Jhn ________.
A. played ftball B. did husewrk C. did his hmewrk
17. Jhn’s math hmewrk was ________.
A. easy B. interesting C. t much
18. Jhn went t his aunt’s hme n ________.
A. Saturday afternn B. Saturday evening C. Sunday mrning
19. Usually Jhn ges swimming ________.
A. nce a day B. nce a week C. twice a week
20. Jhn watched TV fr ________ n Sunday evening.
A. an hur B. tw hurs C. three hurs
笔试部分（共90分）二、语言知识运用（共35分）
Ⅴ.从每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个正确答案。（10分）
1．Scientist Wei Shijie is ________ utging ld man, he tries t face any difficulties in life.
A．aB．anC．the
2．During my middle schl life, I understand that ________ thing is t learn smething new and have fun.
A．imprtantB．the mre imprtantC．the mst imprtant
3．I may have sme free time n the winter hliday, s I decide t read ________ bks.
A．a fewB．fewC．a little
4．—________ d yu like the shw The Intelligence Age f CCTV?
—It’s fantastic and educatinal.
A．WhatB．WhichC．Hw
5．—Why d yu watch news almst every night?
—Because I want t find ut what’s ging n ________ the wrld.
A．tB．arundC．fr
6．— I am ging t study Chinese medicine at a university when I grw up.
— Great! ________ yu try yur best, then yu can be anything yu want.
A．As lng asB．AlthughC．S
7．Please ________ me. I will care abut parents and friends frm nw n.
A．fallB．agreeC．believe
8．— Mm, I am making Gubarw fr my grandparents. ________ sugar d I need?
— Tw ________.
A．Hw much; spn f sugar
B．Hw many; spns f sugars
C．Hw much; spns f sugar
9．I ________ play nline games. I dn’t think it’s gd fr me.
A．hardly everB．alwaysC．usually
10．—Can yu cme t play chess with me?
—________. What time?
A．N, I can’tB．SureC．Yes, I am
Ⅵ. （5分）
从文后选择正确选项，其中有一个选项与对话内容无关。
(Alice meets Bb at schl.)
Bb: Hi, Alice! I saw yu play with Mary happily yesterday.
Alice: Hi, Bb! Yes, she is my new friend.
Bb: 11
Alice: Because she is a gd listener. That’s imprtant t me.
Bb: 12
Alice: Of curse. We bth like reading and ding sprts.
Bb: Gd friends can bring ut the best in yu. 13
Alice: Well, yes. She is mre utging, but I am a little quieter.
Bb: I really hpe yur friendship lasts frever. By the way, I heard we are ging t have a welcme party fr ur new freign teacher this weekend.
Alice: 14 My mther is gd at cking.
Bb: It must be delicius! 15 There are many gd places fr skating in the cuntryside.
Alice: What a wnderful weekend!
A．I will bring sme traditinal fd t the party.
B．D yu have anything in cmmn?
C．The freign teacher can speak a little Chinese.
D．I will ask the teacher t g skating.
E．Why d yu make friends with her?
F．Is she different frm yu in any way?
Ⅶ.（5分）
根据所给对话，填写适当的内容，使其完整、通顺、正确，每空词数不限。
（Alice is talking with Bb at hme.）
Alice: Bb, d yu like watching TV?
Bb: 16 . My parents and I all like watching TV.
Alice: 17 ?
Bb: I like talent shws best. They are interesting.
Alice: 18 ?
Bb: I watch them nce a week. What d yu like t d in yur free time?
Alice: 19 . The weekend is cming. Let’s g and visit ne.
Bb: Gd idea. There are sme new museums in ur city.
Alice: I think Jilin Machinka Museum (机械制造博物馆) is the largest and newest museum. Many peple say it is a must-visit (必打卡) place.
Bb: 20 is the ticket?
Alice: We dn’t need t pay any mney. Anyne can g there fr free.
Bb: Cl! Our hmetwn is getting better and better!
Ⅷ. （5分）
根据短文内容，从每小题所给的三个选项中，选出一个正确答案。
In the histry f Jilin City, there was a great man named Niu Zihu. He was brn in a big family in 1867. His father and grandfather were gd at making by running all kinds f business. His father died when he was nly 15 years ld.
a teenager, he tk his father’s place. He wrked and did many things fr his family by . Sn Niu Zihu became the richest man in the nrth f ur cuntry. he had much mney, he still lived a simple life, and he liked t help pr peple, s he was famus fr his kindness.
