2021-2022学年福建省宁德市高二下学期期末质量检测英语试题Word版含答案

这是一份2021-2022学年福建省宁德市高二下学期期末质量检测英语试题Word版含答案，共26页。试卷主要包含了本试卷共12页，答题前，考生务必将自己的班级，写出一个要点给4分，拼写错误，要点认定等内容，欢迎下载使用。
宁德市2021-2022学年度第二学期期末高二质量检测
英语试题
注意事项：1、本试卷共12页。满分150分。答题时间120分钟。
2、答题前，考生务必将自己的班级、姓名填写在试卷的相应位置。
3、全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Where does the conversation take place?
A.At home. B.On a farm. C.In a restaurant.
2.What was the weather like during the man's vacation?
A.Sunny. B.Rainy. C.Cloudy.
3.What does the woman ask the man to do?
A.Close the windows. B.Take out the suitcase. C.Pack the clothes.
4.Which TV will the speakers buy?
A.The 42-inch one. B.The 46-inch one. C.The 47-inch one.
5.What are the speakers talking about?
A.Making new friends. B.Getting a new job. C.Seeing old friends.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
高二英语·第1页（共12页）

听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A.Friends. B.Neighbors. C.Customer and waitress.
7.How will Bill and Mary go home?
A.By bus. B.By subway. C. By taxi.
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
8. Why does the woman want to work in the restaurant?
A.The salary is good.
B.The environment is nice.
C.The working time is convenient.
9.When can the woman get the reply?
A.On Friday. B.On Wednesday. C.On Tuesday.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10.Where did the man get the information about the woman?
A.From TV. B.From the newspaper. C.From the Internet.
11.What is the woman?
A.A reporter. B.A singer. C.A pianist.
12. What's the woman's next plan?
A.To start a music school.
B. To receive an education.
C.To invite the man to perform.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题
13.What is the woman doing?
A.Attending a meeting. B.Giving some advice C.Doing an interview..
14. How often does the man travel by bus?
A.Twice a day. B.Every other day. C.Once a week.
15.How does the man feel about the bus service?
A.It's good. B.It's fair. C.It's poor.
16.What improvement should the bus company make?
A.Buses should be more reliable.
B.Drivers should be more polite.
C.Seats should be more comfortable.
高二英语·第2页（共12页）

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17.Who is the speaker talking to?
A.Club members. B.TV announcers. C.College students.
18. What was the speaker like as a young man?
A.He liked to talk to others.
B.He was awkward in social situations.
C.He was always confident in himself.
19.What does the speaker suggest?
A.Joining clubs. B.Staying alone. C.Hiding away.
20.What is on sale after the talk?
A.DVDs. B.Books. C.T-shirts.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Tea,High Tea,and Afternoon Tea
Tea is a very important part of many people's lives and it is important for those who drink tea or participate in tea meals to understand some terms related to tea.
Tea the drink
There are two forms of tea that often cause confusion in the tea world: tea the drink and tea the meal.Tea the drink is made from the Camellia Sinensis plant and from the processing of the plant white,green,oolong,and black teas are produced.
Tea the meal
Tea the meal on the other hand involves tea the drink as an important part but really is directed toward social and family gatherings where tea and food are often consumed together.
Afternoon tea
Afternoon tea(or Low tea)is a light meal typically eaten at 4:00 pm. It originated in Britain,though various places in the former British Empire also have such a meal. However,most Britons no longer eat such a meal.
High tea

