广东省广州市花都区2021-2022学年七年级上学期期末英语试题（word版 含答案）

广东省广州市花都区

2021-2022学年七年级上学期期末英语试题

本试卷共四大题, 10页, 满分90分;考试时间100分钟。

注意事项∶

1. 答卷前, 考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔成签字笔填写镇（街）、学校、试室号、姓名、座位号及准考证号, 并用 2B 铅笔填涂准考证号。

2. 选择题每小题选出答案后, 用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需要改动, 用橡皮擦干净后, 再选涂其他答案。不能答在试卷上。

3. 非选择题必须用黑色宇迹的钢笔或签字笔作答, 答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域的相应位置上;如需要改动, 先划掉原来的答案, 然后再写上新的答案, 改动的答案也不能超出指定的区域;不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。

4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁, 考试结束将问卷和答题卡一并交回。

一、语言知识及运用（共两节, 满分 15分）

第一节 语音（共 5 小题;每小题 1分, 满分 5分）

找出下列单词中划线部分的发音与其他不同的单词。

1. A. teacher   B. sea    C. break    D. meat

2. A. diary   B. ride    C. like    D. live

3. A. reports   B. lands    C. books    D. maps

4. A. centre   B. country   C. catch    D. close

5. A. flat    B. many    C. fact    D. can

第二节 语法选择（共 10小题;每小题 1分, 满分 10分）

阅读下面短文, 按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求, 从 6-15 小题所给的 A、B、C 和 D项中选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

Late at night, a sudden sound woke me up. I went out of the house. Then l saw a very 6 light going towards the woods nearby. It was a huge spaceship.

I ran over, touched it and then passed out. 7 I woke up. I found myself in a cage（笼子）. There 8 other cages with people inside. I looked around and saw through a window near me. I saw space!

"9 did I come here?" I asked myself. Then a strange animal stopped in front of 10 cage and said something different. I thought it must be an alien（外星人）. Suddenly, the spaceship started 1l.

A different kind of alien came and broke my cage. It took me to the gate of the falling spaceship. Then it gave me 12 locket（项链）and said in English, "If you don't wear this and jump. you 13 "I was not sure if I should believe its words, l4 I still put the locket around my neck. Then the alien pushed me out. When I woke up again, I found myself lying 15 the woods. After some time, I thought about the locket. It was sill around my neck!

6. A. brighter   B. brightly   C. bright   D. more brightly

7. A. While   B. Before    C. if    D. When

S. A. was    B. are    C. is    D. were

9. A. How   B. What    C. Where   D. Which

10. A. me    B. my    C. mine   D. I

11. A. fall    B. fell    C. to fell   D. falls

12. A. a    B. an    C. the   D.

13. A. die    B. dies    C. died   D. will die

14.A. and    B. but    C. so   D. or

15. A. in    B. at     C. to    D. on

二、完形填空（共 10 小题;每小题 1分, 满分 10分）

阅读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 从 16-25 各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D项中选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

There was a clever man. He had four sons. One day, he asked each of his sons to see a pear tree during different 16.

The first son stared in the winter, the second in the spring, the third in the summer, and the 17 in the autumn.

He called them together to talk about what they had seen when the last son 18 home.

The first son said the tree was stark（光秃秃的）and 19. The second son said the tree was covered with small green buds and was full of 20. The third son said it was full of flowers. They 21 sweet and looked beautiful. The last son didn't agree. He said the tree was hung（挂着）with 22 and full of life.

The man told them that they were all 23, but each of them only saw the tree during one season. He told his sons not lo judge（评判）things too 24.

If you give up during the coldness of winter, you will 25 the hope of spring, the beauty of summer and the harvest of autumn in your life.

16. A. days   B. months   C. seasons  D. years

17. A. smallest   B. youngest   C. smartest  D. strongest

18. A. stayed   B. returned   C. changed  D. walked

19. A. ugly   B. dirty    C. sick   D. tall

20. A. luck   B. love    C. magic   D. hope

21. A. smelt   B. tasted    C. sounded  D. felt

22. A. lights   B. apples    C. pears   D. bells

23. A. clever   B. right    C. active   D. kind

24. A. strongly   B. loudly    C. quickly  D. clearly

25. A. meet   B. give    C. miss   D. follow

三、阅读（共两节, 满分 35分）

第一节 阅读理解（共 15 小题;每小题 2分, 满分 30分）

阅读下面短文或图表内容, 从 26-40各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D选项中选出最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该选项涂黑。

(A)

Nina. Jody, and Matt tried out the game they had been working on all week. When Jody hit "Start", they saw that something was very wrong. Jody then tried a few times, but nothing happened. "We don't have time to make a whole new game. " said Jody. "The end of the Coding Camp is just two days away!"

The only things left were Nina's computer drawings一a toaster, a toy unicorn, and a few houseplants. "How can we make a game by using them?" Nina wondered. After asking for advice, they had great ideas. Over the next few hours, they worked on a new idea for their game.

