2021-2022学年四川省遂宁市高二上学期期末考试英语试卷Word版+听力
展开本试卷分第Ⅰ卷(选择题)和第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)两部分。总分150分,考试时间120分钟。
第 Ⅰ 卷(选择题,满分100分)
注意事项:
1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名、班级、考号用0.5毫米的黑色墨水签字笔填写在答题卡上。并检查条形码粘贴是否正确。
2.1-60小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔填涂在答题卡对应题目标号的位置上,非选择题用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写在答题卡对应框内,超出答题区域书写的答案无效;在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效。
3.考试结束后,将答题卡收回。
第一部分:听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5 小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. What des the wman think f the mvie?
A. Hrrible. B. Interesting. C. Bring.
2. Where des the man cme frm?
A. America. B. France. C. Australia.
3. What sprt des the wman like?
A. Skating. B. Skiing. C. Swimming.
4. What des the wman want the man t d?
A. Sell her car. B. Give her a lift. C. Cmplete the wrk.
5. What are the speakers talking abut?
A. Interests. B. Families. C. Studies.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第 6 和第 7 两个小题。
6. What is the man busy ding?
A. Cmfrting the wman.
B. Lking int the cause.
C. Finding the damaged bike.
7. What d we knw abut the driver?
A. He didn’t drive fast.
B. He managed t save a by.
C. He had a pr view f the rad.
听下面一段对话,回答第 8 和第 9 两个小题。
8. Where des the man want t g?
A. The library.B. The lab.C. The cafe.
9. What’s the man’s majr?
A. Psychlgy. B. Physics.C. Chemistry.
听下面一段对话,回答第 10 至第 12 三个小题。
10. Hw many peple are there in Peter’s family?
A. 3.B. 4.C. 5.
11. When d the whle family walk the dg?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday.C. On Sunday.
12. What des Peter d at hme?
A. D the laundry. B. Ck fd. C. Sweep the flr.
听下面一段对话,回答第 13 至第 16 四个小题。
13. What is the wman?
A. A secretary. B. A tur guide. C. A travel agent.
14. Hw lng will the vacatin last?
A. A week. B. Ten days. C. Tw weeks.
15. Hw much is the package tur t Australia per persn?
A. $300. B. $500. C. $1, 000.
16. Why wn’t the man g t Australia?
A. It isn’t warm enugh.
B. The cst is a bit high.
C. He wants t g smewhere farther.
听下面一段独白,回答第 17 至第 20 四个小题。
17. When is the first meeting f the Garden Club this year?
A. On Mnday.B. On Wednesday.C. On Friday.
18. What’s the aim f the Garden Club?
A. T teach students abut grwing fd.
B. T prmte healthy and rganic fd.
C. T grw fd fr the schl.
19. What will be served at the first meeting?
A. Cabbages.B. Cucumbers.C. Tmates.
20. What d we knw abut first-year students?
A. They can wrk in the schl garden.
B. They are nt allwed t jin the club.
C. They will be in charge f cmmunity garden.
第二部分:阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节 (共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Kt:I hate lng jurneys. Last winter I went t Mexic City with my
family. When we arrived at the airprt in Lndn, ur flight was delayed
because f a terrible strm. Luckily, I had my tablet
with me, s I dwnladed an ebk. We were waiting
there fr five hurs but I was reading an exciting
stry, s the time went quickly.
Jess: Last July, I went t a language schl in the UK. I made sme new
friends and when I wasn’t studying, we spent time tgether. One weekend we went t a music festival fr teenagers. It was
raining all day, but we had a lt f fun. Mst peple
were wearing bts, but I didn’t pack any, s my new
sandals gt really wet and muddy. The music was
brilliant, and I kept my dirty sandals as a suvenir!
Allis:Last summer I went n a schl trip t Edinburgh. On the first
day we went sightseeing-my favrite place was Edinburgh Castle. Hwever,
I was walking all day in uncmfrtable shes, s by
late afternn my feet were hurting. That evening
I decided t stay in the htel t rest. What were my
friends ding while I was in the htel? A tur guide
tk them n an exciting night tur f the city-by bus!
Which tip can be suitable fr Kt’s travel experience?
A. Dn’t dwnlad t many apps.
B. Make sure t check fr landmarks.
C. Fr utdrs events, g prepared fr weather.
D. It’s OK t take a gd bk with yu when yu travel.
Which wrd best describe Jess’s attitude t her weekend experience ?
