还剩9页未读，
继续阅读
辽宁铁岭市清河第二中学2020届高三12月月考英语试题
展开
辽宁铁岭市清河第二中学2019-2020学年度高三12月英语测试题（word版有答案）
试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。试卷包括Ⅰ卷和Ⅱ卷两部分。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman going to do on Saturday?
A. Go for a race. B. Take a break. C. Run ten kilometers.
2. What does the man think of the woman’s plan?
A. It is absurd. B. It is good. C. It is unwise.
3.What does the woman have to do?
A. Fill out the form. B. Drop a course. C. Get a US passport.
4. Where did the woman spend her childhood?
A. In Texas. B. In Japan. C. In the USA.
5. Why does the man ask the woman those questions?
A. To locate her mother.
B. To determine her nationality.
C. To find out her native language.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.How does the man travel around the world?
A. By car. B. By motorbike. C. By bike.
7. What does the man think of cycling?
A. Unadventurous. B. Comfortable. C. Environmentally friendly.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.What did the woman lose?
A. Her car. B. Her purse. C. Her keys.
9.What caused the crash?
A. The truck going too fast.
B. The boy crossing the street.
C. The driver driving carelessly.
听第9段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.What is the rent if the man wants a single room with a hot bath?
A. $15. B. $35. C. $50.
11.Which word can best describe the man?
A. Poor. B. Greedy. C. Forgetful.
12.Why was the woman late according to herself?
A. She forgot the time change.
B. Her roommate told her the wrong time.
C.Her roommate forgot to tell her the time change.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who probably is the man?
A.An airport clerk. B. A travel agent. C. A hotel clerk.
14. How will the woman get to Maui?
A. By air. B. By bus. C. By ship.
15. Who will be interested in the golf package?
A. The kids. B. The husband. C. The woman.
16. When will the woman be back?
A. On Sunday. B. On Saturday. C. On Tuesday.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What percent of stolen cars can be recovered each year?
A. About 40%. B. About 50%. C. About 60%.
18. Where is car theft most likely to occur?
A. In shopping centers. B. In back streets. C. By the roadside.
19. How do most car thieves carry out the crime?
A. They break into the cars.
B. They enter the unlocked cars.
C. They steal the keys and enter the cars.
20. What does the speaker say about the professionals?
A. Many of them are very young.
B. They need a few minutes to break into a car.
C. They use the stolen cars to do other illegal things.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
If you’ll be taking vacation time in the coming year and plan on flying, here are some shopping tips for you. Those who fly first class and don’t care what airline tickets cost are excused from this lesson.
● When to buy
If you are shopping for domestic (国内的) flights, check prices on Tuesday afternoons. This is an old tip but still useful because most US carriers continue to release (发行) sales on Tuesday morning, and competitors quickly drop their fares to match the better deals.
● When to fly
Weekdays continue to be generally cheaper times to fly than weekends for most flights. In the US, the cheapest days are typically Tuesday, Wednesday and Saturday. A good itinerary (行程表) for the expensive US spring break travel period is Tuesday to Saturday; it will save you money over weekend-to-weekend travel.
● Where to fly
We continue to see good deals to Boston and Denver and more and more nice prices to Chicago, Seattle and Washington, D.C. As for Europe, there have been surprising deals throughout the fall and those will continue into the winter.
● Direct vs. connecting flights
Compare the price of direct with connecting flights. Sometimes adding a stop to your route will save you money. An example: an Francisco to Raleigh/Durham: $553 direct, $362 one-stop.
You’d better think twice about the direct flight for San Francisco to Raleigh.
● Compare, compare, compare
Stifle the impulse to go to your favorite airline site to purchase tickets without doing any comparison. Example: Let’s say you want to fly from New York to London and figure your favorite US legacy carrier will get you there for the best price. Airline price: $554 round-trip.
However, the comparison site also showed a cheaper flight from the same legacy carrier ($521). See what you’re missing when you fail to compare?
21. When can you possibly find the best price for flights within the US?
A. On Monday morning. B. On Tuesday morning.
C. On Tuesday afternoon. D. On Sunday morning.
22. What does the underlined phrase “stifle the impulse” in the last but one paragraph mean?
A. Feel free to do something. B. Never hurry to do something.
C. Get well prepared for something. D. Make quick decision on something.
23. Who is the text intended for?
A. Those who are traveling during the spring break.
B. Those who usually choose first class for their flights.
C. Those who want to find suggestions on where to fly.
D. Those who are looking for the best airline ticket prices.
B
The snow was falling. The schools were over earlier than usual, but much to my surprise my appointment wasn’t canceled. And so I went, feeling especially heroic. Snow or no snow, I’d be on time for my scheduled donation at the local blood center.