"What about an arcade game?" said Nina.

"We'll need a hero. Maybe we can use the unicorn!?" said Jody.

"Yeah! The unicorn can fight her way to her forest home, "exclaimed Matt. "The unicorn will need an enemy. How about the houseplants?" asked Nina. "Well if the houseplants are attacking the unicorn, she can spear them with her horn,  "said Jody. "If the unicorn gets in trouble, the toaster can come in and burn up all the plants, "she added. They agreed and began to work.

After hard work, they finished the game on time.

On the last day, they showed their game to the whole group in the big hall. As the unicorn fought through the rooms, the houseplants got bigger. Just when things looked scariest for th unicorn, Jody called up the toaster to save the day. Everyone clapped and cheered.

"I can't wait to come back next year!" said Nina. They smiled at each other.

26. What was the most difficult for Nina, Jody and Matt?

A. They didn't have time to join in the game.

B. They had to make another game in two days.

C. All of their computers didn't work any longer.

D. They must make a whole new computer game.

27. Which mind-map is the new idea for their game?

28. Which word can best describe their feeling in the end?

A. Nervous.    B. Tired.    C. Amazed.    D. Excited.

29. What lesson can we learn from the story?

A. Practice makes perfect.     B. It is never too old to learn.

C. Think carefully before you act.   D. There are more ways than problems.

(B)

We spend about one-third of our lives sleeping. Most babies and children sleep not just one-third but close to one-half of each day. So if you're six, you might have spent three years of your life sleeping!

Why do we spend so much time sleeping? That's because you won't be able to learn and remember new things well without enough sleep.

The rest of your body won't work well either. Our bodies provide us with growth hormones（激素）while we are sleeping. They make us grow. That's why children need more sleep than adults. But even when we've stopped growing taller, these hormones help us keep growing strong muscles, bones, skin and more.

How much sleep do you need? That depends on how old you arc. The Sleep Foundation says that teenagers need 8. 5 to 9 hours a day.

_______________________________

●Having good sleep habits is important. Stop using digital devices（电子设备）for at least an hour before sleep.

●Try to go to sleep and wake up at the same time every day, even on weekends and during holidays.

●Relax before bed each night by listening to soft music.

30. From Paragraph 1, we can learn that ______________________.

A. most children can fall sleep easily

B. babies sleep for about 12 hours a day

C. we must spend 1/2 of our lives sleeping

D. younger students have more time to sleep

31. What will happen to your body if you don't have enough sleep?

A. Your brain can't learn well, and you will stop growing.

B. Your brain won't work well, but the rest will be OK.

C. Either your brain or the rest will sill work well.

D. Neither your brain nor the rest will work well.

32. What does the underlined word "They" in Paragraph3 refer to?

A. Growth hormones.      B. Our bodies.  

C. Our muscles.       D. Our bones.

33. Which is the best to fill in the blank?

A. What's the best time for bed?

B. How can we relax before bed?

C. How can we sleep well?

D. When should we wake up?

(C)

Straws（吸管）are widely used in our daily life. Paper straws came first. By the 1960s. plastic straws became common. Now, Americans throw away 500 million plastic straws every day. This pollutes the world's oceans. In fact, there are many other kinds of straws for people to choose. Paper straws are becoming popular again. A new kind of plastic is made from plants. We use it to make straws. Such plant-based plastic straws are also a good choice. Companies are also selling reusable straws. They arc made of glass or metal When people go to a restaurant, they can carry these straws with them to use. There are even edible（可食用的）straws. They are made from bamboo and papaya leaves, but their costs arc high.

To deal with the problem of using plastic straws, many restaurants and stores have decided not to use them. Since 2020, Starbucks has stopped using plastic straws. McDonald has also said that it will ban plastic straws at its restaurants in the United Kingdom and Ireland.

The next time you're buying something to drink, choose a better straw.

34. Which kind of straws is bad for the nature according to the passage?

A. Plastic straws.        B. Bamboo straws.

C. Paper straws.        D. Plant-based plastic straws.

35. The underlined word "ban" in Paragraph 3 means____________________.

A. help buying   B. stop using   C. finish making  D. start cleaning

36. The writer writes this passage to __________________.

A. show us some problems of using plastic straws

B. introduce many different kinds of straws to us

C. tell us how to choose better drinks and straws

D. call on us to use straws friendly to the Earth

(D)

Our winter camp program is for students I0 to l6 years of age. There are many fun activities. The camp is to enrich students' lives during their winter holidays and helps then to learn more. For more information. please visit our website: www greenpineschool. com.

        How to apply

A parent should complete the application form（申请表）on our website carefully. We'll call the parent if the child is able to join us. So. please make sure that the parent's phone number is provided on the application form.

**Apply before January I. 2022, to save 10% off your winter camp experience!

        The environment

Campers are provided with a safe environment. We have a gym, a science lab, a computer lab and a library. We also have four playgrounds, a football field and a swimming pool.