He als built an pera schl— Xi Liancheng. Because f this, Jilin became the secnd hmetwn f Beijing Opera. Tday, we are t visit Xi Liancheng Opera Park in Century Square (世纪广场). We can enjy shws there almst every night.
21．A．fishB．mneyC．mistakes
22．A．AsB．FrC．Of
23．A．themB．hisC．himself
24．A．ButB．AlthughC．Because
25．A．ableB．sadC．ready
Ⅸ. （10分）
从方框中选择正确选项，完成短文，其中有两个选项是多余的。
In sme dining halls f middle schls in China, there are many ntices n walls. One f them is: “Wh knws that each bwl f rice is the fruit f hard wrk? (谁知盘中餐，粒粒皆辛苦) ”. Anther says: “Clear 26 plate; refuse t waste (浪费) fd.”
These ntices are part f 27 activity in ur cuntry t cut dwn n fd waste. A 28 in a dining hall said that they used t waste 100 kilgrams f fd every day. But this number drpped by 75 percent, because their schl tells students t take just as 29 fd as they need.
Many restaurants in 30 are als jining in this activity. They teach peple t rder dishes by using the “N－1” rule. “N” means the number f peple 31 a table. S if there are six peple at yur table, yu shuld have just 32 dishes. If peple can’t 33 their meals, they shuld take the rest hme.
In fact, fd waste is a 34 prblem arund the wrld. The UN says there are 820 millin peple arund the wrld wh dn’t have enugh fd t eat. By cutting dwn n fd waste, we culd help t send fd t many pr villages. Please remember t save fd each time yu g 35 t eat!
三、阅读理解（共40分）
Ⅹ.根据所给材料，完成下列各题。（共40分）
（A）
阅读上面书信，选出正确答案。
36．James is in ________ nw.
A．HawaiiB．BstnC．SydneyD．Trnt
37．James likes ________ there.
A．lcal fd and his rmmateB．lcal fd and peple
C．his rmmate and lcal pepleD．his rmmate and his ld friend
38．What d we knw abut Max?
A．He ften teaches James t dance.B．He ften cleans his rm at night.
C．He desn’t g t bed until late at night.D．His rm is clean and tidy.
39．James’ hliday is abut ________ days lng.
A．nineB．sixC．threeD．eight
40．James may think his hliday is ________.
A．strange and bringB．amazing but expensive
C．wnderful and perfectD．enjyable but smetimes nisy
（B）
Getting enugh sleep is imprtant fr everyne. If yu dn’t sleep well at night, yu aren’t ging t study well during the day. Gd sleep is als imprtant fr yur health. If yu dn’t have a gd sleep, yu may get ill.
Sme peple g t sleep easily. Other peple can’t. A lt f things can help yu g t sleep easily and get a gd sleep. Ding exercise during the day can help yu g t sleep. Walking, running and bike riding are gd exercise. Yu can als play ball games, like basketball, sccer r tennis.
Befre yu g t bed, yu shuldn’t drink cffee r eat chclates. Drinking a cup f warm milk may help yu g t sleep. Many peple als find that listening t quiet music helps them g t sleep.
Please take a warm shwer befre yu g t bed. It can als help yu relax and fall asleep.
Fllw the advice and have a gd sleep every day, and yu can wake up happily in the mrning and maintain gd health.
根据短文内容，选择正确答案。
41．________ can’t help yu t g t sleep.
A．Taking a walkB．Listening t quiet music
C．Drinking sme warm milkD．Eating chclates
42．Which f the fllwing is mentined (提到) in the passage?
A．B．C．D．
43．Why is it gd t take a shwer befre yu g t bed accrding t the passage?
A．Because it can keep yu clean.B．Because it can help yu relax and fall asleep.
C．Because it can help yu wake up easilyD．Because it can make yu healthy.
44．What des the underlined wrd “maintain” mean in Chinese?
A．残留B．保持C．损失D．丢掉
45．The passage is mainly abut ________.
A．hw t sleep wellB．hw imprtant it is t sleep
C．hw t stay healthyD．hw imprtant it is t stay healthy
（C）
We ften see cars running n their wn withut a human driver in science fictin mvies. But in China, this is becming real, reprted China Daily. Peple call this kind f cars as self-driving cars (无人驾驶汽车) r rbt cars.
Self-driving cars was first famus in 2015. That year, Vlv, a carmaker frm Sweden, tested such cars in Beijing. Later, Chinese businesses like Baidu started making self-driving cars, t.
Right nw, China is n its way t becme the wrld’s largest market fr self-driving cars. By 2040, China will have 12 millin rbt taxis, fllwed by the US with arund 7 millin.
