重庆市2018年中考英语试题(B卷,Word版,含答案)
展开I.听力测试。(共30分)
第一节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1、A.Nice t meet yu, t. B. Thank yu. C. Gdbye.
2、A.Dn’t wrry! B. Gd idea! C.Hurry up!
3、A. Yu’re welcme. B. It desn’t matter. C. Take yur time.
4、A.That’s right. B.Take it easy. C. With pleasure.
5、A.Srry, I wn’t. B. Well dne. C. Here yu are.
6、A.Never mind! B. What a pity! C. Have a gd time!
第二节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7、A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On ft.
8、A. Grace. B. Alice. C. Paul.
9、A.In the library. B. In the museum. C. In the classrm.
10、A. Math. B. Chinese. C. Science.
11、A. Clever and lvely. B. Friendly and lvely. C. Friendly and clever.
12、A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00.
第三节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料,回答第13和14小题。
13、Where did Jhn g fr a hliday?
A. T Beijing. B. T Taiwan. C. T Hng Kng.
14、Hw was Jhn’s trip?
A.Bring. B. Dangerus. C.Wnderful.
听第二段材料,回答第15和16小题。
15、Wh did the man buy the dress fr?
A. His wife. B. His daughter. C. His sister.
16、What clr did the man chse?
A. Blue. B. Yellw. C. White,
第四节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17、Yu are nw listening t the results f the_____________cmpetitin.
A. music B. sprts C.speech
18、Green Leaves are the__________grup tday.
A. best B. yungest C. tallest
19、The yung man frm Sunshine_______________well.
A. played the guitar B. swam C. sang
20、Summer Flwers wn the__________place in the cmpetitin.
A. third 3. secnd C.first
II.单项选择。(每小题1分,共15分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
21、I believe that_________apple a day keeps the dctr away.
A.a B. an C. the D./
22、Hua Chenyu is very ppular amng teenagers.He is als_______favrite singer.
A.I B. me C. my D. mine
23、-Excuse me, is there a cmputer rm in yur schl?
-Yes.It’s. the fifth flr.
A. n B. in C. at D. t
24、Listen! Mr. Black________a talk n rbts in the hall.
A. gives B. is giving C. will gave D. gave
25、It rained ________yesterday. I had t stay at hme.
A. heavily B. quietly C. hardly D. quickly
26、The cake__________delicius. I’d like t have anther ne.
A. tastes B. lks C. sunds D. feels
27、_________peple visited Hngyadng, Chngqing n May Day this year.
A. Thusand B.Thusands C. Thusand f D. Thusands f
28、Please__________the TV. It'’s time t g t bed.
A. turn n B. turn ff C. put n D. put ff
29、Their parents dn’t allw them_______ in the river because it’s rally dangerus.
A. swim B. swimming C. t swim D. swam
30、Yu________stp when the traffic lights turn red.
A. can’t B. may C.must D. needn’t
31、My math teacher lives an active life. She lks as______as she was ten years ag.
A. yung B.yunger C. the yungest D. yungest
32、-Wh’s the little girl in the pht, Laura?
-It’s me. This pht_________when I was five.
A. is taken B. takes C. was taken D. tk
33、-Hw far is it frm Chngqing t Guiyang?
-It’'s abut tw_________ride by high-speed train.
A.hur B. hur’s C. hurs D. hurs’
34、Lts f peple exercise every mrming_________bad weather stps them.
A. if B. unless C. until D. since
35、-Culd yu please tell me__________?
-In tw weeks.
A. when did he cme back B. hw sn will he cme back
C. when he came back D. hw sn he will cme back
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Tm wrked hard in an ffice. But it seemed that there was little change in his life. He was unhappy and didn’t want t imprve himself any mre. His father, Je, knew this and decided t have a talk with___36___.
One day, Tm and his father went fr a walk after dinner._ 37___ they were walking alng a
river, Tm said,“Dad, yu always tell me t leam smething new. T be__38__,I dn’t want make any change.
Je lked in the river, saw a dead_39 _ and pinted at it.
“Tm, what is that ver there?"
