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    山东省济南市济阳区2020-2021学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(word版 含答案)

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    山东省济南市济阳区2020-2021学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(word版 含答案)

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    这是一份山东省济南市济阳区2020-2021学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(word版 含答案),共21页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    本试题分选择题部分和非选择题部分,共12页,满分为150分,考试用时120分钟。答题前,请考生务必将自己的姓名、座号和准考证号填写在答题卡上,并同时将考点、姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷规定的位置。
    答题时,选择题部分每小题选出答案后,用2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题部分,用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。
    考试结束后,将本试题和答题卡一并交回。
    选择题部分 共105分
    I.听力测试(30分)
    A) 听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。
    1. A. Put the bananas int the blender. B. Turn n the bender.
    C. Cut up the bananas.
    2. A. There will be mre trees. B. There will be fewer peple.
    C. There will be less pllutin.
    3. A. Tina is taller than Tm. B. Tina is mre utging than Tm.
    C. Tina is the mst hard-wrking.
    4. A. He can’t stand talk shws. B. He desn’t mind talk shws.
    C. He likes talk shws very much.
    5. A. Can yu cme t my birthday party? B. Can yu help with the husewrk?
    C. Can yu g shpping with me?
    B) 在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
    6.What des Frank want t learn?
    A. T play sccer. B. T play basketball.C. T play the guitar.
    7.Hw ften des the girl exercise?
    A. Hardly ever. B. Never. C. Every day.
    8.What will happen if they g t visit grandma tmrrw?
    A. She will meet them herself. B. She wn’t be available. C. She will be very happy.
    9.What’s her new year’s reslutin?
    A. She will imprve her health. B. She will take pian lessns. C. She will learn t sing.
    10. What d they need t make tmat and egg sup?
    A. Sme chicken. B. Sme tmates and eggs. C. Sme ptates.
    C) 在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话读两遍。(听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间)
    11.Where is Sally?
    A. At hme.B. At Betty's hme.C. At a shp.
    12.Whm des Sally stay tgether with nw?
    A. Dave.B. Mlly.C. Betty.
    13.Whse birthday is next Friday?
    A. Dave and Sally's.B. Dave and Betty's.C. Sally and Betty's.
    14.When is Dave's birthday party?
    A. At six 'clck.B. At half past six.C. At seven 'clck.
    15.Why can't Sally g t Dave's party?
    A. Because she has t study.B. Because she has t g t the dctr.
    C. Because Betty invited her earlier.
    D) 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。(听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间)
    16.Hw ld is Li Lng?
    A.4.B.14.C.15.
    17.What des Li Lng's brther like watching?
    A. Cartns.B. Game shws.C. Sitcms.
    18.What des Li Lng's sister think f game shws?
    A. Educatinal.B. Interesting.C. Meaningless.
    19.What d Li Lng's parents like watching?
    A. Animal Wrld.B. CCTV news.C. Sprts news.
    20.What des the whle family ften watch after super?
    A. Actin mvies.B. Sap peras.C. Talk shws.
    II.选择填空 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。(15分)
    21. –Jack, let’s have a surprise party fr Mr. Wang n Sunday.
    –That’s ______ gd idea.
    A. a B. an C. the D. /
    22. I will miss Ms. Green, because _______ always tld me “Believe yurself!”
    A. her B. she C. him D. he
    23. –______d yu practice listening?
    –I ften watch English prgrams.
    A. HwB.WhC. WhatD.When
    24. –What wuld yu like fr dinner, dear?
    –I dn’t feel like eating______. I ate t much fr lunch.
    A. smething B. anybdy C. smebdyD. anything
    25.–I made sme careless mistakes in my hmewrk.
    –It’s hard nt t make mistakes, but I hpe yu can be ______.
    A.mre carelessB.mre carefulC. mre carelesslyD. mst carefully
    26. – Mm, shall we have lunch nw?
    – We wn’t have lunch ______yur dad cmes back.
    A. until B. because C. thugh D. when
    27. –______ n yur cat, Jane. It’s very cld utside.
    –OK, Mm.
    A. PuttingB. T putC. PutD. Puts
    28. – Lucy, ______fine day it is!
