2022年山东省济南市莱芜区九年级英语一模试题（含答案）

2022年莱芜区初中学业水平考试

英语模拟试题（一）

本试题共12页，分选择题部分和非选择题部分，选择题部分满分80分，非选择题部分满分40分。全卷满分120分，考试用时120分钟。

答题前，请考生务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、座位号写在答题卡的规定位置。

答题时，选择题部分每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。非选择题部分，用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上题号所提示的答题区域作答。直接在试题上作答无效。

考试结束后，将本试题和答题卡一并交回。

选择题部分 共80分

一、听力测试（共20小题，计20分）

略

二、单项选择（共15小题，计15分)

从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。

21. Jack likes to play ______ chess with his grandfather on weekends.

A. a     B. an    C. the    D./

22. --- Keep quiet! I need complete silence when I'm working.

--- Sorry, Dad. I won’t make any ______ again.

A. progress   B. plans    C. noise    D. decisions

23. It’s important for students to ______ the school rules.

A. follow    B. play    C. break    D. refuse

24. Hemingway is such a famous writer that his books are ______ read all over the world.

A. hardly    B. clearly    C. widely    D. politely

25. --- Do you have ______ else to say for your mistakes?

--- Nothing except sorry.

A. something   B. nothing   C. everything   D. anything

26. Jim has a pet dog. I often see him ______ with it in the park.

A. play    B. plays    C. played    D. to play

27. --- Mr. Li, must we hand in our homework now?

--- No, you ______. You can hand it in after class.

A. can’t    B. shouldn’t   C. needn’t   D. mustn’t

28.  Space Day of China falls ______ April 24th every year.

A. on    B. by    C.at     D. in

29. The Beijing Winter Olympics ______ successfully in February, 2022.

A. hold    B. held    C. were held   D. are held

30. --- Anna, you will fail the exam ______ you work hard.

--- You are right. I must work hard from now on.

A. if     B. for    C. unless    D. or

31. Our English teacher is glad to see that Tom is ______ than before.

A. careful    B. more careful  C. most carefully  D. the most careful

32. --- Gu Ailing won a gold medal again.

 --- ______ exciting news!

A. How    B. What    C. How an   D. What an

33. Mark really ______ his father. They are both friendly and helpful.

A. picks up   B. runs after   C. takes after   D. looks up

34. --- Good afternoon. ______?

--- Yes. We’d like some mutton dumplings, please.

A. May I take your order      B. May I come in

C. Where are you from      D. What size do you have

35. --- Could you please tell me ______?

--- Next Thursday morning.

A. how we visited the Capital Museum   B. how did we visit the Capital Museum

C. when we will visit the Capital Museum  D. when will we visit the Capital Museum

三、完形填空（共15小题，计15分）

阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中的空白处的最佳答案。

There was once a farmer who had a large field of corn. He worked on it with the great ___36___, but the corn was dying ___37___ there had been no rain for a long time. He felt very sad.

One day, as he stood ___38___ up at the sky, two little raindrops（雨滴）saw him. One said to the other. “Look at that farmer. I feel very sorry ___39___ him. He works so hard in the field, but now it is drying up. I wish I might ___40___him.”

“Yes,” said the other. “___41___ you are only a little raindrop. You can’t wet ___42___ one plant.”

“Well,” said the first, “I know I can’t do much, but perhaps I can ___43___ him up a little. I’ll go down to show my ___44___ if I can’t do anything more. Here I go!”

The second one said. “Well, I think I can do that ___45___. Here I go!” So down went the two raindrops. One fell on the farmer’s nose, and the other on a ___46___ plant.

“What’s that?” The farmer ___47___, “A raindrop! I do believe we’ll have a shower（阵雨）soon.

By this time other raindrops had seen what ___48___ did. One said, “If you two are doing such a good ___49___, I shall follow!” And down it went. “And I!” said ___50___. “And I!” they all said, until a whole shower went down and the corn was saved because one little raindrop tried its best to do what it could.