High tea is an early evening meal, typically eaten between 5:00 and 6:00 pm. It would be eaten as a substitute（替代品）for both afternoon tea and the evening meal. The term comes from the meal being eaten at the “high” (main) table, instead of the smaller low table. It is now largely replaced by the later meal tea.
Tea
Tea is the main evening meal, even if the diners are not drinking tea. It is traditionally eaten at 5 o'clock in the evening, though often it is later, as late as 9:00 pm.
21.What is the text mainly about?
A.Varieties of tea. B.The meaning of tea.
C.The popularity of tea. D.Different terms about tea.
22.How does high tea get its name?
A.The tea that is used. B.The time when it's served.
C.The table where it's served. D.The country where it originated.
23. How many tea meals are introduced in the text?
A.2. B.3. C.4. D 5.
B
Fuchsia Dunlop is a gourmet （美食家） that＇s better at Chinese dishes than European ones， and cooking has become a way for her to kill time in the “endless lockdown”.She cooks in a very relaxed way, going to the farmers' market at the weekend to buy seasonal products for everyday cooking-a mix of Jiangnan, Hunan,Guangdong and Sichuan dishes.
Being raised in a household in Oxford always filled with flavors from Japan, Turkey, Spain, India and Austria, Dunlop dreamed of becoming a gourmet when she was little. However,her dream did not start to come true until she came to Chengdu, the capital of Sichuan Province, as a university student in 1994. That was when she began learning local cooking skills at the Sichuan Higher Institute of Cuisine, while looking for delicious food in the city and nearby areas. Always keeping a notebook on hand wherever she went, she wrote down the recipes of the dishes she tasted,which resulted in the publication of her first book, Sichuan Cookery,in 2001.And since then, she has published four books about Sichuan cuisine.
In 2016,Land of Fish and Rice, about recipes from Jiangnan, was published. In the book, Dunlop describes Jiangnan, the region south of the Yangtze River, as an area“blessed with a warm climate, fertile land, and lakes, rivers and coastal waters with plenty of fish and seafood”,

and she regards the region as the heartland of the nation＇s gastronomy（美食）.Now，a Chinese version of the book is available.
“Food is a representation of culture anywhere in general, but in China it has a particular importance,”Dunlop says. “China is a place where food has been culturally important since the beginning, so food is a way of understanding and appreciating China and its culture in general.”
24.What inspired Dunlop to become a gourmet?
A.Her cooking talent. B.Her growth environment.
C.The time during the lockdown. D.Her education in China.
25. What is Dunlop's first book based on?
A.Her school life at university. B.Her study on Chinese culture.
C.Her knowledge of Sichuan dishes. D. Her experience in a local market.
26.Why does Dunlop consider Jiangnan as the heartland of China's gastronomy?
A.Resources are rich. B.It is her dream place.
C.The culture is typical. D.The cooking style is unique.
27.What can be the best title? A.Importance of food
B.A writer of good taste
C.Best cuisine in Sichuan
D.A writer living in China

C
Paul O'Sullivan was in his Baltimore apartment one evening in 2014.Feeling bored,he logged on to Facebook to find out just how many others shared his name. Moments later,dozens of Paul O'Sullivans popped out. Out of curiosity, he sent friend requests to them.
Many of his fellow Paul O'Sullivans ignored his request, but a few accepted his invitation. To his amazement, he noticed four of them were musicians. Wouldn't it be funny, he asked the other musical Pauls, if they formed a band called The Paul O'Sullivans? So they did.
Starting a band across many time zones proved to be tricky.To fix the problem,they created a sort of musical assembly line. Baltimore Paul and Rotterdam Paul wrote and recorded a basic track, then e-mailed it to Manchester Paul, who recorded a bass track. Later,Pennsylvania Paul added the drumbeat. Round and round the track went, with each member adding on his own layer.
In March 2016, the band released its first original song “Namesake” to honor their friendship. But just months later,Baltimore Paul began experiencing health issues. To support