Hwever, sme peple are wrried abut the safety f the self-driving cars. In Wuhan, Baidu’s self-driving cars had sme small accidents (事故). Once, ne such self-driving car stpped in frnt f a big bx and caused a traffic accident. Anther time, tw self-driving cars slwed dwn t face each ther, and did nt knw what t d next.
The news may seem funny but in fact can be dangerus. If a rbt car has a big accident, it can’t decide what t d next n its wn and has t wait fr smene t cme and help. Als, it’s nt clear wh shuld be respnsible (负有责任的) when smething ges wrng — the cmpany that wns the rbt car, r the persn wh designed it, r bth.
Luckily, in December 2023, the gvernment made a set f new rules t imprve the safety f self-driving cars. Mre rules will cme in the future.
根据短文内容，判断下列各句正（T）、误（F）。
46．In China, we can see self-driving cars r rbt cars nw.
47．In 2015, Vlv tested self-driving cars in Hng Kng.
48．By 2040, China will have 7 millin rbt taxis.
49．Sme peple are wrried abut the safety f the self-driving cars.
50．The gvernment made a set f new rules t imprve the safety f self-driving cars.
（D）
I ften hear sme students say English is difficult, and it makes them unhappy. S they can’t learn it well. But English is very easy fr me. 51 I’m very glad t tell yu smething abut hw I study English.
52 When I was in Grade One, we had a new subject — English. It was fresh fr me. I was interested in it, s I wrked hard at it. Sn we had an English exam and I gt a very gd mark. Hw happy I was! 53 At the same time, what interests me mst is that ur English teacher teaches us English sngs. These sngs sund nice. S I ften think hw interesting English is!
Secnd, English is a freign language. I shuld learn it well by using sme ways. 54 Then remember t speak bravely, read alud and have a gd vcabulary. Then practice again and again, never be tired.
Third, I als have a learning habit. 55 Whenever I have a questin, I must make it clear by asking ur English teacher.
根据短文内容，将下面的选项还原到文中空白处，使短文内容完整、通顺（其中有一个选项是多余的）。
A．This habit is gd fr my study.
B．I’m gd at it.
C．After that, I learned English harder and harder.
D．The best way is t listen t the teacher carefully.
E．First, I think an interest in English is very imprtant.
F．Nw sme freigners can speak bth English and Chinese.
（E）
1 Did yu eat Lanzhu beef ndles befre? They cme frm Lanzhu, Gansu Prvince. Knwn as “China’s first ndles”, Lanzhu beef ndles are quite famus.
2 Lanzhu beef ndles first became famus in 1915 because f a ck called Ma Bazi. He was very gd at making ndles. At that time, many lcal peple liked t eat them. And since the 1980s, Lanzhu beef ndles have becme knwn arund the wrld.
3 There are tw steps t make ndles. One is making Lanzhu beef ndle sup, the ther is making ndles. The cks there chse sme bnes and meat t make sup. It always takes them 2—3 hurs t prepare it. When it’s ready, the beef sup shuld be clear and fresh.
4 D yu find there are different sizes f Lanzhu beef ndles in their restaurants? The thinnest type f the ndles are abut 1 millimeter (毫米), like ur hair. The widest nes are abut 20 millimeters r mre. It’s up t yu t decide which size t eat. All sizes f these handmade ndles will give yu different feelings.
5 Lking t the future, Lanzhu plans t build a special park called Lanzhu Beef Ndles Park. This will bring mre business that make r sell beef ndles, giving the ndles an even bigger name.
A. The future f Lanzhu beef ndles.
B. Famus Lanzhu beef ndles.
C. The histry f Lanzhu beef ndles.
D. A map f delicius ndles.
E. The steps f making ndles.
F. The different sizes f the ndles.
1—5题根据短文内容，从文后选项中选出每段的主旨大意，其中有一个选项是多余的。6题根据短文内容填空，每空仅限一词。
56．
57．
58．
59．
60．
61．根据短文内容填空，每空仅限一词。
（F）
There was nce a man wh built his wn huse. It tk him ver a year t design and build it. In the end, he had the mst beautiful huse. It was different frm ther huses in his neighbrhd.
But as time went by, his huse started t have sme prblems. One day, a neighbr said, “Friend, it lks like yur frnt yard is a bit dirty.”
The man replied, “Yes, I knw. But it’s kay. I’ll cut the grass tmrrw.”