    – Yes. Let’s g fr a walk.
    A.Hw B.What C.What a D.Hw a
    29. – I dn’t knw hw t use the APP.
    – Ask Jimmy fr help. He has lts f ______ in ding it.
    A. meaning B. experience C. prblems D. temperature
    30. –Did yu g t see the mvie with Jane last night?
    –N, she______my invitatin and I didn’t want t g there alne.
    A.fell dwnB. turned dwnC. put dwnD. wrte dwn
    31.–Thank yu s much fr the lvely present yu sent me!
    –______.
    A. With pleasureB. I hpe s
    C. Never mindD. I’m glad yu like it
    32.–Is Helen here?
    –Nt yet, but she______in half an hur.
    A. arrivesB. will arriveC. arrivedD. has arrived
    33. –Are yu frm Xi”an?
    –N, I’m nt. I went t cllege there 10 years ag, ______.
    A. evenB. thughC. eitherD. t
    34. –We will have a big basketball game next week, but we still need a player.
    –Why nt ______ Jhn t jin the game? He is fantastic.
    A. invite B. celebrate C. refuse D.imprve
    35. –Can I help yu?
    – Yes, please pass me 2 ______.
    A. pieces f paper B. pieces f papers
    C. piece f paper D.piece f papers
    III.完形填空 阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。(15分)
    “What’s wrng, dear?” said Mrs. Smith t the little by,Tm Blair,wh had tears in his eyes. “We have all gt a pem(诗歌) called Little Jim t learn," said Tm, “and the ne wh says it best will get a 36 frm the teacher. But I dn’t think I can 37 it. "
    “Why nt?” said Mrs. Smith.
    “It is s lng and hard fr me. And ther bys always 38 me, and call me ‘Slw Tm’. " said Tm in a 39 vice(声音).
    “Well, dear, dn’t mind 40 thers say," said Mrs. Smith kindly. “Lk at that snail(蜗牛) n the wall; hw 41 it is! But if yu watch it, yu will see it will get t the tp at last. When yu feel like lsing heart, 42 the snail n the wall. "
    At last, the day came. The teacher called up the bys t repeat the pem. When five r six bys had tried, it came t Tm’s turn. 43 Tm gt up, there was a laugh because mst f the bys thught he wuld fail. But t everynne’s surprise, he did nt 44 a wrd. And his heart was full f 45 when the teacher said, "Well dne. Tm Blair!" After the 46 f the class had tried, the teacher said Tm did 47 , and he gave him the prize.
    “And nw tell me,” said the teacher, “hw yu learned the pem s well?”
    “Please, sir, it was the snail n the wall that 48 me hw t d it," said Tm. "I saw it crawl up the wall bit by bit. It did nt stp, nr turn back, but went n and n. And I thught I wuld d the same as the snail. S I 49 learned it little by little, and did nt give up. ”
    "Nw, bys, let us give a gd cheer fr Tm Blair and the 50 n the wall. "said the teacher. And the ld huse rang with a lud, lng cheer. Fr all were glad that “Slw Tm” had gt a prize at last.
    36. A. giftB. snailC. prizeD. chclate
    37. A. frgetB. learnC. writeD. draw
    38. A. laugh at B. argue withC. wait frD. lk after
    39. A. big B. sweetC. sadD. kind
    40. A. hwB. whatC. whenD. why
    41. A. fastB. sillyC. cleverD. slw
    42. A. listen tB. hear frmC. think f D. pick up
    43. A. When B. UnlessC. IfD. Thugh
    44. A. catchB. missC. use D. make
    45. A. happinessB. tirednessC. painD. pity
    46. A. numberB. thersC. endD. side
    47. A. wrstB. leastC. mstD. best
    48. A. taughtB. gtC. rderedD. made
    49. A. evenB. justC. neverD. nce
    50. A. snailB. pictureC. pemD. cheer
    IV.补全对话 阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分)
    Jane: Hi, Kate! Yu lk a little upset. 51
    Kate: The final exam is cming in a few days. 52
    Jane: It’s n use wrrying.