36. A. care    B. money    C. power    D. courage

37. A. because   B. where    C. when    D. if

38. A. setting    B. looking   C. turning   D. giving

39. A. of    B. about    C. for    D. with

40. A. thank    B. trust    C. punish    D. help

41. A. but    B. so    C. and    D. though

42. A. just    B. only    C. even    D. yet

43. A. give    B. make    C. call    D. cheer

44. A. support   B. talent    C. gift    D. mistake

45. A. also    B. too    C. either    D. neither

46. A. green    B. fresh    C. thirsty    D. dangerous

47. A. nodded   B. smiled    C. said    D. cried

48. A. you    B. they    C. it     D. he

49. A. work    B. job    C. way    D. idea

50. A. others    B. the other   C. the others   D. another

四、阅读理解（共20小题，计30分）

阅读下列短文，然后从每小题 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。

A

Can a high school student have a part-time job? After all, we are already so busy with our studies. In fact, it can be done.

My new neighbors are a foreign family who just came to China. The parents are both English teachers and their son, John, is a student. They asked me whether I would be willing to work as a “part-time teacher” to teach John some basic Chinese so that he could get around better, and I agreed.

At first, I thought it would be a piece of cake. So I didn’t really prepare anything in advance（提前）. I thought I had enough Chinese to teach a foreigner.

To think is one thing. However, to do it well is another. When I started teaching John, I realized that there’s so much culture and history in our language. Why are there four tones（声调）in Chinese? Who created Chinese characters? Why some Chinese characters look like the things they stand for and some don’t?

I came home, feeling quite sorry because I didn’t know the answers to those questions. I always thought teaching Chinese was easy, but actually it isn't. Chinese is a beautiful language that is rich in culture. What we have learned at school is just the tip of the iceberg（冰山一角）.

This part-time job is indeed a great learning experience for me. I realize I need a deeper understanding of my own language, so that one day, I will be able to proudly share more fantastic Chinese knowledge with foreigners.

51. The writer’s part-time job is to ______.

A. get around with John      B. teach a foreign family English

C. teach John some Chinese     D. do housework for a foreign family

52. The writer felt his job ______ at first.

A. easy    B. boring    C. difficult   D. interesting

53. What does the underlined sentence probably mean in Paragraph 5?

A. We learn most of Chinese at school.

B. We should learn more Chinese at school.

C. Chinese is as cold as the tip of the iceberg.

D. Chinese we’ve learned at school is just a small part of Chinese culture.

54. What’s the right order of the text?

a. The writer prepared nothing for his teaching.

b. The writer felt sorry because he didn't know the answers to John’s questions.

c. The writer’s neighbors asked him to teach their son Chinese.

d. The writer realizes that he needs a deeper understanding of Chinese.

A. c-a-d-b   B. c-a-b-d   C. a-c-d-b   D. a-c-b-d

55. What does the story want to tell us?

A. Practice makes perfect.

B. Knowledge is power.

C. Helping others is to help ourselves.

D. To think is one thing, but to do it well is another.

B

56. Who are welcome to join the competition?

A. People from all over the world.

B. Foreigners who just like Chinese food.

C. Foreigners who are interested in Chinese culture.

D. People who like to share their experiences in the US.

57. When can you join the competition?

A. April 5.   B. July 20.   C. June 1.    D. October 2.

58. How can you join the competition?

A. By using your friend’s account.    B. By sending your stories to a website.

C. By showing your talent directly.   D. By writing a letter to a Chinese friend.

59. If you win the competition, you can’t get ______.

A. a computer   B. an iPad   C. a wallet   D. a camera

60. What is the text mainly about?

A. The ways of holding a competition.

B. The importance of becoming a top blogger.

C. The introduction to Chinese culture and food.

D. The introduction to a competition for top bloggers.

C

When do children start to talk? If you ask a group of parents when this happened, most will say “around twelve months of age”. They will probably even remember what the children said. Many parents keep a diary of their child’s “first words”.