A few days later, a pstman came by with a letter fr the man. The pstman said, “Friend, it lks like yur windws are nt clean at all.”
The man replied, “Yes, I knw. But it’s kay. I’ll wash them tmrrw.”
Weeks passed by. Finally, the man’s brther came ver t visit. He tk ne lk at the huse and culdn’t believe what he saw. The yard was dirty, the pictures n the wall fell dwn and the windws were full f dirt (灰尘). The huse lked like an ld ne fr years because the man put everything ff until tmrrw.
When we d smething like the man, “tmrrw” can turn int “next week” r even “next year”. We shuld knw that “tmrrw” may never cme. Just d it right nw!
根据短文内容，回答下列问题。
62．Hw lng did the man build his huse?

63．Was the huse the same as the huses in the neighbrhd?

64．Wh came by with a letter fr the man?

65．Why did the huse lk like an ld ne fr years?

66．What can we learn frm the stry?

四、写作（15分）
67．2024年行至尾声，凡是过往皆为序章。面对即将到来的寒假，唯有不虚度，才能在新的一年里，距离自己的梦想近一点，再近一点。为了能度过一个充实且有意义的寒假，请你以“My Winter Hliday Plan”为题，结合下列要点写一写你的计划。
写作要点：
（1）制定新年计划，合理规划学习时间和所学科目；
（2）安排一些健康的休闲娱乐活动，和家人共度时光（如听音乐，运动等）；
（3）帮助父母做家务（至少包含两项劳动内容）。
写作要求：
（1）内容积极向上，并包含所给要点；
（2）文中不得透露个人信息，否则不予评分；
（3）词数80左右（短文开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
My Winter Hliday Plan
As the winter hliday is cming, it means a new start t me.____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Hpe my dreams cme true in the new year. The best is yet t cme!
A. much B. at C. yur D. wrking E. an F. China
G. Chinese H. five I. wrker J. finish K. ut L. big
Feb.7,2024
Dear Mm and Dad,
Hw are yu ding? I am saying “Hi” t yu frm Hawaii! It is lvely here. Bth the sea and the beach are beautiful. I hpe yu can cme and see them yurselves ne day. The seafd here is amazing— it’s much cheaper than it is in ur city. I live with a lcal family. The peple here are friendly. They taught me t dance and ck. I made many new friends here.
I have enjyed my hliday a lt since I arrived last Wednesday, but I wish I had a different rmmate. My rmmate Max is frm Sydney. He leaves his things everywhere. Our rm isn’t clean and tidy all the time. He als watches TV late at night. It is t nisy fr me t sleep. The gd news is that tday is Mnday— it’s time t g back hme nw.
I lve yu and I’ll see yu sn.
James
Lanzhu will a special park.
Lanzhu beef ndles cme frm Prvince.
The type f the ndles are like ur hair.
the 1980s, Lanzhu beef ndles have becme knwn arund the wrld.
The cks chse sme and meat t make sup.
1．B
【详解】句意：科学家魏世杰是一个开朗的老人，他努力面对生活中的任何困难。
考查冠词。a不定冠词，表示泛指，用于以辅音音素开头的单词前；an不定冠词，表示泛指，用于以元音音素开头的单词前；the定冠词，表示特指。句中表示泛指，即一个开朗的老人，“utging”以元音音素开头，用不定冠词an，故选B。
2．C
【详解】句意：在我的中学生活中，我明白最重要的事情是学习新的东西和享受乐趣。
考查形容词最高级。imprtant重要的；the mre imprtant更重要的；the mst imprtant最重要的。根据句意可知，此处应该填入形容词最高级形式the mst imprtant，作定语，修饰名词thing，意为“最重要的”符合题意。故选C。