A. Psitive. B. Negative. C. Critical. D. Skeptical.
The TIP “ Wear cmfrtable shes fr walking hurs.” culd match ___.
A. Kt B. Kt’s family C. Allis D. Jess
B
STAY HUNGER
STAY FOOLISH
I’m hnred t be with yu tday fr yur cmmencement. I want t tell yu three stries frm my life.
The first stry is abut cnnecting the dts. When I was at Reed Cllege, it ffered perhaps the best calligraphy instructin in the cuntry. I decided t take a calligraphy class. At that time nne f what I learned abut calligraphy seemed t have even a hpe f any practical applicatin in my life. But ten years later when we were designing the first Macintsh cmputer, it all came back t me. And we designed it all int the Mac. It was the first cmputer with beautiful typgraphy. Of curse it was impssible t cnnect them lking backwards. S yu have t trust that the dts will smehw cnnect in yur future.
My secnd stry is abut lve and lss. I was lucky-I fund what I lved t d early in life. Wz and I started Apple in my parents’ garage when I was twenty. And then at thirty, I gt fired. But smething slwly began t dawn n me-I still lve what I did. And s I decided t start ver. During the next five years, I started a cmpany named NeXT. In a remarkable turn f events, Apple bught NeXT, and I returned t Apple. I’m cnvinced that the nly thing that kept me ging was that I lved what I did. S, if yu haven’t fund what yu lve, keep lking. Dn’t settle.
My third stry is abut death. When I was 17, I read a qute that went smething like: “ If yu live each day as if it was yur last, smeday yu’ll mst certainly be right.” Abut a year ag I was diagnsed with cancer. My dctr advised me t g hme and get my affairs in rder, which is dctr’s cde fr “prepare t die”. Later it turned ut t be curable with surgery. I had the surgery and, thankfully, I am fine nw. This was the clsest I’ve been t facing death. Having lived thrugh it, I can nw say this t yu: Yur time is limited, s dn’t waste it living smene else’s life.
When I was yung, there was an amazing publicatin called the Whle Earth Catalg. On the back cver f the final issue were the wrds: “Stay hungry. Stay flish.” It was their farewell message as they signed ff. And I have always wished that fr myself. And nw, as yu graduate t begin new, I wish that fr yu. Stay hungry. Stay flish.
Thank yu all very much.
What happened t Steve Jbs when he was at Reed cllege?
A. He shared his three stries with classmates.
B. He designed the first Macintsh cmputer.
C. He tk a class abut prducing beautiful writing.
D. He made the first cmputer with beautiful typgraphy.
What did he d during the five years after he was fired by Apple?
A. He started a cmpany named NeXT.
B. He tk up his jb tgether with Wz.
C. He gave up his career as a cmputer engineer.
D. He gave a cmmence speech at Stanfrd University.
Hw was he ne year befre he made his speech?
A. He decided t start ver.
B. He was diagnsed with cancer.
C. He struggled in running the Apple.
D. He published the Whle Earth Catalg.
What des “Stay hungry. Stay flish” mean in Jb’s speech?
A. Make yur friends trust yu.
B. Frget the mistakes f the past.
C. Talk health and happiness t peple.
D. Keep struggling, keep dream-chasing!
C
What are yu ding this weekend? Perhaps yu're spending time with family, hanging ut with friends, r maybe yu're ging t play a sprt. All arund the wrld, peple chill ut at the end f the wrking week and take part in leisure activities. In many cuntries, the weekend cnsists f Saturday and Sunday, while in thers Friday and Saturday are the days f rest. In Afghanistan, Thursday and Friday frm the weekend, while in ne cuntry, Brunei, Friday and Sunday are the days ff.
Have yu ever stpped t wnder, thugh, exactly where it riginated? And hw is the cncept ging t change? The mdern weekend tk shape during the Industrial Revlutin. In the early 19 century, in areas such as the nrth f England, peple began t leave the cuntryside t wrk in twns and cities. There, new factries were springing up. Their wrking lives were nce ruled by nature, with the amunt f wrk depending n the changing seasns. Nw, their emplyers demanded a different rhythm-a six-day week f up t 12 hurs a day, fllwed by ne day f rest.
