2022届浙江省高三上学期11月联考英语试卷含答案
展开英语试题卷
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1.What will the man d after class?
A. D the math exercise.
B. Prepare the math reprt.
C. G t the shpping mall.
2.What's the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
A. Bss and secretary.
B. Clleagues.
C. Friends.
3.What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A. The ppulatin.
B. The man's experience.
C. The capital city.
4.Where is the man ging?
A. China.
B. America.
C. Russia.
5.Why is the wman wrried?
A. Alexia takes n interest in schl.
B. Alexia dislikes ding assignments.
C. Alexia spends t much time studying.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6.Where des the cnversatin take place?
A. At the receptin desk.
B. At a travel agency.
C. At the ticket ffice.
7.Hw much will the man pay?
B. 95 yuan.
C. 175 yuan.
A. 80 yuan.
听第7段材料,回答第8至10题。
8.What des the man think f the supermarket?
A. It is shrt f sme necessities.
B. It's hard t find a parking space.
C. It ffers mre gds than grcery.
9.Hw will they get t the destinatin?
B. By car.
C. By undergrund.
A. By bus.
10.What present will the man prepare fr Sara's birthday?
A. A nice ty.
B. A hmemade cake.
C. A beautiful dress.
听第8段材料,回答第11至13题。
11. What drink will the wman chse?
A. A glass f wine.
B. A cup f tea.
C. A cup f cffee.
12. Which main curse will the wman's husband have?
A. A chclate cake.
B. The New Yrk strip steak.
C. The fish with black bean sauce.
13.What will the man d next?
A. Serve the drinks rdered.
B. Recmmend mre drinks.
C. Check the dishes rdered.
听第9段材料,回答第14至16题。
14.What is the wman?
A. A shp assistant.
B. A student.
C. A librarian.
15.Where are the bks the man has interest in?
A. On the 2nd flr.
B. On the 6th flr.
C. On the 3rd flr.
16. Hw lng can magazines be kept?
A. Only ne mnth.
B. Abut tw mnths.
C. Nearly fur mnths.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17.What's the purpse f this annuncement?
A. T state sme changes and rules f a visit.
B. T reprt students visiting a lcal museum.
C. T explain the necessity t visit a lcal museum.
18.When will they visit the lcal museum?
A. On Mnday.
B. On Saturday.
C. On Sunday.
19.Why des the man suggest wearing cmfrtable shes?
A. The museum is big t visit.
B. They have t walk t the museum.
C. They will have a lng walk after the visit.
20. What is banned in the museum?
A. Taking ntes in the museum.
B. Tuching things in the museum.
C. Taking pictures in frnt f the museum.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分35分)
第一节(共10小题;每小题2.5分,满分25分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
Fatima has been the nly wman wrking as a tur guide in Afghanistan. She grew up in rural Ghr Prvince, where there was n schling available t girls, but she cnvinced her family t let her take lessns. When Fatima was nine,her family settled in Herat and she was able t get sme infrmal educatin. She practiced her English by listening t BBC radi, which she culd pick up when high enugh in the hills.
“My brthers and sisters were frced t get married. I decided that I wuld nt cntinue in their traditin. That was why I decided t wrk,” Fatima says. She signed up fr Facebk and began jining grups fr peple interested in histry. Tired f peple wh nly knew Afghanistan as a place f war and cnflict, she started writing regular psts abut places in her cuntry. Then she started getting cmments and respnses frm her new nline friends.
In 2020, ne f them - a man knwn as “Big Tm” - invited her t be his guide during his traveling in Herat. After that, Fatima cntinued t get wrk by wrd f muth. Eventually she came t the attentin f Untamed Brders, a travel agency that specializes in trips t mre inaccessible areas. It hired her, making her the cuntry's first female prfessinal tur guide.
Of curse, being a pineer is never easy. Fatima says many peple in her life have tld her that it's t dangerus fr a wman t wrk, especially if it means interacting with men ne-n-ne.
Fatima says that the supprt f her emplyers and the peple she has met thrugh giving turs is what keeps her mtivated. There's als the implicatin f what culd happen if she des quit: “Challenges are always a part f my life. If I give up, then ther wmen will never start.”
21.Why did Fatima want t wrk?
A. T practice her English.
B. T help t supprt the family.
C. T help girls wh had n access t schling.
D. T live a different life frm her brthers and sisters'.
22.What d we knw abut Fatima becming a tur guide?