When I got there, I discovered four more “hero-types” were already there, with machines quietly collecting their lifesaving gifts. Seeing them made me believe that while I was proud to be there, 1 wasn’t a hero. And any silly heroic thoughts quickly disappeared as I lay back in my own donor chair and began my donation. I was ready to make a difference in the life of someone I’ d never meet.
My wife Karen is a donor, too. She’s been on the bone marrow (骨髓) list for fifteen years, ever since she signed up to provide bone marrow to a child. That little girl died before Karen’s bone marrow could help her, but Karen was called again recently as it turned out she might be a match for someone else. The caller asked Karen if she’d still be willing to become a bone marrow donor. “Yes,” she said and then immediately began answering questions in preparation for the pages of paperwork to follow. It was a race against time. I wish I could say this race was won, but again it wasn’t.
Last week Karen gave blood and next week I’ll make my usual donation. I’ll clear an afternoon from my schedule and call for an appointment. Whatever blood product they need whole, I’ll gladly give. I don’t know whose life my donation may affect, but it really doesn’t matter. And sadly, while so few among us actually take the time to donate, Karen and 1 always will.
24. What can be inferred about the author from the first paragraph?
A. He is quite fond of taking risks.
B. He is a man who always keeps his word.
C. The snow almost ruined his appointment.
D. He never thinks donating blood is a heroic deed.
25. What influence did other donors have on the author?
A. They changed his attitude to himself.
B. They helped him find joy in donating.
C. They made him feel it a duty to donate.
D. They strengthened his belief not to be a donor.
26. What does the passage say about Karen and her bone marrow donation?
A. She has been found a match to nobody.
B. She decided to join in it over 20 years ago.
C. She fell in trouble when she came to paperwork.
D. She has already met with two failures in donation.
27. Which of the following shows the author’s opinion?
A. More people should have become donors.
B. The donation itself should have been made easier.
C. Receivers should have been introduced to donors.
D. More blood products should have been developed.
C
For several months, Cara has been working up the courage to approach her mom about what she saw on Instagram. Not long ago, the 11-year-old girl discovered that her mom had been posting her photos for much of her life. “I’ve wanted to bring it up. It’s strange to see myself up there, and sometimes there are pictures I don’t like of myself,” she said.
Like most other modern kids, Cara grew up under the influence of social media. Facebook, Twiter and YouTube were all founded before she was born. Instagram has been around since she was a toddler (学步儿童). While many kids may not yet have accounts themselves, their parents, schools, sports teams have been organizing an online presence for them since birth. It is a shock to know that details about their lives have been shared online without their permission or knowledge. And this has become a common experience for many teenagers.
Recently a parenting blogger (博主)said that despite her 14-year-old daughter’s horror at discovering that her mother had shared years of highly personal stories and information about her online, she simply could not stop doing it.
But it’s not just crazy mommy bloggers who share their children’s information on social media. Plenty of average parents do the same. There’s even a special word for it: sharenting (晒娃). Almost a quarter of children begin their digital lives when parents upload their prenatal sonogram scans (产前超声波扫描) to the Internet, according to a study conducted by the Internet-security firm AVG. The study also found that 92 percent of kids under the age of 2 already have their own unique digital identity.
28. How does Cara feel about her mom’s behavior?
A. It’s supportive. B. It’s appropriate.
C. It’s annoying. D. It’s favorable.
29. Who is most likely to share children’s information?
A. A quarter of students. B. Some crazy doctors.
C. Kids under the age of 2. D. Many ordinary parents.
30. What can we learn from Paragraph 4?
A. Fathers don’t like to share their kids’ information on social media.
B. 25% of children begin their digital lives before they are born.
C. The word “sharenting” can be found 10 years ago.
D. AVG is the name of an internet company.
31. What can be a suitable title for the article?
A. Growing up on the Internet B. A New Term Born
C. Parents Addicted to Blogging D. The Children’s Horror
D
We have heard some interesting ways that 5G wireless technology might change our lives in the future.
5G short for the 5th generation mobile communication technology, promises Internet speeds between 50 to 100 times faster than current 4G systems. While 5G is set to be used in some limited areas of America this year, much of the world is not expected to receive widely available service until 2023.