Campaigns fr wrkers' rights appeared. By the end f the century they had managed t reduce the wrking week t five and a half days. This meant that wrking peple culd take an interest in hbbies such as phtgraphy, which was very new at the time. In the US in the 1920s, the industrialist Henry Frd helped t create the weekend. He gave all his wrkers Saturday and Sunday ff wrk. His factries manufactured cars, and he wanted t allw his emplyees time t purchase and enjy the cars they were prducing.
These days, in many cuntries, wrking a 40-hur week is nrmal. Many peple have a nine-t-five jb, but even that is rapidly changing. Technlgy enables mre peple t wrk frm hme and plan their wn use f time. This means that an fficial perid away frm wrk is becming less imprtant. Perhaps in the future we will wrk fewer hurs altgether. If we becme mre prductive, we shuld be able t affrd the same lifestyle by wrking fewer hurs. It has been estimated, fr example, that a wrker in the US can achieve a 1950s standard f living by wrking just 1l hurs a week. Sme peple have recmmended a 21-hur wrking week t help with unemplyment, climate change and inequality. Hwever, a change like that may mean mre leisure time but it will prbably limit peple's ability t earn mney t enjy it.
What des the underlined wrd “riginated” in the secnd paragraph mean?
A. Relaxed. B. Started. C. Appeared suddenly. D. Stpped.
What happened as a result f campaigns n behalf f wrkers?
A. Peple became mre inventive.
B. Peple wrked fewer hurs per day.
C. Peple wrked fewer hurs verall.
D. Peple fund emplyment in leisure industries.
The writer says an American businessman gave his wrkers time ff s that ______
A. he culd prduce mre cars.
B. they culd spend mney n cars.
C. he didn’t have t pay them t drive.
D. they wuld enjy wrking with him.
Why des the writer suggest the weekend may be less imprtant nw?
A. Because we start wrk later than we used t
B. Because nbdy wrks ver 40 hurs a week.
C. Because technlgy empwers individuals t arrange their wn time.
D. Because peple are ut cntrl f their wrking week.
D
_____________________
“ Practice makes perfect” is a very ppular expressin. Hwever, can we take this saying literally? Many scientific studies have sught t either prve r disprve this idea. S des enugh practice literally lead t perfectin, r at least t a level f expertise?
One ppular thery is that if a persn practises fr at least 10,000 hurs, they will reach “perfectin”—r, in ther wrds, becme an expert in their field. This thery was made famus by Malclm Gladwell in his 2008 best-selling bk, Outliers: The Stry f Success. He claimed 10,000 hurs f practice t be “the magic number f greatness”. He gave the examples f the music grup The Beatles and Micrsft c-creatr Bill Gates. Althugh they all seemed t have lts f natural talent, they als clearly put in ver 10,000 hurs f practice befre they became successful.
Hwever, Gladwell’s bk has been said by many t be t simplistic and generalising. Gladwell’s wrk was largely based n research dne by Anders Ericssn, wh argued that Gladwell misinterpreted his research. Firstly, Ericssn stated that 10,000 hurs was an average figure. Sme peple, fr example, needed far fewer than 10,000 hurs, and thers many mre. Mre imprtantly, Ericssn said that just practising a lt was nt enugh; the type and quality f practice was als essential. He went n t explain the imprtance f “deliberate practice”, which is when a persn practises a specific part f a skill in depth rather than practising a skill as a whle. Deliberate practice is said t be much mre effective, albeit mre tiring.
Despite the theries mentined abve, many ther studies argue that practice alne is far frm enugh. In fact, a mre recent study frm Princetn University stated that practice nly accunted fr up t 26% f reaching an expert level. S what are the ther factrs that cntribute t peple becming experts ?
Many peple say that natural talent has a large influence n becming an expert. Anther natural factr is physical superirity, which is especially evident in sprts. Fr instance, many baseball players in America have amazing visin that allws them t see the ball much sner than thers d. S n matter hw much a “nrmal” persn practises, it is very hard fr them t be as gd as smene wh has natural talent r physical superirity and wh als practises.
And hw abut ther factrs that g int creating an expert? Many say IQ, persnality, attitude, and starting age are decisive factrs, t. It is als imprtant t nte that becming an expert desn't equal instant success. Success als relies n scial factrs, envirnmental factrs, and even just being in the right place at the right time!