“I's a dead fish.”
“What’s the fish ding?"
It's mving dwn with the running water.
“But the fish is dead._ 40__can it be mving?" asked Je.
“It’s mving as the river is mving.”
Je turned t his sn and said, “Life is__41___the river. It’s always mving and always changing. Sme peple dn’t want t change, but their life is always changing whether thev like it nt.A dead fish nly mves alng the river, while a living fish can cntrl its jurney. What’s yu chice if yu want t live a__42__life?”
This made Tm__43__his aunt wh had already stpped learning and develping. And she just stayed the way she used t be, living like a dead fish.
Cuided by is_ 44__ ,Tm undestd what he sid. He did’t want t becme a persn like his
aunt. S he made up his mind t__45__ learning and develping himself.
36、A.yu B.me C.her D.him
37、A.Once B.While C.After D.Befre
38、A.hnest B.happy C.quiet D.patient
39、A.bird B.dg C.duck D. fish
40、A.Wh B. Which C.Hw D.When
41、A. in B. ver C. like D. by
42、A. wrse B. harder C. greener D. better
43、A. give up B. think f C. wait fr D. hear frm
44、A. aunt B. father C.uncle D. friend
45、A. cntinue B. finish C.avid D. stp
IV.阅读理解。(每小题2分、共30分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Chinese Culture Centers Abrad
We ffer Chinese language curses and activities f Chinese culture.
46、The first Chinese Culture Center in Asia was pened________.
A. in July, 1988 B. n Octber 29. 2002
C. in December, 2004 D. n December 5,2012
47、If yu want t learn Chinese painting. yu can call_________.
A.230-2088547 B.0020-2-37798203
C.00822-733-8307 D.007-495-6121197
48、Yu can d Chinese kung fu at the Chinese Culure Center_______.
A. in Mauritius B. in Cair C. in Seul D. in Mscw
B
Natinal Smile Mnth is the largest and lngest muth health activity in the UK. Starting in 1977,it is celebrating its 42nd birthday frm May 14 t June 14 this year.
The British are knwn fr their bad teeth because they have t many sugary( 甜的) fds and drinks. It seems that mst f them dn’t ften shw their feelings. They neither smile nr cry.But this is NOT true. The British like t smile as much as anyne else. They just dn’t want t shw their bad teeth.
Brush yur teeth at least twice a day, cut dwn sugary fds and drinks, and visit the dentist ften. With the three messages, the rganizers(组织者)hpe that a mnth f smiling will make peple all arund the UK realize the imprtance f gd teeth and be cnfident enugh t pen their muths t smile.
One interesting activity is fr the British t enjy the fun phts with shrt stries behind. Seeing the smiling faces and reading the interesting stries, everyne can’t help smiling! Yu’re welcme t send yurs with big smiles nline.
Smiling is nt nly gd fr yu but als gd fr thse arund yu, even if yu d have a few bad teeth. This makes Natinal Smile Mnth a great idea!
49、Natinal Smile Mnth in the UK has had a histry f______years s far.
A.5 B. l4 C.42 D.77
50、Accrding t Paragraph 2, we learn that mst f the British
A. dn’t like sugary fds B. have very gd teeth
C. dn’t shw their feelings D. like t smile in fact
51、The three messages in Paragraph 3 tell the British hw t take care f their________.
A. teeth B.fd C.drinks D.hands
52、Natinal Smile Mnth in the UK suggests that__________.
A. the British shuld imprve their health nly this mnth
B. the British shuld shw mre smiles with better teeth
C. the British shuldn’t smile if they have a few bad teeth
D. the British shuldn’t have many interesting activities
C
Dear Li Hua,
Hw’s everything ging? Cngratulatins n yur graduatin frm junir high schl!
I hpe yu have a great time during the hliday, but there is smething imprtant fr yu t think abut- a plan fr yur persnal grwth. Here is sme advice fr yn
Firstly. study yurself. Understand what yu like, what yu value and what yu want t be. In studying yurself, yu check yur strengths( 长处)and weaknesses. Find ut what yu need t prepare fr vur dream jb.