One project in Britain, however, is already testing this superfast technology on an unlikely group of Internet users—cows. The project was developed by American technology company Cisco Systems. It also receives money from the British government. Cisco says the program seeks to explore the future of 5G connectivity in rural areas around the world.
Testing areas were set up at farms in three rural areas of England. The cows are equipped with 5G-connected devices (装置) that link up to a robotic milking system, which uses sensors (传感器) and machine learning to fully automate the process. System designers say technology takes over after a cow feels ready to be milked and walks toward an automatic gate. The device is designed to recognize each individual cow. It then positions equipment to the right body position for milking. During the process, machines release food for the cow as a reward.
Other 5G technology tools include automated brushes that turn on when the cow rubs up against them. Sensors also control the amount of light to the cows’ living areas depending on the weather. And an automatic feeding system makes sure the animals always get enough to eat.
Duncan Forbes, head of the project, told Reuters that the project shows the farm’s cow operations can be greatly improved with 5G technology and that the experiment provides strong evidence that 5G technology can be widely used in the future, not just on farms in Britain, but in rural communities across the world.
32. What is the purpose of Cisco Systems’ program?
A. To win financial support from British government.
B. To expand the future use of 5G in rural communities.
C. To promote its technological development in Britain.
D. To test the effects of 5G technology on animals.
33. What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The project. B. The company. C. The technology. D. The group.
34. What can we learn about 5G according to the text?
A. It is no worse than 4G in terms of speed.
B. It is already widely available in the world.
C. It enables cows to control their own milking.
D. It makes cows eat less and milk more than before.
35. In which section of a newspaper may this text appear?
A. Entertainment. B. Lifestyle. C. Education. D. Technology.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为
多余选项。
Most people are familiar with big international sports events like the Olympics and the World Cup. But have you ever heard of the Commonwealth Games?
The Commonwealth of Nations is an international organization made up of 53 member states, including Canada, India and Australia. 36 Today, they still hold the Commonwealth Games in the hope of keeping their friendship alive.
The Commonwealth Games take place every four years. Like other international sports events, popular sports such as volleyball and hockey are played there. 37 Lawn bowls, a popular game in Commonwealth countries, is similar to curling（冰壶）. However, it’s played on a grass field instead of on ice. Netball is another game that is seldom seen outside of Commonwealth nations. 38 It is mainly a women’s sport.
Australia held the 2018 Commonwealth Games in Queensland between April 4 and 15, 2018. 39 It built new stadiums, a light railway and new WiFi networks. 40 It has hosted the games five times. It is also one of just six countries that have attended each of the games since they were first held in 1930.
A. Queensland did a lot to prepare for the games.
B. Most of these member states used to be British territories（领地）.
C. Australia has always been enthusiastic about the Commonwealth Games.
D. It’s similar to basketball, but each team has seven players instead of five.
E. But there are also other sports that are a bit less known in other countries.
F. Over 5,000 athletes compete at the Commonwealth Games in more than 250 events.
G. Nineteen cities in nine countries (counting England, Wale, and Scotland separately)have hosted the event.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A 35-year-old Australian mother makes around $58,000 a year by hugging total strangers. Jessica O’Neill started her 41 job six months ago. “As human beings, one thing we often 42 in our daily lives is physical touch. Without it, we can fall into depression and other mental health problems. To satisfy this 43 , I’ve become a professional worker in hugging treatment,” said Jessica.
Jessica claims that her hugs can 44 those who are suffering from loneliness, depression, or low self-confidence. Originally, Jessica was a masseuse (女按摩师), a quite 45 profession. She notices that when she 46 her customers during treatments, they dropped their guards and 47 her more. “I could see their 48 melt away. Then I could get to their heart and do what I can to 49 there,” Jessica said. “Everyone has a totally different story. But the most common 50 are loneliness, depression and anxiety. They all just have that desire to 51 with someone. I believe my hug helps me and my 52 connect on a spiritual level.”
Jessica says the majority of her customers are 53 , but she has a surprising number of female customers 54 .Despite many people thinking she must be 55 for doing such work, Jessica is confident that she’s made the right 56 .“It’s so much more rewarding than just working as a masseuse. I feel like it’s what I was put on this Earth 57 ,” said Jessica. “In today’s digital age, many people are lonelier than ever before. For people whose lives 58 physical interaction, hugging therapy can have an apparent effect on their mental health.”
“Interestingly, although the hugging 59 has been around for a short while, we’ve actually covered several 60 businesses in the last few years.”