We can never predict what a first word is going to be. Often it's the name for “mummy” or “daddy”, but it could just be the word for an animal or a favorite toy. Everything depends on what has most caught the child’s attention. But one thing is certain: after the first word, others come quickly. By 18 months, most children have learned about 50 words. By two, the total has risen to around 200.

Early words are actually one-word sentences. One of the first features（特征）of language a child learns well is to control the rise and fall of the voice to make the difference between stating and questioning. In English, daddy with a high rising tone（声调）means “Is that daddy?” Daddy with a high falling tone means “There’s daddy”. Of course, only very basic meanings can be communicated using tones alone. So it soon becomes necessary to learn some grammar.

In English, grammar means learning to put words in different orders. Children have to see that mummy push is different from push mummy. They start practicing such changes at around 18 months. By two, they have learned the basic patterns of word order, and we hear them saying such things as man kick ball and where daddy go.

What are the parents doing all his time? They’re acting as teachers and they always have an active role to play in their child’s language learning.

61. What might an English child say first when learning to talk?

A. Mummy.        B. Push mummy.

C. Man kick ball       D. Where daddy go?

62. How old are most children when they have learned about 50 words?

A. About 6 months old.      B. About one year old.

C. About 18 months old.      D. About two years old.

63. What’s Paragraph 4 mainly about?

A. Word order.        B. Word tones. 

C. The first words.       D. Correcting words.

64. What can a 4-year-old child probably do according to the text?

A. Use grammar Well. B. Tell stories.   C. Write passages.  D. Make speeches.

65. Who is most responsible for a child’s early language learning?

A. Teachers.   B. Parents.   C. Friends.   D. Grandparents.

D

Technology is developing fast and it has become an important part of our life. Then will the world be like in the future?

3-D food will be both delicious and nutritious（有营养的）. We can use 3-D printers to print some basic materials. Scientists believe we just need to turn on a printer in the kitchen and then we can enjoy our favorite food.

5G network will allow more people to get information. Big companies like China Mobile and China Unicom will start to offer 5G. 5G is expected to download（下载）about 10 times faster than 4G. For example, we can download a film within just 1 minute. But with a 4G network, it takes about 10 minutes.

Space tour will be a piece of cake. For us common people on the earth, the dream of travelling around space will come true. In the coming years, spacecraft will be as popular as buses, trains and planes. We can leave our home and enter space to take an adventure（冒险）. And even we will get used to living there.

You won’t worry the quality（质量）while shopping online. Some researchers are working on computer screens that can feel a sense of touch when you touch them. “If you’re shopping online for clothes, you could feel fabric（面料）.” said Cynthia, an engineer at Texas A & B University, US.

A robot will be a part of life. Robots can do the same things as we humans do, like driving cars. But they will be used in others areas as well. They will have the ability to think. They can tell the difference between right and wrong.

In a word, just as Jules Verne said, “Anything one man can imagine, other men can make real.”

66. How many scientific achievements about future life are mentioned in the text?

A. 3.     B. 4.     C. 5.     D. 6.

67. Paragraph 3 isn’t developed by ______.

A. listing numbers       B. giving reasons

C. giving examples       D. making comparisons

68. Which of the following is true according to the text?

A. 3-D food will be easy to make but taste bad.

B. Space tour will be easy for only rich people.

C. All the clothes will sell well.

D. Robots will be used more widely.

69. The underlined word “them” in Paragraph 5 refers to ______.

A. fabric         B. clothes 

C. researchers        D. computer screens

70. The text is probably from ______.

A. a science magazine      B. a story book

C. a travel guide       D. a history book

非选择题部分 共40分

五、选词填空（共10小题，计10分）

A. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的单词填空（每词限用一次）

Last Saturday, Mrs. Jones said to her husband, “There is a good action movie tonight. Do you want to see it?” Mr. Jones was quite ___71___. So they went and ___72___ of them enjoyed the movie.