A. She made it by recmmending herself t a travel agency.
B. She replied t cmments and was inspired by nline friends.
C. She first wrte psts abut places in Afghanistan and then gt hired.
D. She signed up fr Facebk and began jining the grups fr tur guides.
23. What des Fatima's career stry tell us?
A. He wh laughs last, laughs lngest.
B. Yu can't judge a bk by its cver.
C. A gd beginning makes a gd ending.
D. Nthing is impssible t a willing heart.
B
Just as China sets the wrld pace in e-cmmerce, it's ding the same fr live streaming. Mre than 100 millin viewers watch a live nline vide event every mnth. The live streaming frmat typically invlves a famus persn shwing a prduct and answering questins frm a digital audience. It takes place in real-time and usually n a smartphne, accunting fr sme 95% f e-cmmerce activity in China.
China is filled with live streaming webcasts, much f it nn-cmmercial, such as yung peple discussing their lives, shwing dance mves, etc. But live streaming has als becme ne f the mst cst-effective tls fr e-cmmerce in China.
Why are cnsumers and brands bth welcming this medium?
First, there's a functinal advantage t live streaming. It allws experts t shw the prduct being used, t shw varius techniques, and t pint ut the results. The audience can ask questins in annymity (匿名),but the experience is interactive and immersive (沉浸式的).
Cnsumers feel that they are actually handling the prduct themselves. Instead f picking a prduct ff a shelf, they are nw part f the prcess, shaping the utcme frm the cnvenience f the living rm sfa. The best live streaming allws rm fr a jke, r even a small mistake. After all, this is hw friends talk with ne anther. As cnsumers grw in experience and taste, they wuld rather participate in a chat. Live streaming invites the brand int the hme in much the same way yu wuld invite a friend.
Cnsumers ften feel a sense f empwerment (授权). The brand must be respnsive t viewers in real time because cnsumers have the pwer t hld them respnsible fr their prducts thrugh questins.
Live streaming can als be particularly useful fr new-t-market brands wh d nt have the ability t create a buzz. Live streaming prvides assurance the prduct is used, accepted and smetimes lved.
24.What can we learn abut live streaming frm paragraph 1?
A. It helps China set the wrld pace in e-cmmerce.
B. It takes up abut 95% f e-cmmerce activity in China.
C. It is an nline vide prgram which gives advice n shpping.
D. It invites famus peple t sell prducts with the help f a digital audience.
25. Which f the fllwing is a reasn fr live streaming's ppularity?
A. It allws real-time interactin between custmers and the brand.
B. It makes sure that new-t-market brands becme best selling gds.
C. It empwers custmers t decide wh t take respnsibility fr prducts.
D. It ffers chances fr custmers t pick prducts ff shelves by themselves.
26.The underlined phrase “create a buzz” in the last paragraph can be replaced by “_”
A. prmte sales
B. cause prblems
C. prvide pprtunities
D. increase prductin
27.What can be a suitable title fr the text?
A. The Develpment f China's Live Streaming Industry
B. Steps t Help Yu Understand Live Streaming Industry
C. China's Live Streaming is Bming--Here's Hw It Wrks
D. Want t Experience a New Way f Living? Jin in Live Streaming
C
A sng plays in a crwded supermarket. T sme peple, this is just backgrund music. But thers can take ut their smartphnes and discver that implanted in the music is infrmatin, maybe a Wi-Fi passwrd r a website URL. The scene is the visin put frward by Simn Tanner frm the Swiss Federal Institute f Technlgy.
“The whle idea is basically that we can send data lcally withut any setup,” Tanner explained, “We dn't have t type any passwrds r pair devices r anything like that. We just have speakers that can bradcast data alng with a sng and anyne in range culd access it.” He als discvered nt all music is created equal when it cmes t data. It's easier t hide it n sngs with mre distracting lud ntes.
If data wasn't hidden and was just put int a sng, it might sund like randm static (静电噪声) r a series f unpleasant sunds. But Tanner's prgram lks at very small parts f the sng,and analyzes which tnes are mst dminant (支配的). Then data is added t the dminant tnes. Because the data is nw masked in the dminant tnes, the sng desn't sund different t the human ear, but it des t a micrphne.
Nw, the data is transferred in abut 200 bits(比特,存储单位) per secnd,which culd be the length f a Wi-Fi passwrd, r a shrt message. As the research cntinues t mature, the amunt f data that can be stuffed int a sng will likely expand t 1120 bits, which is the length f a standard text message.