41. A. simple B. permanent C. abnormal D. unusual
42. A. observe B. ignore C. misunderstand D. miss
43. A. need B. direction C. curiosity D. requirement
44. A. rescue B. help C. persuade D. train
45. A. ordinary B. well-paid C. admirable D. challenging
46. A. accompanied B. greeted C. consulted D. hugged
47. A. made fun of B. took advantage of C. opened up to D. spoke well of
48. A. purpose B. tension C. delight D. anger
49. A. impress B. interest C. defeat D. cure
50. A. signs B. faults C. senses D. failures
51. A. connect B. agree C. debate D. compete
52. A. colleagues B. ladies C. customers D. passengers
53. A. elderly B. foreign C. male D. overweight
54. A. in return B. as well C. in total D. after all
55. A. responsible B. intelligent C. wealthy D. crazy
56. A. suggestion B. agreement C. choice D. promise
57. A. with B. for C. in D. around
58. A. doubt B. accept C. lack D. hate
59. A. treatment B. protection C. experiment D. nursing
60. A. temporary B. difficult C. secret D. successful
第Ⅱ卷
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第二节 （共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Have you ever wanted to be in a TV show or movie? There is a new app 61 lets you put yourself in your favorite shows. 62 some people are worried about this app.
The app is called ZAO. A tech company 63 (call) Momo released it last month. It lets users put their faces over the faces in photos and videos. Users can put themselves into popular TV shows and movies. For example, you can put your face into a scene from the movie Titanic. Your face 64 (replace) Jack’s or Rose’s. It looks very 65 (nature). Released on Aug 30, it was the most-downloaded free app in China as of Sept 10, according to App Annie, 66 website that tracks app data.
However, some people worry that the app could be abused. People can use the app to make themselves look like politicians or celebrities (名人). They could also violate (侵犯) celebrities’ right of publicity, 67 (use) their faces to make videos or 68 other illegal uses.
Other people worry that they might lose their facial recognition data. 69 is possible that hackers (黑客) could steal this data from app 70 (company) and use it to break into users’ phones and steal their money.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（╲）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
About how to keep healthy, I’d like to offer my advices. As we know, we teenagers are going through a rapid growth which needs to be support by a healthy and balanced diet. Thus, we need a variety of food but cut out the food rich in sugar or fat. However, we should take physical exercise regular. For example, we can play basketball or take walk after school. Have enough sleep is of great importance. Therefore, you should have at least eight hours of sleep every day and not stayed up too late. Only in this way that can we keep fit.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假如你是李华，为了庆祝建国70周年，你校成功举办了校园艺术节活动。请你给你的英国朋友Tony写封邮件，向他介绍艺术节的相关情况，内容包括：
1．活动形式；
2．活动意义。
注意：
1．词数100左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3．开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：建国70周年the 70th anniversary of the founding of China
Dear Tony,
______________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
参考答案
听力
1—5 BBACB 6—10 BCCBC 11—15CCBAB 16—20 ACABC
阅读理解
21—23 CBD 24—27 BADA 28—31 CDBA 32—35 BACD 36—40 BEDAC
完形填空
41—45 DBABA 46—50 DCBDA 51—55 ACCBD 56—60 CBCAD
语法填空
61. that/which 62. But 63. called 64. will replace/replaces 65. natural 66. a
67. using 68. for 69. It 70. companies
短文改错
About how to keep healthy, I’d like to offer my advices. As we know, we teenagers are going
advice
through a rapid growth which needs to be support by a healthy and balanced diet. Thus, we need a
supported
variety of food but cut out the food rich in sugar or fat. However, we should take physical
down Besides/Moreover
exercise regular. For example, we can play basketball or take∧ walk after school. Have enough
regularly a Having
sleep is of great importance. Therefore, you should have at least eight hours of sleep every day
we
and not stayed up too late. Only in this way that can we keep fit.
stay
书面表达
Dear Tony,
I’m writing to tell you something about the Art Festival which was successfully held in our school.
The Art Festival was held with the aim of celebrating the 70th anniversary of the founding of China. In the festival, a variety of activities were held among students, such as a speech competition and performances with singing and dancing. Besides, there was a grand exhibition on traditional Chinese culture, on which some art works, related pictures and videos were exhibited.
This art festival enables us to know more about traditional Chinese culture and the great achievements our motherland has accomplished during the past seven decades. In the meanwhile, it also inspires us to work hard and make great contributions to our motherland.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
试卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。试卷包括Ⅰ卷和Ⅱ卷两部分。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What is the woman going to do on Saturday?