3．A
【详解】句意：我可能在寒假有一些空闲时间，所以我决定读几本书。
考查词义辨析。a few几个，修饰可数名词复数；few几乎没有，修饰可数名词复数；a little一点，修饰不可数名词。根据“I may have sme free time n the winter hliday”可知，是指寒假可能有一些空闲时间，所以决定读几本书，且空处修饰可数名词复数bks，用a few。故选A。
4．C
【详解】句意：——你觉得央视的《智能时代》节目怎么样？——它很棒，很有教育意义。
考查特殊疑问句。What什么；Which哪一个；Hw怎样。根据“It’s fantastic and educatinal.”可知，此处是对该节目进行评价，用句型Hw d yu like “你觉得……怎么样”。故选C。
5．B
【详解】句意：——为什么你几乎每天晚上都看新闻呢？——因为我想弄清楚世界各地正在发生的事。
考查介词辨析。t去，到；arund在周围，到处；fr为了。根据空后的“the wrld”可知，句子表达“弄清楚世界各地正在发生的事”，用介词短语“arund the wrld”，意为“世界各地”。故选B。
6．A
【详解】句意：——我长大后要去大学学习中医。 ——太棒了！只要你尽了最大的努力，你就能成为任何你想成为的人。
考查连词词义辨析。As lng as只要；Althugh虽然，尽管；S所以。根据“then yu can be anything yu want”可知，此处是说只要尽力，就能成为你想成为的人。故选A。
7．C
【详解】句意：请相信我。从现在开始我会关心父母和朋友。
考查动词辨析。fall落下；agree同意；believe相信。根据“I will care abut parents and friends frm nw n.”可知，关心父母和朋友是我做出的承诺，故此处指请相信我。故选C。
8．C
【详解】句意：——妈妈，我正在给我的祖父母做锅包肉。我需要多少糖？——两勺糖。
考查特殊疑问句和不可数名词。hw much多少，提问不可数名词；hw many多少，提问可数名词；spn一勺的量，可数；sugar糖，不可数。根据“sugar”可知，第一空提问需要多少糖，sugar是不可数名词，用hw much；第二空意为“两勺糖”，spn可数，用复数，sugar不可数。故选C。
9．A
【详解】句意：我几乎不玩网络游戏。我认为这对我没好处。
考查副词辨析。hardly ever几乎从不；always总是；usually通常。根据“I dn’t think it’s gd fr me.”推测，我几乎不玩网络游戏，所以应用频率副词hardly ever。故选A。
10．B
【详解】句意：——你能来和我下棋吗？——当然。什么时间？
考查情景交际。N, I can’t不，我不能；Sure当然；Yes, I am是的，我是。根据答语“What time?”可知，此处作肯定回答，根据问句中情态动词“Can”可知，答语为Yes, I can或sure。故选B。
11．E 12．B 13．F 14．A 15．D
【导语】本对话是Alice和Bb在学校相遇后的交流。
11．根据答语“Because she is a gd listener. That’s imprtant t me.”可知，Alice解释了为什么和Mary成为朋友，即Mary是一个好的倾听者，这对自己很重要。所以E项“你为什么和Mary交朋友？”符合语境，故选E。
12．根据答语“Of curse. We bth like reading and ding sprts.”可知，Alice和Mary有共同之处，都喜欢阅读和做运动。所以B项“你们有什么共同之处吗？”符合语境，故选B。
13．根据答语“Well, yes. She is mre utging, but I am a little quieter.”可知，Alice和Mary在性格上有所不同，Mary更外向，而自己更安静一些。所以问题应该是询问Alice和Mary在性格上是否有所不同，F项“她和你有什么不同吗？”符合语境，故选F。
14．根据上文“By the way, I heard we are ging t have a welcme party fr ur new freign teacher this weekend.”可知，Bb提到周末要为新来的外籍教师举行欢迎会，所以Alice的回答应该是与聚会相关的内容。结合下文“My mther is gd at cking.”可知，Alice提到自己的母亲擅长烹饪，所以A项“我会带一些传统食物去聚会”符合语境，故选A。
15．根据下文“There are many gd places fr skating in the cuntryside.”可知，Bb提到了乡下有很多滑冰的好地方，所以这里应该是表示Bb提出去乡下滑冰的建议，D项“我要请老师去滑冰。”符合语境，故选D。
16．Yes, I d. 17．What（kind f）TV shws d yu like best? 18．Hw ften d yu watch them? 19．I like t g t museums. 20．Hw much
【导语】本文是 Alice 和 Bb 在家中的一段对话，主要围绕看电视和去博物馆展开。
16．根据答语 “My parents and I all like watching TV.” 可知，此处是对 “D yu like watching TV?” 的肯定回答，故填 Yes, I d.
17．根据答语 “I like talent shws best.” 可知，此处是询问最喜欢什么类型的电视节目，故填 What（kind f）TV shws d yu like best?
18．根据答语 “I watch them nce a week.” 可知，此处是询问观看的频率，故填 Hw ften d yu watch them?
19．根据下文 “Let’s g and visit ne.” 以及 “There are sme new museums in ur city.” 可知，此处是说自己喜欢去博物馆，故填 I like t g t museums.