Secndly,write dwn yur plan. When writing,yu can try using Mind Maps (思维导图).It is a gd way t help yu t think mre clearly. And yu may find a prper way t yu’re yur plan ut.
Thirdly ,g ver yur plan with yur teachers, parents r friends. They may give yu sme advice.Think carefully abut their advice and make sme changes t yur plan if necessary. And then yu can g n with it.
Finally,__ 54__. Fr example, if yu want t be an English teacher in the future, yu shuld spend mre time reading English bks, learning mre abut English culture and practicing yur listening and speaking frm nw n. Yu can make yur dream cme true nly thrugh hard wrk..
Yu may find it difficult t make the plan nw. Dn’t wrry. All yu need is just a rugh(粗略的) ne. Once yu enter the senir high schl, yu’ll get a chance t make it better with the help f yur teachers. And yur persnal grwth plan may change with yur age, yur interests and the scial develpment. S take yur time and I believe yu will grw int an excellent yung man.
Best wishes!
Yurs,
Li Fang
53、The underlined wrd“study”in Paragraph 3 prbably means_______in Chinese.
A.学习 B.审视 C. 帮助 D.调查
54、Which f the fllwing can be the missing part in Paragraph 6?
A. plan t find a jb B.try t be an English teacher
C. practice English D. wrk hard t realize yur dream
55、Accrding t the passage, a persnal grwth plan in yur lifetime may change with the fllwing things except________.
A. yur Mind Maps B. yur age
C. scial develpment D. yur interests
56、In the letter, Li Fang mainly wants t tell Li Hua________。
A. hw t spend the hliday happily B.hw t prepare fr his dream jy
C.hw t make his persnal grwth plan D,hw t review he plan with his frients
D
As the saying ges, “Give a man a fish, and yu feed him fr a day. Teach a man t fish,and yu feed him fr a lifetime.”This is the way the charity rganizatin Heifer Internatinal (国际小母牛慈善组织)wants t end wrld hunger.
It began in the 1930s when an American farmer, Dan West, went t Spain t help peple in need. He tried t feed the peple with milk. But it seemed that there wuld never be enugh milk. It made him think that what they needed was“nt a cup, but a cw”.
Dan West returned t America. He wrked tgether with sme friends t find ways t end hunger. He believed giving animals and prviding training wuld stp wrld hunger. With his help, Heifer Internatinal was set up.
On Heifer Internatinal’s website, yu will see a list f animals like cws, chickens, pigs and even fish and bees. Yu can ffer help by buying sme animals fr ne certain family. Thse animals will have babies. With mre and mre animals, these families will be able t supprt themselves. Once these families get better lives, they will pass n the act f kindness t thers. Mre imprtantly, yu are buying the resurces(资源) fr prgrams run by Heifer Internatinal t help mre families.
The prgrams als help small-sized farms. As a rule, each farmer must give his animal’s first female(雄性) baby t anther in need. Heifer Internatinal als prvides training n animals health and feeding. And these farmers all agree t teach thers what they have learned as anther rule.
Hwever, there is still a lng way t g. The milk may run ut. But if families have their wn cws, they can get plenty f milk t feed themselves. The rganizatin wants the farmers t g n
wrking tgether, helping each ther and learning frm each ther. Maybe hunger can really be stpped.
57、Accrding t the passage, we knw that Dan West .
A. set up a team in Spain B. helped peple with enugh fish
C. was a Spanish farmer D. helped set up Heifer Internatinal
58、 Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE abut the charity rganizatin Heifer Internatinal?
A. Heifer Internatinal makes a list f animals n its website.
B. Farmers in the prgram must teach thers hw t feed animals.
C. Farmers in the prgram must give all the animals' babies t thers.
D. Heifer Intermatinal prvides training n animals' health and feeding.
59、If we put the passage int fur parts, which f the fllwing is the best?