A. Go for a race. B. Take a break. C. Run ten kilometers.
2. What does the man think of the woman’s plan?
A. It is absurd. B. It is good. C. It is unwise.
3.What does the woman have to do?
A. Fill out the form. B. Drop a course. C. Get a US passport.
4. Where did the woman spend her childhood?
A. In Texas. B. In Japan. C. In the USA.
5. Why does the man ask the woman those questions?
A. To locate her mother.
B. To determine her nationality.
C. To find out her native language.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6.How does the man travel around the world?
A. By car. B. By motorbike. C. By bike.
7. What does the man think of cycling?
A. Unadventurous. B. Comfortable. C. Environmentally friendly.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8.What did the woman lose?
A. Her car. B. Her purse. C. Her keys.
9.What caused the crash?
A. The truck going too fast.
B. The boy crossing the street.
C. The driver driving carelessly.
听第9段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.What is the rent if the man wants a single room with a hot bath?
A. $15. B. $35. C. $50.
11.Which word can best describe the man?
A. Poor. B. Greedy. C. Forgetful.
12.Why was the woman late according to herself?
A. She forgot the time change.
B. Her roommate told her the wrong time.
C.Her roommate forgot to tell her the time change.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. Who probably is the man?
A.An airport clerk. B. A travel agent. C. A hotel clerk.
14. How will the woman get to Maui?
A. By air. B. By bus. C. By ship.
15. Who will be interested in the golf package?
A. The kids. B. The husband. C. The woman.
16. When will the woman be back?
A. On Sunday. B. On Saturday. C. On Tuesday.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What percent of stolen cars can be recovered each year?
A. About 40%. B. About 50%. C. About 60%.
18. Where is car theft most likely to occur?
A. In shopping centers. B. In back streets. C. By the roadside.
19. How do most car thieves carry out the crime?
A. They break into the cars.
B. They enter the unlocked cars.
C. They steal the keys and enter the cars.
20. What does the speaker say about the professionals?
A. Many of them are very young.
B. They need a few minutes to break into a car.
C. They use the stolen cars to do other illegal things.
第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
If you’ll be taking vacation time in the coming year and plan on flying, here are some shopping tips for you. Those who fly first class and don’t care what airline tickets cost are excused from this lesson.
● When to buy
If you are shopping for domestic (国内的) flights, check prices on Tuesday afternoons. This is an old tip but still useful because most US carriers continue to release (发行) sales on Tuesday morning, and competitors quickly drop their fares to match the better deals.
● When to fly
Weekdays continue to be generally cheaper times to fly than weekends for most flights. In the US, the cheapest days are typically Tuesday, Wednesday and Saturday. A good itinerary (行程表) for the expensive US spring break travel period is Tuesday to Saturday; it will save you money over weekend-to-weekend travel.
● Where to fly
We continue to see good deals to Boston and Denver and more and more nice prices to Chicago, Seattle and Washington, D.C. As for Europe, there have been surprising deals throughout the fall and those will continue into the winter.
● Direct vs. connecting flights
Compare the price of direct with connecting flights. Sometimes adding a stop to your route will save you money. An example: an Francisco to Raleigh/Durham: $553 direct, $362 one-stop.
You’d better think twice about the direct flight for San Francisco to Raleigh.
● Compare, compare, compare
Stifle the impulse to go to your favorite airline site to purchase tickets without doing any comparison. Example: Let’s say you want to fly from New York to London and figure your favorite US legacy carrier will get you there for the best price. Airline price: $554 round-trip.
However, the comparison site also showed a cheaper flight from the same legacy carrier ($521). See what you’re missing when you fail to compare?
21. When can you possibly find the best price for flights within the US?
A. On Monday morning. B. On Tuesday morning.
C. On Tuesday afternoon. D. On Sunday morning.
22. What does the underlined phrase “stifle the impulse” in the last but one paragraph mean?
A. Feel free to do something. B. Never hurry to do something.
C. Get well prepared for something. D. Make quick decision on something.
23. Who is the text intended for?
A. Those who are traveling during the spring break.
B. Those who usually choose first class for their flights.
C. Those who want to find suggestions on where to fly.
D. Those who are looking for the best airline ticket prices.
B
The snow was falling. The schools were over earlier than usual, but much to my surprise my appointment wasn’t canceled. And so I went, feeling especially heroic. Snow or no snow, I’d be on time for my scheduled donation at the local blood center.