In cnclusin, practice may nt make perfect, but deliberate practice has been shwn t lead t significant imprvement. Based n Ericssn's research, here are sme tips n hw t practise effectively: be mtivated; make specific and realistic gals; wrk utside yur cmfrt zne; be cnsistent and persistent; ask fr thers’ pinins; and, f curse, get plenty f rest! Fr thse wanting t becme an expert in smething, remember that being mtivated is key—enjy what yu d and fllw yur passins.
What examples did Gladwell use fr his claim?
A. Many scientific studies.
B. His wn learning experience.
C. Many baseball players in America.
D. A music grup and the Micrsft c-creatr.
Why did Ericssn disagree with Gladwell?
A. Because he did a scientific studies.
B. Because he fund deliberate practice less effective.
C. Because he agreed with the influence f the natural talent.
D. Because he thught the type and quality f practice was als essential.
What did a recent study frm Princetn University shw?
A. Practice nly accunted fr a small share in reaching an expert level.
B. Attitude and starting age are decisive factrs t becme an expert.
C. Twenty-six percent f the tested subjects can gain success.
D. It is very hard fr a “nrmal” persn t be a natural talent.
What can be the suitable title fr this text?
A. A new scientific discvery
B. Des practice really make prefect?
C. Advantages and disadvantages f making practice
D. The mre yu practice, the mre success yu will receive.
第二节 (共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A Day in the Cluds
The air is thin and we have t rest several times n the shrt hike frm camp. T ur left, snw-cvered muntains disappear int cluds that seem almst clse enugh t tuch. On the plain in frnt f us, we can just make ut a herd f graceful animals. 36
Tibetan antelpes live n the plains f Tibet Xinjiang and Qinghai. Watching them mve slwly acrss the green grss, I'm struck by their beauty. 37 They are being hunted, illegally, fr their valuable fur.
My guide is Zhaxi, a villager frm Changtang. He wrks at the Changtang Natinal Nature Reserve. 38 T Zhaxi, the land is sacred and prtecting the wildlife is a way f life. "We're nt trying t save the animals," he says. “Actually, we're trying t save urselves.”
The 1980s and 1990s were bad times fr the Tibetan antelpe. 39 Hunters were shting antelpes t make prfits. Their habitats were becming smaller as new rads and railways were built.
In rder t save this species frm extinctin, the Chinese gvernment placed it under natinal prtectin. Zhaxi and ther vlunteers watched ver the antelpes day and night t keep them safe frm attacks. Bridges and gates were added t let the antelpes mve easily and keep them safe frm cars and trains.
40 The antelpe ppulatin has recvered and in June 20l5, the Tibetan antelpe was remved frm the endangered species list. The gvernment hwever, des nt intend t stp the prtectin prgrammes, since the threats t the Tibetan antelpe have nt yet disappeared.
In the evening, I drink a cup f tea and watch the stars. I think abut the antelpes and what Zhaxi tld me. Much is being dne t prtect wildlife, but if we really want t save the planet we must change ur way f life. Only when we learn t exist in harmny with nature can we stp being a threat t wildlife and t ur planet.
The measures were effective.
I'm als reminded f the danger they are in.
The Tibetan antelpes live high abve sea level.
The ppulatin drpped by mre than 50 percent.
This is why we're here一t bserve Tibetan antelpes.
We shuld nt buy gds made frm endangered animals.
The reserve is a shelter fr the animals and plants f nrthwestern Tibet.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
My experience with American English
When I was ten years ld, I went t the US t visit sme family friends. We travelled all the way frm Califrnia t Las Vegas. I 41 smething funny abut the way everyne spke English. I was thinking, “This is the way they 42 in films!”
At the beginning f the hliday, ne f my friends asked me if I wanted t rder “French fries.” I culdn’t 43 what French fries were. What was fried and French?! Snails? Cheese? She was 44 that I had never tried them and she rdered a prtin fr us t share. When the waiter brught us sme 45 , I asked her where the French fries were. She pinted t the plate f chips! 46 that week she said she was ging t buy sme “chips” frm the supermarket. She came ut with a packet f crisps!
During that 47 we were als ffered “biscuits and gravy (肉汁)” with ur lunch. This was a very strange idea t me, because in England biscuits are 48 . Gravy is a salty, meat-based sauce. I later realised that “biscuits” in America are savury(咸味的) snacks. What we call “ 49 ”, they call “ckies”.