(①=Para.1 ②=Para.2 ③=Para.3 ④=Para.4 ⑤= Para.5 ⑥= Para.6)
A.①;②③;④⑤;⑥ B.①;②③;④;⑤⑥
C.①②;③;④⑤;⑥ D.①②③;④;⑤;⑥
60、 The best title f this passage may be“ ”
A. Advice n Feeding Cws B.A Cw Instead f a Cup
C. The Charity Organizatins D.An American Farmer
V、口语运用。(每小题1分,共5分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A. I'm a dctr.
B. Where are yu nw?
C. This is Sctt Smith.
D. Hw will yu cme?
E. What's happening?
F. Stay with her and dn't mve her.
G. Hw lng will I have t wait?
A: Hell! This is 911. Wh is that speaking?
B: 61 Help! Help! Please help me!
A: Yes, sir. 62
B::My wife is seriusly ill. She's having a heart prblem.
A:Nw relax, sir. 63
B:I'm n Lincln Highway, abut 15 miles frm Washingtn Tunnel.
A:OK. I'll send an ambulance(救护车)as sn as pssible.
B: 64
A: Fr abut ten minutes.
B:All right. What shuld I d while waiting?
A: 65
B:0K. Thank yu and please hurry.
第II卷(共55分)
VI、任务型阅读。(66- 68每小题2分69小题3分,共9分)
阅读下文井回答问题。
Reading is fun. When yu read,wuld yu like a paper bk r an e-bk(电子书)? Sme peple chse e-bk, sme lve paper bks, and thers prefer reading bth..
Li Ming ,a university prfessr(教授), is busy ding sme research. S he is fien n business. When he is at the airprt r n the train, he especally lves reading e-bks. He als likes reading paper bks in the library fr his research wrk. Besides, he enjys the smell f the paper bks.
What's, mre, Li Ming wuld like t read wih his family. There is a reading time frm 8:00 t 9:00 each Friday evering at hme. Everyne reads and shares what they leam frm the bks. One Friday evening, Grandma tk ut an ld paper bk and said t her grandsn, "Lei Lei, this is the first bk yur grandpa gave me. There is his name n the frnt page. Whenever I read it,I can get smething new frm his ntes. And I can sill remember the happy life we lived tgether." Li Lei said," But I enjy rending e-bks. E-bks need n paper. Many frests will be saved." Grandma advised. " Dn't read fr a lng time, r yur eyes will get sre.”
Diferent peple have different ideas abut e-bks and peper bks. N ne knws whether e-bks can replace(代替)paper bks r nt. Smehw, bks are ur friends. N matter which kind f bks yu chse t read, yu can leam mre abut the wrld thrugh them.
66、D all the peple prefer reading e-bks?
67、 When is the reading time in Li Ming's family?
68、What des the ld paper bk mean t Grandma?
69、 D yu think e-bks will replace paper bks in yur life? Why r why nt?
VII、完成句子。(每空1分,共10分)
根据所给提示,完成句子。每空一词,含缩略词。
70、The bys can play chess in the afternn.(改为否定句)
The bys chess in the afternn.
71、We will travel t the Great Wall after the exam?(对划线部分提问)
yu travel after the exam?
72、Why dn’t yu watch a talk shw?(改为同义句)
watch a talk shw?
73、不要害怕犯错误,你能从中学到很多。(完成译句)
Dn’t be afraid t . Yu will learn a lt frm them.
74、我们应该学好英语,以便能向世界讲述中国故事。(完成译句)
We shuld leam English well we can tell China stries t the wrld.
VII、短文填空。(每空2分,共16分)
根据下面短文内容,在短文的空格处填上一个恰当的词,使短文完整、通顺。
We all knw that a gd nigh's rest helps us stay helthy. Atfer we sleep fr7 r8 hurs in bed and 75 up next mming,ur mind is better prepared t memrize and learn smething.
But what abut getting a rest during the middle f the day?
Scientists say,“Shrt perids f sleep, napping(小睡), may help learning and memry.Napping can help yung children leam better. It can 76 help lder peple remember lnger. ”
Take China as an example. Chinese peple are used t napping after lunch.
Recently researchers made a survey amng nearly 3, 000 Chinese peple ver 65 years ld. The researchers asked them 77 they napped and fr hw lng. They fund that abut 60 percent f them tk a nap and they napped fr 60 t 90 minutes. The research shws that napping fr abut an hur is the best.