But this will never be a system fr mass data sending. Fr ne thing, the mre data yu put int a sng, the mre nticeable it cmes and the mre difficult it is t hide. Fr anther,this system f placing data in music isn't quicker than current nes. And it isn't the mst secure system. Anyne in the rm culd receive the data with the app.
28. The purpse f the first paragraph is t
A. summarize the whle passage
B. intrduce the tpic
C. ffer backgrund infrmatin
D. shw a scene in the future
29.What can we learn abut sending data thrugh music?
A. Data culd be sent in a brad range withut any setup.
B. Mass data sending is impssible nly due t its insecurity.
C. Data are hidden in a way that is unnticeable t the human ear.
D. Data that can be sent nw are f the length f a standard text message.
30. What is the last paragraph mainly abut?
A. The future f data sending thrugh music.
B. The barriers t mass data sending thrugh music.
C. The reasns fr prmting the data-sending methd.
D. The suggestins fr applying the data-sending methd.
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The quality f ur decisins tday will determine the quality f ur life tmrrw. Hwever, even smart peple make stupid decisins.
31 But by far, the mst pwerful is “cnfirmatin bias (认知偏差)” which refers t ur tendency t lk fr and favr evidence that cnfirms ur pre-existing beliefs and at the same time ignres r devalues infrmatin that cntradicts ur beliefs. Then, hw can we best fight against cnfirmatin biases and avid making bad decisins? 32
Step 1: Practice self-awareness.
Self-awareness is a prcess f discvery, f explring yur inner knwing. Becming mre self-aware can help yu understand yur wants, needs, and desires as well as yur strengths and weaknesses. Studies have shwn that self-awareness exercises that encurage yu t slw dwn and relax culd als help yu t imprve yur creativity and decisin-making. 33 Sme cmmn techniques like jurnaling and bserving thers are simple and pwerful.
Step 2: 34
It takes curage t admit yu're wrng after the fact. It takes even mre curage t disprve and challenge yur wn assumptins befre the decisin. Next time yu're faced with a prblem r challenge, try nt t make unreasnable decisin based simply n yur persnal beliefs and emtins. 35 This will prepare yu t make a well-runded gd decisin.
Next time yu feel abslutely certain abut a decisin, remember that yu may be wrng. Stay pen-minded t the pssibility that there is a lt mre infrmatin that yu dn't knw yet. After all, peple may easily fall int victims f cnfirmatin biases.
A. Prve yurself wrng.
B. Have curage t face challenges.
C. Here are different methds t make wise decisins.
D. Tw simple steps can help yu avid making bad decisins.
E. There are several mental errrs that may affect decisin-making.
F. Instead, seek ut all pssible ideas that may cntradict yur current beliefs.
G. There are many exercises and activities yu can d t develp yur self-awareness.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
It all started when I learned t read, r rather, befre I learned t read.
I was tw years ld, and my grandma believed it was as gd a 36 as any t absrb me in Russian petry. And my first 37 sentences were recitatin f Russia Pet Pushkin's U Lukmrya Dub Zeleniy (《海湾旁有棵绿色的橡树》). She read it t me s many times that I had it 38.
Thrughut my childhd, I'd always had a lt f. 39 abut wh I wuld becme when I was lder. I'd be an inventr, a dctr... But they 40 in middle schl. I spent a few years wandering 41 thrugh life, having n idea what I was 42 abut.
Then I met Mrs Apryl, the type f persn that 43 everyne the secnd they walked in a rm. S I didn't just want t get a gd grade in her class fr my wn 44, but I als wanted t make her 45 . Mnths went by, and I wrked harder. I wrte in class and 46
essays at hme n tp f that. And each time, I'd bring it t her fr47. “Vernica,” Mrs Apryl pulled me aside and 48 n the last day f schl, “I tld the 49 f the schl newspaper yu shuld write fr them.”
And that was that. I 50 in September with a brand new mentality (心态). Nt purpseless any mre-I had a 51: t be a jurnalist. Ding well at the schl newspaper was the first 52 t get there.
Nw, I'm 53 fr newspapers all arund the wrld. It's still the bttm rung(脚蹬横木) f the ladder, and I've gt miles left t 54 ,but at least I've 55 smewhere.