They came out of the cinema at 11 o’clock and it was quite dark. On their way driving home, Mrs. Jones said suddenly, “Look, Bill. A woman is running along the road very fast, and a man is running ___73___ her. Can you see them?” Mr. Jones said, “Yes, I can.” He drove the car ___74___ near the woman and asked her, “Can we help you?” “No, thanks.” the woman said. But she didn’t stop running. “My husband and I always run home after the film, and the last one washes the ___75___ at home.”

B. 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的动词，并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号（每词限用一次）。

Many earthquakes begin under the sea. However, earthquakes may happen anywhere on the earth. They often happen near the mountains.

In 2008, an earthquake happened suddenly in Wenchuan. The shakings ___76___ rocks rise and even crack open. Houses fell, people ___77___ or hurt, and the villages and cities were destroyed.

Can we do something to keep ourselves safe from earthquakes? So far, scientists ___78___ earthquakes and made maps that show the “earthquake belts（带）”. In those areas, we should build strong houses ___79___ against earthquakes.

In the future, scientists can tell when and where an earthquake ___80___. They can also tell people what to do and how to do it.

六、阅读理解七选五（共5小题，计5分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并把答案涂在答题卡相应位置。选项中有两项为多余选项。

Few people knew about online food delivery（外卖）apps ten years ago, but today, many would find it hard to live without them. For better or for worse, online food delivery services have changed the way we eat. ___81___

These services without doubt have many advantages. They provide jobs for millions of people and help restaurants find more customers. Since the apps are very busy to use, they also do good to customers: we can now have meals delivered at any time of day. This is especially important for people who might not have time to cook. Not only do these apps save time, they also provide us with plenty of restaurants to choose from. ___82___ They can buy meals and foods more easily with these apps.

___83___ First, they make it even easier to order unhealthier food. Food safety is another problem: it can be hard to know where the food comes from. As delivery men need to send the orders as quickly as possible, some pay little attention to traffic rules. ___84___ What’s more, delivery services are creating too much packaging waste, and this will be harmful to the environment.

There are many advantages of online food delivery services, but we need to make sure that we make the right choices in the long run. We should do our best to avoid waste. We also need to make sure what we eat is healthy. Next time you are thinking about ordering in, ask yourself whether you really need to. ___85___

七、书面表达（25分）

A. 情景运用（共5小题，计5分）

根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。

86. A: When was your brother born?

B: ________________________________________________________________________.

87 A: _______________________________________________________________________?

B: Twice a week.

88. A: _______________________________________________________________________?

B: It’s 10 dollars.

89. A: What’s the girl doing?

B: ________________________________________________________________________.

90. A: What’s the matter with the boy?

B: ________________________________________________________________________.

B. 作文（20分）

一个国际中学生组织将在新加坡（Singapore）举办夏令营，欢迎各国学生参加。假如你是李华，请根据以下提示，写一封电子邮件申请参加。

要点包括：

注意：

1. 词数100左右，可以适当增加细节，使行文连贯；

2. 不得出现真实的姓名和校名等相关信息。

Dear Sir/Madam,

__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

Yours,

Li Hua

参考答案

选择题部分 共80分

一、听力测试（共20小题，计20分）

略

二、单项选择（共15小题，计15分)

21~25 DAACD  26~30 ACACC  31~35 BBCAC

三、完形填空（共15小题，计15分）

36~40 AABCD  41~45 ACDAB  46~50 CDBBD

四、阅读理解（共20小题，计30分）

51~55 CADBD  56~60 CBBAD  61~65 ACABB  66~70 CBDDA

非选择题部分 共40分

五、选词填空（共10小题，计10分）

71. happy; 72. both; 73. after; 74. slowly; 75. dishes

76. made; 77. were killed; 78. have studied; 79. to fight; 80. will happen

六、阅读理解七选五（共5小题，计5分）

81~85 CADGE

七、书面表达（25分）

A. 情景运用（共5小题，计5分）

86. He was born on May 21st, 2015.

87. How often does Li Ming play football?

88. How much is this sweater?

89. She is playing the violin.

90. He has a toothache.

B. 作文（20分）

略