Hwever, these are the findings fr thse 78 the age f 65. Dctrs say that napping fr abut an hur may be t 79 fr yung and healthy peple. And they believe that half an hur is enugh t 80 yung and healthy pcple frm feeling tired. By ding s, 81 will help them stay awake.
Dctrs als say," If yu have truble falling asleep at 82 , take a daytime nap fr less than 45 minutes and dn't nap after 3 p. m. in the aftemn.”
IX.书面表达。(满分20分)
中澳友好协会准备就“A Gift frm the Heart”为题举办征文比赛,要求参赛者分享在一些特别的日子(生日、节日)用心准备的礼物。
写作要求:
1.词数:80—120词;
2.文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。
参考要点:
1.介绍特别的日子;
2.分享赠送的礼物;
3.表述礼物的意义。
A Gift frm the Heart
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第I卷(共95分)
I、听力测试。(共30分)
第一节:(每小题1.5分,共9分)
1-6 ABBCAC
第二节:(每小题1.5分,共9分)
7-12 ABACBC
第三节:(每小题1.5分,共6分)
13-16 BCCB
第四节:(每小题1.5分,共6分)
17-20 ABAC
II.单项选择。(每小题1分,共15分)
21- 25 BCABA 26--30 ADBCC 31- 35 ACDBD
III.完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
36- 40 DBADC 41-45 CDBBA
IV.阅读理解。(每小题2分,共30分)
46-48 CBD 49-52 CDAB 53 -56 BDAC 57-60 DCAB
V.口语运用。(每小题1分,共5分)
61- 65 CEBCF
第II卷(共55分)
VI.任务型阅读。(66 -68每小题2分,69小题3分,共9分)
66. N, they dn't.
67. Frm 8:00 t 9:00 each Fiday evening.
68. I means lve /missing /gd memries.
69. Yes,I think s. Because e-bks are easy t carry and we prtect ur envirnmnent better.N,I dn't think s, Because reading paper bks ffers us a mre real and pleasant experience and is better fr ur eyes.
VII.完成句子。(每空1分,共10分)
70. can't play 71. Where will 72. Why nt 73. make mistakes 74.s that
(评分说明:形式、拼写错误不给分)
VIII短文填空。(每空2分,共16分)
75. wake 76. als 77. if/whether 78. ver 79. lng 80. stp 81. it 82. night
(评分说明:用词正确而形式错误,只给1分)
IX、书面表达。(满分20分)
One pssible versin:
A Gift frm the Heart
It Was the last day f that tem, My elassmates were very excited st the cming hlidny. But myfriend, Mike, lked unhappy because he failed the English test.
While thinking abut hw t cheer him up,I saw my English ntebk. Althugh it was veryimprtant fr me,I decided t give it t him, He lked at me in surprise, He kncw hw earefully Ik the ntes, I tld him thnt I culd alse help him leam Engish.
Mike has made prgress with the help f my gift ,the ntebk. If's nt expensive but it's frm myheart..
评分总则:
1.本题总分为20分,按各档次给分。
2.评分时.先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定所属档次最后在本档次内酌情给分。
3.英、美拼写均可接受。
参考要点:
1.介绍特别的日子;
2.分享赠送的礼物;
3.表述礼物的意义。
给分范围和要求:
第四档(优):(16-20分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
—准确使用了丰富的词汇和语言结构。
—全文结构紧凑,有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,符合英语交际习惯,具有较强的语言运用能力。
第三档(良):(11-15分)
较好地完全完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
一恰当地使用了丰富的词汇和语言结构。
一恰当应用了语句间连接成分,.较好地达到了交际的目的。
第二档(中):(6-10分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—没有覆盖所有内容要点。
—词汇和语言结构不能完全满足写作任务的要求。
一文章不够连贯,影响对写作内容的理解。
第一档(差):(0-5分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
—遗漏较多内容要点或写的内容与规定内容无关。
一词汇和语言结构错误较多。
—内容不连贯,无法传达有效信息。
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