    Kate: I knw, but I just can’t stp wrrying. 53
    Jane:I’m a little wrried, but I’m als lking frward t it.
    Kate: Oh, really?
    Jane: Yeah. I’m lking frward t the vacatin after the exam.
    Kate: 54
    Jane: Well, nt yet. But I’m ding my best. I’m sure that I can get gd grades.
    Kate: 55 I will stp wasting time wrrying. I’ll try my best t get everything ready.
    Jane: Well, gd luck t bth f us.
    51. A.Wh’s that by?B. Where’s the dctr?
    C. What’s the prblem?D. When is the math test?
    52. A. I have a tthache. B. We all feel very excited.
    C. We are really busy. D. I’m s wrried abut it.
    53. A. Hw abut yu?B. What are yu lking fr?
    C. Can yu help me? D. Hw d yu study fr a test?
    54. A. Did yu eat yur breakfast?B. What are yu ding fr vacatin?
    C.Are yu ready fr the exam?D. Did yu enjy yurself n vacatin?
    55. A. I dn’t think s.B. Yu’re right.
    C. Yu’re welcme.D. Here yu are.
    V.阅读理解 阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。(40分)
    A
    The lin was nce a cwardly(胆小的)animal. He was afraid t kill ther animals. And he wuld be very afraid when the cry f a wlf(狼) came t his ears.
    The lin wrried abut his wn cwardly(胆怯). One day, he went t the Gd f the Animals fr help, and asked fr “a brave heart”. “That's easy!” said the Gd f the Animals. “But first, yu must kill that wlf. Then I will give yu a brave heart.” Kill a wlf? That was difficult. But was there anther way t get a “brave heart”? Finally, the lin decided t fight the wlf. What a wnder! He killed the wlf. Seeing that the wlf was dead, the lin hurried t the Gd f the Animals fr his“brave heart”.“I already gave it t yu ,” said the Gd f the Animals. “What?” cried the lin in surprise. “If yu didn't have a brave heart, hw culd yu kill that wlf?”
    56.The lin went t the Gd f the Animals because he wanted t ______.
    A. kill the wlf B. imprve himself
    C. make friends with the Gd f the Animals D. be the king f the animals
    57.Frm the stry we knw that the Gd f the Animals was ______.
    A.strng B. ld C. clever D.brave
    58.Why did the Gd say it was easy t get“a brave heart”? Because ______.
    A.the lin wuld be brave enugh if he killed the wlf.
    B.the Gd wuld give his wn heart t the lin
    C.the Gd culd make the brave heart easily
    D.the lin was strnger than the wlf.
    59.The lin killed the wlf because ______.
    A. He wanted t make a wnder B. He wanted t get“a brave heart”frm the Gd
    C. He didn't think it was difficultD. He had received the“brave heart”frm the Gd
    60.Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
    A. The lin was sad at the dead wlf.B. It was difficult t get“a brave heart”.
    C.The lin gt“a brave heart”at last. D. The Gd didn't give the lin“a brave heart”.
    B
    Everybdy knws that cats like t sleep.They spend mre than half their lives sleeping and enjy every minute f it. Other animals have different sleeping habits, hwever. Hrses may nt lk like they are asleep. But they are! Hrses spend abut six hurs sleeping every day and they d it standing up!
    Fish als sleep every day but they have a strange habit. They dn't clse their eyes when they are sleeping. When ducks sleep they keep ne eye pen and ne f their brain awake. It helps them stay alert and watch ut fr dangerus animals.
    S what abut us? Well, mst peple sleep fr abut a third f their lives.The number f hurs yu sleep, hwever, has t d with yur age. Mst newbrn babies sleep a lt. They spend abut 75% f their time sleeping every day! As we get lder we need less sleep. Children need abut eleven hurs and adults sleep fr eight hurs every night.
    S, yes, yu spend many hurs a year ding nthing sleeping in bed!
    But yu're nt just asleep-yu're nt really ding nthing. Yur bdy and yur mind relax during this time, but a lt f things happen during sleep. Dreams are ne way that the mind relaxes after a busy day. A persn spends abut 20% f every night dreaming. That means yu have abut fur r five dreams every night r abut 1, 600 dreams a year.