I was als 50 when a stranger tld me she liked my “pants.” I remember thinking, “Hw can she see my 51 !?” My mum then tld me that they call “pants” what we call “ 52 ,” the uter clthing that yu wear n yur legs!
I was disgusted when I saw an “eggplant” pizza n the menu in a restaurant. Eggs d nt grw 53 , I thught. What n 54 culd an “eggplant” be? Smething eggy and leafy? My dad rdered this pizza and it was cvered in aubergines(茄子). I 55 him where the “eggplant” was. He laughed and 56 t the aubergines. He tld me, “They call this ‘eggplant’ in America!”
Althugh the 57 “language” may be spken in different cuntries, there are likely t be many 58 , nt just in vcabulary but 59 in spelling, grammar and prnunciatin. I think part f the excitement f learning a language is 60 the differences in hw it is spken in different places.
A. nticed B. expected C. suggested D. chse
A. live B. think C. speak D. write
A. want B. imagine C. cmpare D. lve
A. scared B. amazed C. pleased D. upset
A. pieces B. packages C. cakes D. chips
A. Recently B. S C. Later D. Past
A. jb B. dinner C. festival D. hliday
A. salty B. sft C. ht D. sweet
A. biscuits B. jams C. tasts D. creams
A. amused B. excited C. embarrassed D. wrried
A. jacket B. underwear C. shirt D. sck
A. trusers B. shes C. cats D. skirts
A. plants B. trees C. lands D. fields
A. bdy B. surface C. earth D. wrld
A. agreed B. decided C. tld D. asked
A. added B. explained C. set D. pinted
A. sme B. same C. different D. gd
A. differences B. values C. mistakes D. prblems
A. never B. als C. nly D. always
A. believing B. develping C. discvering D. creating
第 Ⅱ 卷(非选择题,共50分)
注意事项:
1.请用蓝黑钢笔或圆珠笔在第Ⅱ卷答题卡上作答,不能答在此试卷上。
2.试卷中横线及框内注有“▲”的地方,是需要你在第Ⅱ卷答题卡上作答。
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chen Xi was chsen as the best athlete in the schl. He is giving a speech at a ceremny.
Thank yu fr chsing me as the best athlete in ur schl. I’m really happy 61 (share) with yu hw passinate I am abut sprts and what I d t keep fit. I am a big fan f many sprts, 62 (include) basketball, ftball ad gymnastics. I lve t watch these 63 (event) n TV at the weekend. I als exercise regularly, t. 64 the mrning, I ften g jgging n running track fr abut half an hur. I dn’t run t fast r fr t lng s 65 I have enugh energy fr the day. In the afternn, I 66 (usual) play ftball r basketball. I’m n the schl ftball team. The training is always tugh, but we all d 67 (we) best, since we all want t earn a place n the team when playing against ther schls. Believe it r nt, we als ccasinally d yga in the gym. It 68 (help) relax ur muscles and fcus ur minds. If yu want t becme fit and healthy, my 69 (advise) is t try different sprts and activities t see 70 ne yu enjy the mst.
61 ▲ 62 ▲ 63 ▲ 64 ▲ 65 ▲
66 ▲ 67 ▲ 68 ▲ 69 ▲ 70 ▲
第四部分:写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
China’s first manned spaceship lifts ff n 15 Octber, 2003. The spaceship, calling Shenzhu V, was carrying China’s first astrnaut, Yang Liwei. During the 21-hur space flight, the Shenzhu V circled Earth 14 times. While the spaceship was circling the Earth, Yang Liwei perfrmed the number f scientific tasks and had a chance t speak t his family. He als flew the flags f China and the United Natins, that symblized China’s wish t explre and use space peacefully. On 16 Octber, the Shenzhu V landed safe in inner Mnglia. Millin f peple all ver the wrld watched the landing n TV. When Yang Liwei climbed ut f the spaceship, he smiled but waved t the crwds waiting fr him. Althugh he were happy t be hme, he said, “but I thught 21 hurs was such a shrt stay in space.”
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假如你是李华,你的英语外教Tm打算在寒假组织班上同学开展一次班级活动,有三种活动方案供大家选择:
慈善义卖帮助家庭有困难的同学;
邀请外国朋友介绍有效的英语学习方法;
三、组织一次班级新年派对。
请你选择其中一个方案,用英语给Tm写一篇100词左右的短文,提出你选择的方案并谈谈理由。你的写作中必须包括:
1.你选择方案;
2.谈谈你提出方案的理由;
3.表达对活动的期待。
参考词汇:慈善:charity(n.)