him,the other Pauls shared family pictures and chatted live on Instagram.
It was about four years before Baltimore Paul was well enough to start making music again. And when COVID-19 slowly shut down the world just weeks later, the Pauls didn't miss a beat. . After all, the band had already been skilled at remote work. But now their international connection took on a new meaning.“Writing a song with someone across the ocean makes you feel less trapped,”says Baltimore Paul. They used their time during the pandemic to record their first EP.
Half of the money made from the EP will be donated.“Life is tough sometimes,” says Pennsylvania Paul. “So just try to generate joy.”
28. How did Baltimore Paul reach out to other Pauls?
A.By writing e-mails. B.By accepting invitations.
C.By sharing his name. D.By sending requests.
29.What does paragraph 3 mainly talk about?
A.The creation of the band. B.How the band worked initially.
C.How the band grew popular. D.The challenges the band faced.
30.What does the underlined sentence in paragraph 5 mean?
A.The band continued to make music despite the lockdown.
B.The band were too familiar with their music to make mistakes.
C.The band took advantage of the chance to support each other.
D.The band wanted to defeat COVID-19 with their music.
31.Whicb of the following best describes the band?
A.Creative and caring. B.Hard-working and strict.
C.Open-minded and funny. D.Tough and traditional.
D
For millions of Chinese, the last night of 2021 was unforgettable.Legendary singer Deng Lijun (1953-95), also known as Teresa Teng, made a surprise comeback in an unexpected way for a New Year's Eve concert presented by Jiangsu TV. Though it was not the first time that Teng had appeared on stage as a digital human, millions of online viewers were said to have been shocked by the jaw-dropping realism of her image.
Behind the surprise was the country's rapid development of technology to produce digital humans.Digital humans can now engage in a whole range of human body language, backed by
高二英语·第6页（共12页）

artificial intelligence that can interpret input and produce not just straightforward responses but appropriate nonverbal actions as well.
Digital humans also have been widely used in many industries in China, including education, media,technology,internet and traditional manufacturing.
In June, 2021, Hua Zhibing- China's first Al-powered virtual student who was created by using the country's largest pre-trained model-made its first public appearance at the Department of Computer Science and Technology at Tsinghua University in Beijing, where she would continue her study with Professor Tang Jie.
Hua, a digital woman co-developed by the Beijing Academy of Artificial Intelligence, Zhipu AI and tech company Xiaoice. is able to compose poetry and music and has some ability in reasoning and emotional interaction.
Tang Jie said the digital human is powered by the second generation of WuDao, a pre-trained model, and can be applied to several industries to help improve efficiency.
However,Pan Helin, executive director of the Digital Economy Academy of Zhongnan University of Economics and Law, said that the biggest challenge to the popularization of digital humans is still the technology.
“It is difficult for most digital humans to effectively complete tasks in complex situations. For many companies that want to use digital humans, intelligent applications of high-end digital humans will be costly,”Pan said.
32.What is the purpose of paragraph 1?
A.To put forward a theory. B.To introduce the background.
C.To explain a concept. D.To start the topic.
33. What enables digital humans to do a wide range of nonverbal actions?
A.Artificial intelligence. B.Realistic appearance.
C.Emotional interaction. D.Straightforward responses.
34.What is true about Hua Zhibing?
A.She is the first AI-powered digital human.
B.She is developed by Tsinghua University.
C.She has the ability to learn new things.
D.She has been applied to many industries.
高二英语·第7页（共12页）


35.What is Pan Helin's opinion on digital humans?
A. It costs a lot to employ digital humans.
B. It will greatly improve the efficiency.
C. Digital humans cannot perform tasks effectively.
D. The future of digital humans is optimistic.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。
How to Encourage a Sad Friend
Nobody likes to see someone sad, but you can't sit by and do nothing when it's your friends. 36 Here are some suggestions on how you can encourage your sad friends.
Ask them what's wrong.
Ask them if they want to talk about it. They may want to talk. Therefore, listen to them.Be silent and don't interrupt. You don't need to offer your words of advice unless they ask. 37 Give them some time to process the situation and their feelings.
38
Remind them that they're a great person and how much they mean to you. Acknowledge their feelings when they share their pain. Continue to show them kindness and encouragement. Continue to be a loyal friend.
Offer to take them somewhere fun.
Offer to go shopping together. That can be a fun adventure. 39 Your friends may initially decline your invitation. Encourage them and tell them that they don't need to be alone during this sad time, and that getting around other people would be good for them.
Buy them a nice gift.
The gift could be something as simple as a small box of candy, or their favorite flowers. Any of those items will tell your friends that you're thinking of them in their time of need.40 Your friends will remember what you did for them when they're alone and sad.
A.Remind them to smile.
B.Support them emotionally.
C.If they don't want to talk about it, respect their choice.
D.But sometimes it can be difficult to find the perfect gift.
E.Offer to take them to lunch to talk or to get them around other people.
F.This will also help them get their mind off of their problems, if only temporarily.
G.Your friends may have gone through something that could have caused them to be sad.