When I got there, I discovered four more “hero-types” were already there, with machines quietly collecting their lifesaving gifts. Seeing them made me believe that while I was proud to be there, 1 wasn’t a hero. And any silly heroic thoughts quickly disappeared as I lay back in my own donor chair and began my donation. I was ready to make a difference in the life of someone I’ d never meet.
My wife Karen is a donor, too. She’s been on the bone marrow (骨髓) list for fifteen years, ever since she signed up to provide bone marrow to a child. That little girl died before Karen’s bone marrow could help her, but Karen was called again recently as it turned out she might be a match for someone else. The caller asked Karen if she’d still be willing to become a bone marrow donor. “Yes,” she said and then immediately began answering questions in preparation for the pages of paperwork to follow. It was a race against time. I wish I could say this race was won, but again it wasn’t.
Last week Karen gave blood and next week I’ll make my usual donation. I’ll clear an afternoon from my schedule and call for an appointment. Whatever blood product they need whole, I’ll gladly give. I don’t know whose life my donation may affect, but it really doesn’t matter. And sadly, while so few among us actually take the time to donate, Karen and 1 always will.
24. What can be inferred about the author from the first paragraph?
A. He is quite fond of taking risks.
B. He is a man who always keeps his word.
C. The snow almost ruined his appointment.
D. He never thinks donating blood is a heroic deed.
25. What influence did other donors have on the author?
A. They changed his attitude to himself.
B. They helped him find joy in donating.
C. They made him feel it a duty to donate.
D. They strengthened his belief not to be a donor.
26. What does the passage say about Karen and her bone marrow donation?
A. She has been found a match to nobody.
B. She decided to join in it over 20 years ago.
C. She fell in trouble when she came to paperwork.
D. She has already met with two failures in donation.
27. Which of the following shows the author’s opinion?
A. More people should have become donors.
B. The donation itself should have been made easier.
C. Receivers should have been introduced to donors.
D. More blood products should have been developed.
C
For several months, Cara has been working up the courage to approach her mom about what she saw on Instagram. Not long ago, the 11-year-old girl discovered that her mom had been posting her photos for much of her life. “I’ve wanted to bring it up. It’s strange to see myself up there, and sometimes there are pictures I don’t like of myself,” she said.
Like most other modern kids, Cara grew up under the influence of social media. Facebook, Twiter and YouTube were all founded before she was born. Instagram has been around since she was a toddler (学步儿童). While many kids may not yet have accounts themselves, their parents, schools, sports teams have been organizing an online presence for them since birth. It is a shock to know that details about their lives have been shared online without their permission or knowledge. And this has become a common experience for many teenagers.
Recently a parenting blogger (博主)said that despite her 14-year-old daughter’s horror at discovering that her mother had shared years of highly personal stories and information about her online, she simply could not stop doing it.
But it’s not just crazy mommy bloggers who share their children’s information on social media. Plenty of average parents do the same. There’s even a special word for it: sharenting (晒娃). Almost a quarter of children begin their digital lives when parents upload their prenatal sonogram scans (产前超声波扫描) to the Internet, according to a study conducted by the Internet-security firm AVG. The study also found that 92 percent of kids under the age of 2 already have their own unique digital identity.
28. How does Cara feel about her mom’s behavior?
A. It’s supportive. B. It’s appropriate.
C. It’s annoying. D. It’s favorable.
29. Who is most likely to share children’s information?
A. A quarter of students. B. Some crazy doctors.
C. Kids under the age of 2. D. Many ordinary parents.
30. What can we learn from Paragraph 4?
A. Fathers don’t like to share their kids’ information on social media.
B. 25% of children begin their digital lives before they are born.
C. The word “sharenting” can be found 10 years ago.
D. AVG is the name of an internet company.
31. What can be a suitable title for the article?
A. Growing up on the Internet B. A New Term Born
C. Parents Addicted to Blogging D. The Children’s Horror
D
We have heard some interesting ways that 5G wireless technology might change our lives in the future.
5G short for the 5th generation mobile communication technology, promises Internet speeds between 50 to 100 times faster than current 4G systems. While 5G is set to be used in some limited areas of America this year, much of the world is not expected to receive widely available service until 2023.
One project in Britain, however, is already testing this superfast technology on an unlikely group of Internet users—cows. The project was developed by American technology company Cisco Systems. It also receives money from the British government. Cisco says the program seeks to explore the future of 5G connectivity in rural areas around the world.