    61. Frm the passage, we knw that a hrse______.
    A. sleeps with ne eye pen B. spends half f its life sleeping
    C. keeps standing up when sleeping D. desn't clse its eyes when sleeping
    62. Accrding t the passage, hw lng d mst newbrn babies sleep ne day?
    A. Abut 12 hurs B. Abut 14 hurs C. Abut 16 hurs D. Abut 18 hurs
    63. What animal sleep with ne eye pen and ne half f their brain awake?
    A. B. C. D.
    64. Where des the passage prbably cme frm?
    A. An art bk B. A science bk C. A sprts bk D. A medical bk
    65. What is the passage mainly abut?
    A. Sleeping animals. B.Ways t sleep well.
    C. Sme knwledge(知识) abut sleep. D. Hw t keep healthy.
    C
    When Thmas Edisn lst the first jb, he wrked hard t find anther ne. Fr the next five years , he went arund the cuntry frm jb t jb. At last Edisn went t New Yrk. He had little mney. He culd nt buy enugh fd t eat. He had n place t sleep. Life was very hard fr him.
    Fr many days Edisn lked fr wrk. He was hungry. At last he fund wrk fixing machines. He culd fix the ld machines. He culd als make new nes. The head man liked Edisn's new machines. He was ging t give Edisn 40,000 fr them. Edisn had mney t d what he wanted.
    Thmas Edisn was then 23. He used the mney t build a shp in New Jersey. He had many peple wrking fr him. But he wrked mre than any f them. He rested very little. Sn he was making mre than 40 new things at ne time.
    In 1876 Alexander Graham Bell made a telephne. But it culd carry vices nly a little way. Edisn wanted t make a better telephne. He sn made ne. It culd carry vices a lng way. It changed the way f cmmunicatin.
    66. After he lst his first jb, Edisn______.
    A. had a bad time in the next five years B. lived in New Yrk fr the next five years
    C. fund n jbs in the next five yearsD. had n fd r sleep during the next five years
    67. In New Yrk , ______.
    A. Edisn had a happy life
    B. Edisn began t have gd luck after he fund the wrk fixing machines
    C. Edisn gt 40,000 by fixing machines
    D. Edisn made mre mney by fixing ld machines.
    68. The head man was interested in ______.
    A. Thmas Edisn himself B. The ld machines
    C. the new machines D. Edisn's telephne
    69. Edisn made a telephne. It ______.
    A. was the first ne in the wrld B. carried vices much farther
    C. carried vices mre clearly D. carried mre vices
    70. What is the best title f the passage?
    A. The First Telephne B. Thmas Edisn's Shp
    C. Thmas Edisn's New Jb D. Thmas Edisn–An Inventr
    D
    What d yu call a schl with n tests, n grades, n classes, and n teachers? Students f the Met Schl and their parents think it t be the best schl in the wrld.
    The schl is in Rhde Island, USA. Dennis Littky pened it in 1996. He was fired(解雇) frm tw ther schls, because many parents f the schl students were unhappy with his unusual ideas. The schl takes pr kids wh are failing(失败) at schls. Nearly(几乎) everybdy has already given up (放弃)these students and their parents want t try anything. The Met Schl gives Littky a great place t try ut his new ideas.
    "The wrd that mst kids use when they talk abut high schl is 'bring'," says Littky. "But n ne wuld say the Met was bring." Advisers( 指导老师) (nt teachers) wrk with small grups f students fr fur years. Students spend almst half f their schl time learning real-life skills, such as wrking fr business, spending time with gvernment peple, and helping teach yunger children. Instead f( 代 替 ) tests, the students give shws abut their wrk utside schl.
    In fact, students wrk harder here than in ther schls. All the students frm the Met graduate and can chse t g t a gd university. Nw, Bill Gates is starting schls like this ne arund the USA.
    71. think(s) that the Met Schl is the best.
    A. The headmaster f the Met Schl.
    B. The student utside the Met Schl.
    C. The teachers at the Met Schl.
    D . All the students and their parents frm the Met Schl.