36.A. timeB. chanceC. reasnD. trend
37.A. cnsistentB. cmpleteC. flexibleD. fashinable
38.A. writtenB. reviewedC. memrizedD. recgnized
39.A. impressinsB. decisinsC. requirementsD. ideas
40.A. std utB. ran utC. came utD. wrked ut
41.A. aimlesslyB. pennilessC. carelesslyD. hpelessly
42.A. particularB. anxiusC. enthusiasticD. guilty
43.A. greetedB. invitedC. encuragedD. attracted
44.A. benefitB. cnvenienceC. safetyD. use
45.A. prudB. cnfidentC. cncernedD. amused
46.A. publishedB. markedC. practicedD. submitted
47.A. supprtB. adviceC. recmmendatinD. admiratin
48.A. cmmentedB. saidC. teasedD. cntinued
49.A. reprtersB. designersC. editrsD. readers
50.A. came arundB. came dwnC. came frwardD. came back
51.A. jbB. taskC. scheduleD. gal
52.A. stepB. wayC. chiceD. rule
53.A. applyingB. writingC. advertisingD. cllecting
54.A. runB. buildC. climbD. catch
55.A. frgtten itB. meant itC. gt itD. made it
第II卷 非选择题部分
注意:将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分45分)
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
By 2050, humans may need t clear an additinal 3.35 millin square kilmeters f land fr agriculture, 56 wuld squeeze mre than 17,000 animal species frm sme f their lands.
Luckily, the impacts can be minimized, says cnservatin scientist David Williams f the University f Leeds. “We can feed the planet 57 messing it up t badly.”
T figure ut 58, Williams and clleagues first identified habitats mst likely 59 (clear) fr crpland. The team then calculated 60 amunt f fd needed t sustain (维持) prjected human ppulatin grwth fr 152 cuntries and 61(map)where crps wuld likely be grwn in each. By 2050, the wrld's crpland wuld need t increase by 26 percent, the team fund. The grwth is 62 (large) cncentrated in sub-Saharan Africa, Suth and Sutheast Asia.
Changing the glbal fd system culd nearly erase these bidiversity. 63 (lss). We can imprve crp yields, transitin t mre plant-based diets, r increase fd imprts fr cuntries where agricultural 64 (expand) threatens the mst species. The wrld needs t feed a 65(grw) ppulatin, but it can be dne mre sustainably.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
假定你是李华,校英语社社长。你社打算吸纳更多社员,请你写一份纳新启事,内容包括:
1.介绍社团活动;2.鼓励大家入社;3.告知报名时间、方式。
注意:
1.词数80左右;2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
第二节 读后续写(满分25分)
阅读下面短文,根据所给情节进行续写,使之构成一个完整的故事。
At dawn, Taylr pened her sleepy eyes and lked ut f the windw at the fggy field belw. “NO!” she cried, nw fully awake. Buttermilk the cw was in Mama's daisy patch (雏菊地).
I must have frgtten t lck the gate last night, Taylr thught as she pulled a sweater ver her head. Mama was planning t sell daisy buquets (花束) at the fair next week, but Buttermilk was eating the flwers.
Taylr hurried utside and grabbed the lead rpe n the wall. “Why can't yu stay in the field?” she called t Buttermilk as she headed acrss the yard t the daisy patch.
Buttermilk still std there chewing flwers. Annyed, Taylr thught t herself, “When I grew up, I'll be an artist and paint pictures all day. I'll never wn a cw. T much truble.”
Just as Taylr was abut t thrw the lead rpe nt Buttermilk's cllar, the family dg, Red, runded the crner f the huse. Startled, Buttermilk tk ff, tearing thrugh the daisies and acrss the yard. She finally ran thrugh the pen gate and int the field.
“Thank gdness!” Taylr said as she clsed the gate and secured the lck.
She turned t lk at the flwer garden, where mst f the daisies were either eaten r trampled (踩踏).
Mama came ut f the huse. “What's ging n?” she asked. She lked sadly at her garden.
“I frgt t lck the gate,” Taylr said. “I'm s srry.”
“I knw yu are.” Mama sighed and gave Taylr a hug. “Yu learned an imprtant lessn tday.”
Taylr's heart was heavy as she went back int the huse. She had t think f a way t make it up t her mther.
注意:1.所续写短文的词数应为150左右;
2.至少使用5个短文中标有下划线的关键词语;
3.续写部分分为两段,每段的开头语已为你写好;
4.续写完成后,请用下划线标出你所使用的关键词语。
Paragraph 1:
Suddenly, a painting n the wall caught Taylr's eye.