Testing areas were set up at farms in three rural areas of England. The cows are equipped with 5G-connected devices (装置) that link up to a robotic milking system, which uses sensors (传感器) and machine learning to fully automate the process. System designers say technology takes over after a cow feels ready to be milked and walks toward an automatic gate. The device is designed to recognize each individual cow. It then positions equipment to the right body position for milking. During the process, machines release food for the cow as a reward.
Other 5G technology tools include automated brushes that turn on when the cow rubs up against them. Sensors also control the amount of light to the cows’ living areas depending on the weather. And an automatic feeding system makes sure the animals always get enough to eat.
Duncan Forbes, head of the project, told Reuters that the project shows the farm’s cow operations can be greatly improved with 5G technology and that the experiment provides strong evidence that 5G technology can be widely used in the future, not just on farms in Britain, but in rural communities across the world.
32. What is the purpose of Cisco Systems’ program?
A. To win financial support from British government.
B. To expand the future use of 5G in rural communities.
C. To promote its technological development in Britain.
D. To test the effects of 5G technology on animals.
33. What does the underlined word “It” in Paragraph 3 refer to?
A. The project. B. The company. C. The technology. D. The group.
34. What can we learn about 5G according to the text?
A. It is no worse than 4G in terms of speed.
B. It is already widely available in the world.
C. It enables cows to control their own milking.
D. It makes cows eat less and milk more than before.
35. In which section of a newspaper may this text appear?
A. Entertainment. B. Lifestyle. C. Education. D. Technology.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为
多余选项。
Most people are familiar with big international sports events like the Olympics and the World Cup. But have you ever heard of the Commonwealth Games?
The Commonwealth of Nations is an international organization made up of 53 member states, including Canada, India and Australia. 36 Today, they still hold the Commonwealth Games in the hope of keeping their friendship alive.
The Commonwealth Games take place every four years. Like other international sports events, popular sports such as volleyball and hockey are played there. 37 Lawn bowls, a popular game in Commonwealth countries, is similar to curling（冰壶）. However, it’s played on a grass field instead of on ice. Netball is another game that is seldom seen outside of Commonwealth nations. 38 It is mainly a women’s sport.
Australia held the 2018 Commonwealth Games in Queensland between April 4 and 15, 2018. 39 It built new stadiums, a light railway and new WiFi networks. 40 It has hosted the games five times. It is also one of just six countries that have attended each of the games since they were first held in 1930.
A. Queensland did a lot to prepare for the games.
B. Most of these member states used to be British territories（领地）.
C. Australia has always been enthusiastic about the Commonwealth Games.
D. It’s similar to basketball, but each team has seven players instead of five.
E. But there are also other sports that are a bit less known in other countries.
F. Over 5,000 athletes compete at the Commonwealth Games in more than 250 events.
G. Nineteen cities in nine countries (counting England, Wale, and Scotland separately)have hosted the event.
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A 35-year-old Australian mother makes around $58,000 a year by hugging total strangers. Jessica O’Neill started her 41 job six months ago. “As human beings, one thing we often 42 in our daily lives is physical touch. Without it, we can fall into depression and other mental health problems. To satisfy this 43 , I’ve become a professional worker in hugging treatment,” said Jessica.
Jessica claims that her hugs can 44 those who are suffering from loneliness, depression, or low self-confidence. Originally, Jessica was a masseuse (女按摩师), a quite 45 profession. She notices that when she 46 her customers during treatments, they dropped their guards and 47 her more. “I could see their 48 melt away. Then I could get to their heart and do what I can to 49 there,” Jessica said. “Everyone has a totally different story. But the most common 50 are loneliness, depression and anxiety. They all just have that desire to 51 with someone. I believe my hug helps me and my 52 connect on a spiritual level.”
Jessica says the majority of her customers are 53 , but she has a surprising number of female customers 54 .Despite many people thinking she must be 55 for doing such work, Jessica is confident that she’s made the right 56 .“It’s so much more rewarding than just working as a masseuse. I feel like it’s what I was put on this Earth 57 ,” said Jessica. “In today’s digital age, many people are lonelier than ever before. For people whose lives 58 physical interaction, hugging therapy can have an apparent effect on their mental health.”
“Interestingly, although the hugging 59 has been around for a short while, we’ve actually covered several 60 businesses in the last few years.”