    72. What d mst high schl students think f nrmal schl?
    A. Interesting. B. Bring. C. Relaxing. D. Exciting.
    73. What des the underlined wrd "graduate" in the last paragraph mean in Chinese?
    A. 毕业 B. 离开C. 结束D. 搬离
    74. What d the students d at the Met Schl?
    A. They spend all their schl time playing.
    B.They keep giving shws abut their schl.
    C. They nly learn frm wrking fr business.
    D. Almst half f the time, they learn real-life skills.
    75. Accrding t the passage, which f the fllwing is TRUE?
    A. Life at the Met Schl is very easy because there are n tests.
    B. Students at the Met Schl spend all their time wrking utside schl.
    C. Students can chse t g t a gd university.
    D. Teachers at the Met Schl give students much mre hmewrk than at nrmal schl.
    非选择题部分共45分
    VI.选词填空(10分)
    A.阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的单词填空(每词限用一次)。
    D yu like music? I like music, especially(尤其是) music in English 76. __________. I think D Re Mi is the 77. __________ sng I have ever heard. It is the theme(主题) sng f the film The Sund f Music. I first heard it when I was five years ld. It was 78. __________ a beautiful and fun sng that I culdn't help singing alng. Nw, I 79. __________ften listen t it. Whenever I am under stress, I'll listen t it because it can make me 80. __________ and relaxed.
    B.阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的动词,并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号(每词限用一次)。
    Tm is a 28-yuear-ld in a small village. He is s lazy that he 81._________ nthing and daydreams all day. Whenever he is hungry, he will g ut, ask fr fd, cme back and hang arund.
    One sunny afternn, he was very hungry. With great difficulty, he 82. _________ a pt(平底锅) f milk frm ne f his neighbrs. He tk this pt , lay dwn n his bed and started daydreaming again.
    “This pt f milk is ging t make me 83. _________ rich,” he thught. “I can make butter frm the milk. Then I will g t the market and sell the butter,” his dream cntinued, “With the mney I get, I will buy a pair f cws. They 84.__________ baby cws after six mnths. Sn I wuld have a large number f cws.”“Then I will cntinue my business. I will buy sme mre cws and wn a farm. Once I make enugh mney, I will emply(雇佣) peple t wrk n my farm... ” the man kept smiling t himself. “Hw smart I am!” he thught.
    Lst in his thughts, he 85.__________ ut his ft, breaking the pt, and making himself wet in milk.
    VII.阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(5分)
    Wang Fengqin, a 61-year-ld wman in Beijing, vlunteers t srt(分类)rubbish (垃圾) in her living area in Beijing’s Chayang District.
    At 6:30 every mrning ,while half f Beijing is still in sleeping dreams in bed r enjying a delicius breakfast, Wang rushes thrugh her busiest hurs in the day. She gets up, gives her face a quick wash, takes a simple breakfast and rushes t the fur rubbish dustbins beside the gate f her living area. 86. _____________
    “Srting rubbish will imprve the envirnment fr all f us and it nly takes a minute,” Wang said. “87. _____________”
    As Wang spke, an ld man came by and threw a plastic bag full f rubbish int the dustbin marked “recyclable”.
    “Hey, please, there are sme range peels (皮) and fish bnes (骨头) in yur bag, 88. _____________,” Wang tld him.
    Learning the ld man was in a hurry, Wang let him g, pened the bag herself, picked ut the kitchen waste and threw it in the right dustbin.
    Wang des this every day frm 7:30 a. m. t 9 a. m. and frm 6 p. m. t 8 p. m. since March 10. 89. _____________.
    Mst peple had n idea abut srting rubbish at first, but nw 90 percent can put rubbish in the right dustbin, Wang says. 90. _____________
    VIII.书面表达(30分)
    A.根据下面图片所提供的情景,用完整的英语句子回答下列问题。 (10分)
    91. 92. 93.
    94. 95.
    91.What are the children ding nw?