Paragraph 2:
The mrning f the fair, Taylr came dwnstairs t invite Mama t see the surprise.
英语参考答案
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
1-5: BAACB 6-10: CCBCB 11-15: CBACC 16-20: AABAB
第二部分 阅读理解
21-23: DCD 24-27: BAAC 28-30: BCB 31-35: EDGAF
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完型填空
36-40: ABCDB 41-45: ACDAA46-50: CBBCD51-55: DABCD
第二节 语法填空
56. which 57. withut 58. hw 59. t be cleared 60. the
61. mapped 62. largely 63. lsses 64. expansin 65. grwing
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节:应用文写作(满分15分)
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分,按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的,从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
三、该题具体要求
(一)内容要点
1. 介绍社团活动;
2. 鼓励大家入社;
3. 明确报名事宜。
(二)应用词汇和语法结构的情况
1. 按语义表达的需要恰当选择与使用相应时态;
2. 使用与主题相关的词汇及表达;
3. 能够使用恰当的语法结构。
(三)上下文的连贯性
按照内容要点展开写作,使用恰当的连接词或表达使文章内容连贯。
Pssible versin
English Club Members Wanted
Scp! The English Club is recruiting new members!
As an club enjying lasting ppularity, we ffer varius appealing activities. Want t exchange ideas in learning English? Cme t ur regular mvies, lectures and English crners, chatting and prgressing with peple f similar interest. Here, yu’ll als be expsed t thrilling events frm impressive speech cntests t breath-taking theatrical perfrmances, which help yu explre the charm f English language and culture.
T have fun and mre than fun, never hesitate t sign up n the Schl Web befre Friday.
English Club
第二节:读后续写(满分25分)
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时,先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求衡量、确定或调整档次,最后给分。
3. 词数少于130的,从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
(2)内容的丰富性和对所标出关键词语的应用情况;
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
One pssible versin:
Paragraph 1:
Suddenly, a painting n the wall caught Taylr’s eye. “That’s it,” she exclaimed, her eyes twinkling with excitement. Taylr raced upstairs, grabbed her art supplies and gt ready t paint. She sat dwn at her desk, lking ut the windw at the remaining daisies belw. As her brush mved smthly acrss the papers, daisies came alive. At the thught that this ideal way may wrk, Taylr’s face lit up with pleasure. During the days befre the fair, Taylr made ne painting after anther, hping t give Mama a big surprise which culd make up fr her mistake.
Paragraph 2:
The mrning f the fair, Taylr came dwnstairs t invite Mama t see the surprise. Hardly had Mama pened the dr when she was entirely surprised at the scene, utterly in disbelief at what she was seeing. Daisy paintings were everywhere, bright and cheerful in the mrning light. “D yu think anyne will buy them?” Taylr asked. Strking her hair affectinately, Mama wrapped her in a hug and ndded, “Oh, sweetie, yes. I’m sure they will.” After lading the daisy buquets and paintings int the van, they headed fr the fair. N matter hw much mney the paintings valued, Taylr’s warm heart and cmmitment were invaluable.
附:听力参考材料
Text 1
W: It’s almst time fr us t end ur class, David. Let’s g t the shpping mall.
M: I’ve nthing in my mind t buy. I prefer ding my math reprt in the library.
Text 2
W: Lgan, I need t set up a meeting with Nathan Williams.
M: Sure. When fr?
W: Culd yu check my schedule and ask Nathan fr his availability?
M: Of curse.
Text 3
W: Hw large is the ppulatin f the city where yu grew up?
M: It’s near 1 millin.
W: Huh… I remember yu were raised in the capital city. There’re nt even 1 millin peple?
M: Yeah. And the whle cuntry’s ppulatin is abut duble that f the capital city.
Text 4
M: Bless me, I’ll have a 10-hur trip, and I have t change plane in Beijing. S I wn’t get back int Mscw until Mnday mrning.
W: It’s a lng jurney. Keep in tuch. Cme and see me in New Yrk if yu can.
Text 5
M: Why are yu s wrried?
W: My sister Alexia desn’t study hard enugh.
M: Isn’t she interested in schl?
W: N. Schl interests her, but hmewrk desn’t.
Text 6(题6为推断题)
M: I want t take a train t Shanghai.
W: Regular r express train?
M: Hmm, can yu tell me hw much time I wuld save if I take the express train?
W: Abut 5 hurs.