第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
I live in San Luis Obispo, Califormia,where the humpback whales come every year. Last November, I invited my friend Liz to 41 them in my kayak.
"No way,” 42 Liz. She was terrified that the kayak would 43 leaving us surrounded by hungry whales. “The boat is stable,”I 44 her,“and we can turn back anytime.” After some 45 ,she finally agreed to join me.
The following morning we sighted two humpbacks feeding on silverfish.How 46 to be that close to those graceful creatures.47,a pack of fish started jumping out of the water into our kayak-a 48 that whales were approaching.But 49 we could turn back,our kayak was lifted out of the water several feet and we 50 into the whale's mouth. My body was engulfed（吞噬）except for my right arm and paddle（桨）. Liz,meanwhile,thrust（猛推）her arm up,trying to 51 being crushed.What happened next was pure magic. We were 52 out onto the surface and rescued by a few kayakers. As we learnt later,whales have 53 throats and they spit out anything they can't swallow.
When we got home,we were surprised to find we 'd brought back a 54-six silverfish falling out of our shirts. And surely I've learned more about the 55 of nature.
41.A.hunt B.feed C.watch D.check
42.A.admitted B.refused C.suggested D.hesitated
43.A.blow up B.turn over C.flow away D.set off
44.A.guaranteed B.warned C.advised D.interrupted
45.A.comparison B.inspection C.repetition D.persuasion
46.A.convenient B.frightening C.amazing D.familiar
47.A.Suddenly B.Undoubtedly C.Fortunately D.Ultimately
48.A.proposal B.signal C.faith D.solution
49.A.until B.unless C.since D.before
50.A.fled B.jumped C.slipped D.dived
51.A.bear B.ignore C.imagine D.avoid
52.A.spilt B.shaken C.thrown D.moved
53.A.tiny B.dry C.rough D.swollen
54.A.sample B.souvenir C.feast D.package
55.A.power B.change C.balance D.secret

第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
April 20 marked the 13th International Chinese Language Day. And a lot of celebrations56 (hold) by the Communication University of China (CUC),the CLEC and the UNESCAP.
Officials from the organizations and CUC attended the event and delivered speeches, in which Chinese and foreign cooperation was praised for contributing57 the development of Chinese language education around the world.The Chinese language was praised to have built a bridge 58 promoted the exchange of cooperation between China and the world, as well as the 59 (globe)peace and development.
During the celebration, experts and scholars 60 (vivid) interpreted the beauty of Chinese culture from three 61 (aspect):Chinese character, Chinese painting,and traditional Chinese medicine. For example,Director Liu Hongyan presented a documentary（纪录片）62（feature）Chinese characters．
The Chinese Day event aims 63 (express) support for international Chinese education, and to reveal the charm of Chinese language and Chinese culture. At the same time, it enhances the cooperation and the 64 (understand) between people from different countries,and eventually builds 65 bright future together.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
假设你是李华，你对英语习语的学习感到困惑，请在Word Reference Forum 论坛发帖求助。内容包括：
1．说明事由；
2．征求建议：
3．表达感谢。
注意：1．写作词数应为80左右；2．请在答题卡的相应位置作答。