20．根据答语 “We dn’t need t pay any mney.” 可知，此处是询问门票的价格，故填 Hw much。
21．B 22．A 23．C 24．B 25．A
【导语】本文介绍了吉林市历史上一位名叫牛子厚的伟人，他出生于 1867 年的一个大家庭，父亲和祖父擅长经商赚钱，他 15 岁时父亲去世，少年时便接替父亲，靠自己努力工作，成为北方首富，虽富有却生活简朴且乐善好施，还创办了戏曲学校，使吉林成为京剧的第二故乡，如今人们可以去世纪广场的喜连成戏曲公园欣赏演出。
21．句意：他的父亲和祖父通过经营各种生意擅长赚钱。
fish 鱼；mney 钱；mistakes 错误。根据 “by running all kinds f business” 可知，做生意是为了赚钱，make mney赚钱，故选 B。
22．句意：作为一个青少年，他接替了父亲的位置。
As 作为；Fr 为了；Of……的。这里表示 “作为一个青少年”， As，介词，作为，故选 A。
23．句意：他靠自己为家庭工作并做了很多事。
them 他们；his 他的；himself 他自己。根据“He wrked and did many things fr his family by...”，by neself 表示 “靠自己”，主语he，故用himself，故选 C。
24．句意：虽然他有很多钱，但他仍然过着简朴的生活，而且他喜欢帮助穷人，所以他因善良而出名。
But 但是；Althugh 虽然；Because 因为。前后句是转折关系，“虽然有钱但生活简朴”，用 Althugh 引导让步状语从句，故选 B。
25．句意：今天，我们能够参观世纪广场的喜连成戏曲公园。
able 能够的；sad 悲伤的；ready 准备好的。be able t d sth. 表示 “能够做某事”，这里指能够去参观，故选 A。
26．C 27．E 28．I 29．A 30．F 31．B 32．H 33．J 34．L 35．K
【导语】本文是说明文。作者由学校食堂的节约粮食标语引入到中国正在开展减少食物浪费的活动，最后提倡人们每次外出吃饭时都要节约食物以帮助没有足够食物要吃的人。
26．句意：另一个标语写道：“吃光你的盘子；拒绝食物浪费。”根据语境，标语在学校食堂，是写给学生看的，再结合横线前后单词，那一定是清空你的盘子。故选C。
27．句意：这些标语是我们国家减少食物浪费这一活动的一部分。根据横线后面的activity是可数名词单数形式可知，此处需要冠词。故选E。
28．句意：一个餐厅的工作人员说过去他们每天常常会浪费100公斤的食物。横线前面是冠词a，横线后面是地点状语in a dining hall，其后为谓语动词said，说明此处需要名词作主语，再根据语境，肯定指的是在餐厅工作的人。故选I。
29．句意：因为他们学校告诉学生吃多少打多少。因为as…as (和……一样) 中间要用形容词或副词原级，又根据句意学生需要多少饭就打多少饭，因此选用much。故选A。
30．句意：中国的许多餐厅也在加入这项活动。根据横线前的in可知，此处需要地点名词限定餐厅在哪里。故选F。
31．句意：“N”意思是一桌人的数量。因为横线后为地点名词table，且其前有冠词a修饰，所以此处需要在a table前加方位介词，表达在桌子旁。故选B。
32．句意：你仅仅需要点5道菜。根据前文当中的“N－1”规则，如果一个桌子有6个人，那点菜的数量就是6－1＝5。故选H。
33．句意：如果人们吃不完他们的饭，他们需要把剩余的带回家。横线前面是情态动词，其后需动词原形，因此排除wrking，选用finish。故选J。
34．句意：事实上，食物浪费是一个全球性的大问题。此题横线前有冠词a，横线后prblem是名词，因此此处需要形容词表达一个什么样的问题。结合句意，食物浪费是个大问题，因此选用big。故选L。
35．句意：切记每次外出吃饭的时候都要节约食物。在横线前后的简单句“yu g t eat”中不缺少任何核心成分，现在只需要一个副词说明去哪里吃，给出的单词中只有ut符合语境。故选K。
36．A 37．B 38．C 39．B 40．D
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要讲述了詹姆斯在夏威夷岛度假的情况。
36．细节理解题。根据“Hw are yu ding? I am saying “Hi” t yu frm Hawaii!”可知，现在詹姆斯在夏威夷。故选A。
37．细节理解题。根据“The seafd here is amazing— it’s much cheaper than it is in ur city. I live with a lcal family. The peple here are friendly. They taught me t dance and ck. I made many new friends here.”可知，詹姆斯喜欢当地的食物和人们。故选B。
38．细节理解题。根据“He als watches TV late at night. It is t nisy fr me t sleep.”可知，詹姆斯直到深夜才睡觉。故选C。
39．推理判断题。根据“I have enjyed my hliday a lt since I arrived last Wednesday, but I wish I had a different rmmate.”以及“The gd news is that tday is Mnday— it’s time t g back hme nw.”可知，詹姆斯上周三到达，星期一回家。由此可推测出，詹姆斯詹姆斯的假期大约有六天。故选B。
40．观点态度题。根据“I have enjyed my hliday a lt since I arrived last Wednesday, but I wish I had a different rmmate.”以及“It is t nisy fr me t sleep.”可推测出，詹姆斯认为他的假期很愉快，但有时也很吵。故选D。