注意:1. 词数:100词左右;
2. 可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
3. 信的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Tm,
The winter vcatin is arund the crner. I have heard yu are planning t rganize a class activity during this winter vacatin.
I’m lking frward t this class activity.
Yurs sincerely
Li Hua
遂宁市高中2023届第三学期教学水平监测
英语试题参考答案
第 Ⅰ 卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
1-5ABCBA 6-10 BAABB 11-15 BCCAB 16-20 BCACA
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
21-25 DACCA 26-30 BDBCB 31-35 CDDAB 36-40 EBGDA
第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节,满分45分)
第一节 (共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
41-45 ACBBD 46-50 CDDAC 51-55 BAACD 56-60 DBABC
第 Ⅱ 卷
第三部分 语言知识运用 (共两节,满分45分)
第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
61. t share 62. including 63. events 64. In 65. that
66. usually 67. ur 68. helps 69. advice 70. which
第四部分 写作 (共两节,满分35分)
短文改错 (共10小题;每小题l分,满分10分)
called
the
lifted
China’s first manned spaceship lifts ff n 15 Octber, 2003. The spaceship, calling Shenzhu V, was carrying China’s first astrnaut, Yang Liwei. During the 21-hur space flight, the Shenzhu V circled Earth 14 times. While the spaceship was circling the Earth, Yang Liwei
a
which
perfrmed the number f scientific tasks and had a chance t speak t his family. He als flew the flags f China and the United Natins, that symblized China’s wish t explre and use space peacefully. On 16 Octber, the Shenzhu V landed safe in inner Mnglia. Millin f peple all
safely Millins
ver the wrld watched the landing n TV. When Yang Liwei climbed ut f the spaceship, he smiled but waved t the crwds waiting fr him. Althugh he were happy t be hme, he said,
and was
“but I thught 21 hurs was such a shrt stay in space.”
第二节 书面表达 (满分25分)
Dear Tm,
The winter vcatin is arund the crner. I have heard yu are planning t rganize a class activity during this winter vacatin.
I ①have a preference fr hlding a charity sale during this vcatin, ②the reasns fr which culd lie in the fllwing aspects. ③First f all, the mney earned in the charity sale will be sent t thse in great need. This wuld nt nly help them thrugh difficulties, but als give them warmness and happiness. Mrever, it will als benefit us a lt. Fr instance, we wuld like t grasp the significance f being cnsiderate and thughtful. Besides, giving thers a hand als makes us delightful. In a wrd, it is a gd idea fr us t hld the charity sale fr it can help thse in want f help and d benefits t ur persnal develpment.
= 4 \* GB3 \* MERGEFORMAT ④ I’m lking frward t this class activity.
Yurs sincerely
Li Hua
书面表达评分细则
(一)要点解释 (见参考范文番号①②③ = 4 \* GB3 \* MERGEFORMAT ④)
1.关于要点一(选择的方案):
要有关于被选方案关键词或相关表达:charity,learning methds, party等,且须在试题提供的三个方案中进行选择;
2.关于要点二(表达原因):
要有表达原因的关键词或相关表达:reasn, cause, why等。
3.关于要点三(阐释你的理由):
阐释理由需要与选择的方案内容相关。(如果理由只写一点,注意全文词数是否达到,如词数低于80词,扣2分)
4.关于要点四表达期待:要有表达期待的关键词或相关表达:lk frward, wish, hpe等。
(二)归档与打分
第五档(21-25分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.覆盖所有内容要点。
3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
4.语法或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或词汇所致。具备较强的语言运用能力。
5.有效地使用了语句间的成份,使全文结构紧凑。
6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
注意:如果表达用语非正式,原则上不能归于第五档作文。
第四档(16-20分)
1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.运用的语法结构或词汇方面能满足任务的要求。
4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
6.达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(11-15分)
1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。
2.虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
6.整体而言,基本达到了语气的写作目的。
第二档(6-10分)
1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
3.词法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
4.有一些语法结构词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
5.较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档(1-5分)
1.未完成试题规定的任务。
2.明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
3.语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
5.缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
6.信息未能传达给读者。
不得分(0分)
未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判,写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
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