        What to bring

●Lunch and snacks

●Camera

●Hat

        Expectations for behavior

At the Green Pine School, children should be friendly to each other and their teachers. Students should not leave their camps without the agreement of the teacher.

The 2022 programs

● Camp A/C: ￥400 a day

● Camp B/ D:￥300 a day

37. This article is probably from____________________.

A. a storybook   B. a magazine   C. an interview  D. travel guide

38. Which of the following is NOT true?

A. Parent should write the phone number on the application form.

B. If the teacher doesn't agree, students must stay in the camps.

C. The winter camp will make students' holidays colourful.

D. Students don't need to bring their lunch to the camps.

39. How much can Jack save if he applies for Camp A before January 1, 2022?

A. ￥80.    B. ￥800.    C. ￥200.    D. ￥2000

40. Linda is 16. She likes sports. Which camp will she be most likely to join?

A. Camp A.    B. Camp B.    C. Camp C.    D. Camp D.

第二节 阅读填空（共 5 小题;每小题 1分, 满分5分）

阅读短文内容及文后 A-E 选项, 选出可以填入 41-45 空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该选项涂照。

William Shakespeare once said "Home-keeping youth have ever homely wits. "That means if young people never leave where they grew up, they will have a narrow （狭窄的）world view. 41. ______________

Travelling helps us learn and feel a lot in the nature. From books, we have all read about the grand Himalayas, the great oceans and the beautiful Taj Mahal. 42__________. That's why more and more schools have started making tours into their study plans. 43. __________When we travel, we get to visit different places, learn about different cultures and understand different ways of living. 44. _________

In a word. by travelling, one can not only enjoy sightseeing, but also learn things that one cannot learn in the classroom. 45. ______________

四、写作（共三节, 满分 30分）

第一节 语篇填词（共 5 小题;每小题1分, 满分 5分）

阅读短文, 根据上下文和所给出的首字母在46-50空格中写出所缺单词。注意使用正确形式∶在填写答卷时, 要求写出完整单词。（（每空限填一词）

Amy was born in a small family in 1992 in Guangdong. At an early age, her favourite 46. h__________ was drawing. She wanted to be a great painter in the future. After Amy 47. a___________ junior high school, she joined the school Cartoon Club. She became more and more 48. i____________ in drawing cartoons. She turned funny and touching stories into drawings. Slowly, she became famous at school. In 2014, Amy ran her own company. At first, there were only a 49. f_________ people in her company. Now, there are more than thirty. For the young artist, her great 50. d____________ just begins.

第二节 完成句子（共 5 小题;每小题 2分, 满分 10 分）

根据所给的汉语内容, 用英语完成下列句子。（每空限填一词）

51. 如果妈妈明天有空, 我们就去野餐。

_________ my mom is free tomorrow, we will ___________ ___________ ____________.

52. 对我们来说, 学习不同的肢体语言是很有用的。

___________ ___________ for us to ___________ __________ different body languages.

53. 你多久去一次游泳?

___________ ____________ do you _____________ ________________?

54. John 想和来自世界各地的人交朋友。

John would like to ___________ ___________ ___________ people from all over the world.

55. 我们应该经常洗手, 以远离病毒。

We should often wash our hands ___________ ___________ we can stay away from virus.

第三节 书面表达（共1小题, 满分 15 分）

假如你是李华, 你的英语老师为了让同学们过一个充实而有意义的寒假, 让大家列一个"寒假必做清单"在英语课上展示并讲解。请你根据以下提示准备发言稿。

发言要求包含以下要点∶

1. 分享三项或以上计划做的事情（前两项已给出）。

2. 有适当拓展, 例如, 陈述所做事情的原因、目的或意义等。

注意∶

1. 词数∶不少于60词（文章的开头已给出, 不计入词数）。

2. 不得透露学校、姓名等任何个人信息, 否则不予评分。

The winter holiday is coming! I am going to make my holiday full and meaningful. Here is my plan.

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参考答案

一、语言知识及运用(两节共15分)

第一节语音(5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分)

1-5:CDBAB

第二节语法选择(10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分)

6-10:CDDAB     11-15:CADBA

二、完形填空(10小题, 每小题1分, 共10分)

16-20:CBBAD    21-25:ACBCC

三、阅读理解(两节共35分)

第一节阅读理解(15小题, 每小题2分, 共30分)

26-29:BADD     30-33:BDAC     34-36:ABD     37-40:BDCC

第二节阅读填空(5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分)

41-45:BECDA

四、写作(三节共30分)

第一节 语篇填词(5小题, 每小题1分, 共5分)

46. hobby   47. attended   48. interested    49. few   50. dream

第二节 完成句子(5小题, 每小题2分, 共10分)

51. If. have/ take a picnic

52. It's useful/ helpful, learn about

53. How often, go swimming

54. make friends with

55. so that

第三节 书面表达（略）