M: ⑺And hw much d I have t pay fr the express ticket?
W: ⑺It’s 80 yuan mre than a regular ne. Oh, and I need t say a regular train ticket nly csts 95 yuan.
M: Thanks. ⑺Well, I dn’t mind paying a little extra as lng as I can arrive 5 hurs earlier. Only ne ticket, please.
Text 7
W: I’m afraid we need t g shpping tday.
M: Mst f ur necessities are available in the grcery arund the crner.
W: That’s right. But a supermarket is supplied with mre gds.
M: Well. ⑻But it’ll prbably take ages t find a parking space.
W: ⑼Hmm… Riding a bus is incnvenient and slw. Why nt take a subway? Yu knw, ur daughter’s birthday is cming sn. I als want t pick up a nice present fr her in the shpping mall.
M: Srry. I’m t busy t remember it. Hw abut buying a ty fr Sara?
W: Oh, she has t many tys. I plan t buy her a beautiful dress. Why dn’t yu rder a cake fr her?
M: ⑽Hmm, I prefer t bake a birthday cake fr her. Let’s head t the subway statin right nw.
Text 8
M: I’ll be right with yu! Srry fr the hld up. I’m Kevin, and I’ll be yur server tnight. Can I start yu ff with sme drinks?
W: ⑾Please give me a cup f cffee, and give my husband a glass f wine.
M: OK. And did yu decide n sme appetizers?
W: We’re ging t skip the appetizers tnight. It’s the first time we’ve attempted t eat here. ⑿What d yu recmmend fr a main curse?
M: We’re knwn fr ur seafd. The fish with black bean sauce is ur mst ppular dish.
W: Okay, I’ll have a try. I knw yu pride yurselves n yur seafd. ⑿But my husband isn’t in the md fr seafd.
M: ⑿Hmm… hw abut trying the New Yrk strip steak?
W: ⑿That’s kay. Oh, and a chclate cake.
M: N prblem. ⒀I’ll be right back with yur drinks.
Text 9
W: Gd mrning. What can I d fr yu?
M: Gd mrning, Miss. It’s my first visit here. I need sme bks.
W: ⒁Have yu gt a reader’s card?
M: I’m afraid nt, but I have my student ID with me.
W: That might be OK. ⒂What kind f bks are yu interested in?
M: I fancy art and music.
W: Well, let me see. Nw we are n the 2nd flr. Yu need t climb ne mre flr.
M: Thank yu. By the way, I als want t lk fr sme magazines.
W: Then yu can surf the pen shelves n the 6th flr.
M: Gd. Hw lng can I keep these bks and magazines?
W: ⒃Bks fr tw mnths, and magazines, nly fur weeks.
Text 10
M: Hell, everyne! I’m Jhn, the President f the Student Unin. ⒄Nw I have an imprtant annuncement t make. There are a few changes that have been made t the visit. S, please pay full attentin t what I’m saying next. ⒅We still have been arranged t pay a visit t the lcal museum this weekend, but it’s n Saturday. We were ntified that the museum wuldn’t pen this Sunday due t sme special reasns. And we are ging t meet in the playgrund instead f the schl gate at eight ’clck in the mrning. We will g directly there by schl bus. ⒆Owing t the very big museum, yu’d better wear cmfrtable shes fr lng walks. ⒇Mre than anything, please bring a ntebk with yu and make sme ntes. We will have a discussin abut it in the class meeting next Mnday.
Oh, I nearly frget t remind yu f the rules. ⒇Dn’t take pictures f the cultural relics. But if yu d want t take a picture as a tken f visit, ⒇yu can d that in frnt f the museum. And nbdy is allwed t tuch anything there, r else they will be fined.
Have a nice weekend!档次
描述
第五档
(13—15)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—覆盖所有内容要点。
—应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
—语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档
(10—12)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉1、2个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(7—9)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(4—6)
未适当完成试题规定的任务。
—漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
(1—3)
未完成试题规定的任务。
—明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
—语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
—较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
0
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
档次
描述
第五档
(21—25)
—与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
—内容丰富,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
—有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档
(16—20)
—与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
—内容比较丰富,应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
—比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档
(11—15)
—与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了若干有关内容,应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,可虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
—应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
第二档
(6—10)
—与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
—写出了一些有关内容,应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
—较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档
(1—5)
—与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差。
—产出内容太少,很少使用短文中标出的关键词语。
—语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。
—缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
0
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
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