41．D 42．C 43．B 44．B 45．A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。 主要介绍足够的睡眠对每个人都很重要，作者列举了一些建议，希望你能有好的睡眠。
41．细节理解题。根据第三段“Befre yu g t bed, yu shuldn’t drink cffee r eat chclates.”可知，睡觉前不建议吃巧克力。故选D。
42．细节理解题。根据第二段“Ding exercise during the day can help yu g t sleep. Walking, running and bike riding are gd exercise. Yu can als play ball games, like basketball, sccer r tennis.”可知，我们可以通过运动如打球来促进睡眠。故选C。
43．细节理解题。根据第四段“Please take a warm shwer befre yu g t bed. It can als help yu relax and fall asleep.”可知，洗热水澡可以帮助放松和入睡，故选B。
44．词义猜测题。根据“Fllw the advice and have a gd sleep every day, and yu can wake up happily in the mrning and maintain gd health.”可知，遵循建议并每天睡个好觉，早上就能快乐醒来，保持身体健康。故划线单词“maintain”意为“保持”。故选B。
45．主旨大意题。通读全文可知，本文主要介绍足够的睡眠对每个人都很重要。作者列举了一些建议，希望你能有好的睡眠。故选A。
46．T 47．F 48．F 49．T 50．T
【导语】本文主要介绍了中国自动驾驶汽车的发展情况。
46．细节理解题。根据“But in China, this is becming real, reprted China Daily. Peple call this kind f cars as self-driving cars (无人驾驶汽车) r rbt cars.”可知，现如今在中国，人们能看到无人驾驶汽车。故答案为T。
47．细节理解题。根据“Self-driving cars was first famus in 2015. That year, Vlv, a carmaker frm Sweden, tested such cars in Beijing. ”可知，2015年沃尔沃在北京测试无人驾驶汽车，而不是在香港。故答案为F。
48．细节理解题。根据“By 2040, China will have 12 millin rbt taxis, fllwed by the US with arund 7 millin.”可知，到2040年，中国将拥有1200万辆无人驾驶出租车，而不是700万辆。故答案为F。
49．细节理解题。根据“Hwever, sme peple are wrried abut the safety f the self-driving cars.”可知，有些人担心无人驾驶汽车的安全问题。故答案为T。
50．细节理解题。根据“Luckily, in December 2023, the gvernment made a set f new rules t imprve the safety f self-driving cars.”可知，政府已制定了一套新规定以提高自动驾驶汽车的安全性。故答案为T。
51．B 52．E 53．C 54．D 55．A
【导语】本文主要分享了作者学习英语的经验。
51．根据“But English is very easy fr me.”可知，上文提到英语对我来说很简单，故此处是描述作者擅长英语。选项B“我很擅长它。”符合语境。故选B。
52．根据“I was interested in it, s I wrked hard at it.”可知，下文描述了作者因为对英语有兴趣而努力学习，故此处是描述兴趣对于英语学习很重要。选项E“首先，我认为对英语的兴趣非常重要。”符合语境。故选E。
53．根据“Sn we had an English exam and I gt a very gd mark. Hw happy I was!”可知，上文提到作者因为取得好成绩而开心，故此处是描述取得好成绩之后作者的学习情况。选项C“之后，我越来越努力学习英语。”符合语境。故选C。
54．根据“I shuld learn it well by using sme ways”可知，此处是描述哪些是学好英语的方式。选项D“最好的方法是认真听老师讲课。”符合语境。故选D。
55．根据“Third, I als have a learning habit.”可知，此处是描述这个学习习惯对作者产生的影响。选项A“这个习惯对我的学习很有帮助。”符合语境。故选A。
56．B 57．C 58．E 59．F 60．A 61． build Gansu thinnest Since bnes
【导语】本文主要介绍了兰州牛肉面的起源与发展过程、制作工艺等内容。
56．根据“Knwn as ‘China’s first ndles’, Lanzhu beef ndles are quite famus.”可知，本段主要介绍著名的兰州牛肉面，选项B“著名的兰州牛肉面。”符合。故选B。
57．根据“Lanzhu beef ndles first became famus in 1915 because f a ck called Ma Bazi.”可知，本段是介绍兰州牛肉面的历史，选项C“兰州牛肉面的历史。”符合。故选C。
58．根据“There are tw steps t make ndles.”可知，本段介绍兰州牛肉面的制作步骤，选项E“制作面条的步骤。”符合。故选E。