    92. Wh has lnger hair, Tm r Sam?

    93. What is Lisa ging t be when he grws up?

    94. Hw did the children get t the park yesterday?

    95. What will the Greens have fr Thanksgiving Day?

    B. 过去的2020年注定是不平凡的一年,个人、家庭和我们整个国家都发生了很多让人记忆犹新的事情。崭新的2021年已经来临,你也一定有很多计划和愿望。请用英语写一篇作文,回顾一下过去一年的经历,展望自己的2021年。(20分)
    要求:1、次数不少于80词。
    2、内容积极向上可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
    3、不得出现自己的真实姓名和学校。
    可能用到的词汇:新冠病毒COVID-19
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    听力材料
    I.听力测试(30分)
    A) 听录音, 从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子读一遍。
    1. Turn n the bender.
    2. There will be less pllutin.
    3. Tina is taller than Tm.
    4. He likes talk shws very much.
    5. Can yu help with the husewrk?
    B) 在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
    6. M. I want t learn t play sccer, but I find it t difficult.
    W. Dn’t wrry. I can help yu.
    7. M. What d yu think f exercise?
    W. It’s imprtant. I exercise everyday.
    8. M. Let’s g t visit grandama tmrrw.
    W. She will be very happy.
    9. M. New Year is cming, did yu make any reslutin?
    W. Yes. I will imprve my health.
    10. M. What d we need t make tmat and egg sup?
    W. We need sme eggs and tmates.
    C) 在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话读两遍。(听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间)
    M: Hi, Sally! What are yu ding?
    W: Hi, Dave! I'm shpping with Mlly. D yu knw
    next Friday is Betty's birthday?
    M: Really? We were brn n the same day.
    W: Hey! Yu mean next Friday is yur birthday, t?
    M: Yes.
    W: Happy birthday t yu.
    M: Thank yu. Can yu cme t my party next
    Friday?
    W: When is it?
    M: It's at seven 'clck. I’ll wait fr yu at my huse.
    W: Oh, I'm srry I can't. Betty invited me befre yu. But I'd lve t cme t yur party, t. Why dn't yu and Betty have a big party tgether?
    M: That's a gd idea. I'll discuss it with Betty later.
    D) 在录音中, 你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。(听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间)
    Li Lng is a Chinese by. He's furteen nw. He has a big family. There are five peple in his family. They all like watching TV very much. His fur-year-ld brther likes watching cartns and he always watches them frm five t six in the afternn. He thinks they're interesting. But his sister thinks they're meaningless. She likes watching game shws and she usually watches them frm six t seven. She says they re educatinal. His parents think they're t nisy. They like t watch CCTV news frm seven t seven thirty. They can knw what's ging n arund the wrld frm it. Li Lng ften watches talk shws fr an hur. After dinner, the whle family watch sap peras tgether. They say sap peras are enjyable.
    参考答案
    I.听力测试(30分)
    1.BCACB 6.ACCAB 11. CBBCC 16. BAABB
    II.选择填空(15分)
    21. ABADB 26. ACCBB 31. DBBAA
    III.完形填空(15分)
    36. CBACB 41. DCABA 46. BDABA
    IV.补全对话(5分)
    51. CDACB
    V.阅读理解(40分)
    56. BCABD 61. CDABC 66. ABCBD 71. DBADC
    VI.选词填空(10分)
    76. films 77. best 78. such 79. still 80. happy
    81. des 82. gt 83. becme 84. will have 85. reached
    VII.阅读理解七选五(5分)
    FACEB
    VIII.书面表达(30分)
    A.
    They are dancing. (They are having swing dance class.)
    Sam has lnger hair (than Tm).
    She’s ging t be a pilt (when she grws up).
    They gt t the park by bike. (They rde bikes t the park.)
    They will have turkey (fr Thanksgiving Day).

    still films best happy such
    reach have becme d get
    A. I want t help my neighbrs have gd habits.
    B. Hwever, she plans t keep ding this jb until all her neighbrs srt crrectly.
    C. I think yu shuld put them int the dustbin marked “ kitchen waste”.
    D. Peple dn’t think it necessary t srt the rubbish.
    E. She says peple usually g dwnstairs and thrw ut rubbish at this time.
    F. There she checks(检查) the rubbish left by her neighbrs t make sure it is srted crrectly.
    G. I have t srt the rubbish myself.

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