41. A. simple B. permanent C. abnormal D. unusual
42. A. observe B. ignore C. misunderstand D. miss
43. A. need B. direction C. curiosity D. requirement
44. A. rescue B. help C. persuade D. train
45. A. ordinary B. well-paid C. admirable D. challenging
46. A. accompanied B. greeted C. consulted D. hugged
47. A. made fun of B. took advantage of C. opened up to D. spoke well of
48. A. purpose B. tension C. delight D. anger
49. A. impress B. interest C. defeat D. cure
50. A. signs B. faults C. senses D. failures
51. A. connect B. agree C. debate D. compete
52. A. colleagues B. ladies C. customers D. passengers
53. A. elderly B. foreign C. male D. overweight
54. A. in return B. as well C. in total D. after all
55. A. responsible B. intelligent C. wealthy D. crazy
56. A. suggestion B. agreement C. choice D. promise
57. A. with B. for C. in D. around
58. A. doubt B. accept C. lack D. hate
59. A. treatment B. protection C. experiment D. nursing
60. A. temporary B. difficult C. secret D. successful
第Ⅱ卷
注意：将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）
第二节 （共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Have you ever wanted to be in a TV show or movie? There is a new app 61 lets you put yourself in your favorite shows. 62 some people are worried about this app.
The app is called ZAO. A tech company 63 (call) Momo released it last month. It lets users put their faces over the faces in photos and videos. Users can put themselves into popular TV shows and movies. For example, you can put your face into a scene from the movie Titanic. Your face 64 (replace) Jack’s or Rose’s. It looks very 65 (nature). Released on Aug 30, it was the most-downloaded free app in China as of Sept 10, according to App Annie, 66 website that tracks app data.
However, some people worry that the app could be abused. People can use the app to make themselves look like politicians or celebrities (名人). They could also violate (侵犯) celebrities’ right of publicity, 67 (use) their faces to make videos or 68 other illegal uses.
Other people worry that they might lose their facial recognition data. 69 is possible that hackers (黑客) could steal this data from app 70 (company) and use it to break into users’ phones and steal their money.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除：把多余的词用斜线（╲）划掉。
修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；
2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。
About how to keep healthy, I’d like to offer my advices. As we know, we teenagers are going through a rapid growth which needs to be support by a healthy and balanced diet. Thus, we need a variety of food but cut out the food rich in sugar or fat. However, we should take physical exercise regular. For example, we can play basketball or take walk after school. Have enough sleep is of great importance. Therefore, you should have at least eight hours of sleep every day and not stayed up too late. Only in this way that can we keep fit.
第二节 书面表达（满分25分）
假如你是李华，为了庆祝建国70周年，你校成功举办了校园艺术节活动。请你给你的英国朋友Tony写封邮件，向他介绍艺术节的相关情况，内容包括：
1．活动形式；
2．活动意义。
注意：
1．词数100左右；
2．可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
3．开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇：建国70周年the 70th anniversary of the founding of China
Dear Tony,
______________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
参考答案
听力
1—5 BBACB 6—10 BCCBC 11—15CCBAB 16—20 ACABC
阅读理解
21—23 CBD 24—27 BADA 28—31 CDBA 32—35 BACD 36—40 BEDAC
完形填空
41—45 DBABA 46—50 DCBDA 51—55 ACCBD 56—60 CBCAD
语法填空
61. that/which 62. But 63. called 64. will replace/replaces 65. natural 66. a
67. using 68. for 69. It 70. companies
短文改错
About how to keep healthy, I’d like to offer my advices. As we know, we teenagers are going
advice
through a rapid growth which needs to be support by a healthy and balanced diet. Thus, we need a
supported
variety of food but cut out the food rich in sugar or fat. However, we should take physical
down Besides/Moreover
exercise regular. For example, we can play basketball or take∧ walk after school. Have enough
regularly a Having
sleep is of great importance. Therefore, you should have at least eight hours of sleep every day
we
and not stayed up too late. Only in this way that can we keep fit.
stay
书面表达
Dear Tony,
I’m writing to tell you something about the Art Festival which was successfully held in our school.
The Art Festival was held with the aim of celebrating the 70th anniversary of the founding of China. In the festival, a variety of activities were held among students, such as a speech competition and performances with singing and dancing. Besides, there was a grand exhibition on traditional Chinese culture, on which some art works, related pictures and videos were exhibited.
This art festival enables us to know more about traditional Chinese culture and the great achievements our motherland has accomplished during the past seven decades. In the meanwhile, it also inspires us to work hard and make great contributions to our motherland.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
相关资料
更多