59．根据“D yu find there are different sizes f Lanzhu beef ndles in their restaurants?”可知，本段是介绍兰州牛肉面的不同大小，选项F“面条的不同大小。”符合。故选F。
60．根据“Lking t the future, Lanzhu plans t build a special park called Lanzhu Beef Ndles Park.”可知，本段是介绍兰州牛肉面的未来，选项A“兰州牛肉面的未来。”符合。故选A。
61．①根据“Lanzhu plans t build a special park called Lanzhu Beef Ndles Park.”可知，兰州计划建设一个特殊的公园。故填build。
②根据“Did yu eat Lanzhu beef ndles befre? They cme frm Lanzhu, Gansu Prvince.”可知，兰州牛肉面来自甘肃省。故填Gansu。
③根据“The thinnest type f the ndles are abut 1 millimeter (毫米), like ur hair.”可知，最细的面条就像我们的头发。故填thinnest。
④根据“And since the 1980s, Lanzhu beef ndles have becme knwn arund the wrld.”可知，自20世纪80年代以来，兰州牛肉面享誉世界。故填Since。
⑤根据“The cks there chse sme bnes and meat t make sup.”可知，厨师会选择一些骨头和肉来做汤。故填bnes。
62．A year. 63．N, it wasn’t. 64．A pstman. 65．Because the man put everything ff until tmrrw. 66．We shuld knw that “tmrrw” may never cme. Take actin right nw!
【导语】本文通过讲述一个人不打扫新房而房子很快变旧的故事，告诉我们一个道理，即明天不会再来，我们应该立刻行动。
62．根据第一段“It tk him ver a year t design and build it.”可知，这个人花了一年来建他的房子，故填A year.
63．根据第一段“It was different frm ther huses in his neighbrhd.”可知，这个房子和小区里其他的房子不一样，应作否定回答，故填N, it wasn’t.
64．根据第四段“A few days later, a pstman came by with a letter fr the man”可知，一个邮递员给这个人带来一封信，故填A pstman.
65．根据倒数第二段“The huse lked like an ld ne fr years because the man put everything ff until tmrrw.”可知，这个人把所有的事情都推迟到明天，所以这所房子多年来看起来都像座旧房子。故填Because the man put everything ff until tmrrw.
66．根据最后一段“We shuld knw that ‘tmrrw’ may never cme.”以及全文可知，故事告诉我们明天不会再来，应该立刻行动，故填We shuld knw that “tmrrw” may never cme. Take actin right nw!
67．例文
My Winter Hliday Plan
As the winter hliday is cming, it means a new start t me. I have a plan t make it meaningful and clrful.
First f all, the gegraphy and bilgy exams in the cming year are imprtant fr me. T prepare fr them, I decide t spend ver tw hurs reading bks abut these tw subjects every day. After study, I plan t g skating, because it’s healthy fr the mind and the bdy. I als expect t help with husewrk, such as cleaning my rm, ding the dishes, cking and s n. I’d like t learn t make sup fr my family.
This plan will imprve myself and help me get clser t my dreams. Hpe my dreams cme true in the new year. The best is yet t cme!
【详解】[总体分析]
①题材：本文是一篇说明文；
②时态：本文以“一般现在时”为主；
③提示：题目要求根据提示为即将到来的寒假作一个计划，包括合理规划学习时间和所学科目、娱乐活动、与家人共度时光，以及帮助做家务。写作时注意适当增加细节，不要遗漏要点。
[写作步聚]
第一步，开篇点题；
第二步，根据所给要点，具体介绍寒假的计划；
第三步，最后表达祝愿。
[亮点词汇]
①first f all 首先
② 花费……做……
③plan t d计划去做
[高分句型]
①T prepare fr them, I decide t spend ver tw hurs reading bks abut these tw subjects every day.（动词不定式作目的状语）
②After study, I plan t g skating, because it’s healthy fr the mind and the bdy.（because引导的原因状语从句）