第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Sam was stubborn and liked to do things his own way. He liked to eat his meals one food at a time-no mixing. He wore his purple socks on Tuesdays and his lucky sweater whenever he had a spelling test.
Oscar was Sam's father. He liked to do things, his own way, too. While the neighbors mowed（割草）their lawns，Oscar-grew-a wildflower-meadow（草场）.He got a haircut on the first Thursday of every month, whether he needed it or not. And he wore his lucky sweater to every one of Sam's ball games.
Sam thought his dad was the smartest man on earth, and his dad thought Sam was the finest son a man could ever want... until the day they decided to build the tree house.
Sam had a picture in his mind.
Oscar had a picture in his mind.
The pictures didn't match.
At the store,they disagreed on how much wood to buy. They argued about how long the nails should be. They quarreled about what color paint they should pick. And when they got home,they argued and ARGUED and ARGUED about which tree was best.
Sam wanted the maple.He wouldn't give in.
His dad wanted the hackberry. He wouldn't give in,either.
The boards and the nails and the paint sat in the backyard. They sat there in the hot,summer sunshine. They sat there when the autumn leaves fell. They sat under a blanket of snow all winter.
“Sam is so stubborn,” Oscar complained to Sam's mother, “If he'd listen to reason, I could show him why the hackberry is best.”
“Why won't Dad listen to my ideas?” Sam asked his mom.
Sam's mother tried talking to Sam's dad. He wouldn't listen.
She tried talking to Sam. It did no good.
Spring came. The wildflower meadow began to bloom, and baseball practice started.Soon it was Mother's Day, and Sam made his mother a clay pot and filled it with flowers.She loved it.
注意：1．续写词数应为150左右；
2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Now Father's Day was coming up.






“Oh no! I like this,”said his dad.







































宁德市2021–2022学年度第二学期期末高二质量检测
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
1-5 CABAC 6-10ACBBC 11-15CACAB 16-20ACBAB
第二部分 阅读理解
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分, 满分37.5分）
21-23DCB 24-27BCAB 28-31DBAA 32-35DACA
第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36-40GCBEF
第三部分 英语知识运用
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）
41-45CBBAD 46-50CABDC 51-55DCABA
第二节语法填空（共10个空；每空1.5分, 满分15分；与参考答案不符的不得分 。）
56. were held 57. to 58. that/which 59. global 60. vividly
61. aspects 62. featuring 63. to express 64. understanding 65. a
第四部分 写作（共两节 满分40分）
第一节、应用文写作
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60从总分中减去2分，多写不扣分。
4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面。评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。如书写较差以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点:
1. 说明事由；
2. 征求建议；
3. 表达感谢。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档
(13—15)分
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点。
根据文章需要应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力表达良好语用所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。
有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑，完全达到了预期的写作目的。完全完成了试题规定的任务。
第四档
(10—12分)
完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一两个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试表达良好语用所致。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档
(7—9分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。
应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。
应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档
(4—6分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。
语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。
有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档
1—3分
未完成试题规定的任务。
明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。
语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。
较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。
缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。信息未能传达给读者。
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；
写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。

四、应用文写作评分细则
1、先按照5个档次的给分范围对号入座，依据要点、行文、词汇、语法、词数、书写等酌情确定分数。
2、书面表达共3个内容要点，每个内容要点4分，共12分，语言准确性（包括行文通顺、流畅、可读性强，语法结构，语句间的连接成分等）3分，合计15分。漏掉一个要点扣4分。
3、出现两三个小错误，根据文章需要使用了较高级词汇、较复杂结构，有效使用了语句间的连接成分，全文结构紧凑，可读性强，也可以评高分(13分),评卷教师要敢于评高分。
4、确定档次后，时态错误较多，在本档内扣2-3分，时态错误较少扣1分。
5、写出一个要点给4分。
6、要点齐全，错误相对较多，但不影响理解，可评（7—9分）。要点齐全，错误很多，但不影响理解，可评（4—6分）。
7、拼写错误、词汇错误只出现一个，不影响意思表达，不扣分。错2—3个扣1分，5个以上扣2分。
8、时态错误一个扣1分，多个时态错误扣分不超过3分。
9、要点认定：
考生须用比较完整的句子表达出要点。如只写出关键词而无主谓结构，不可视为表达出该要点。在表达要点的句子中，如果考生写出主谓结构及关键信息，但主谓结构有严重语言错误（如时态、语态，动词或只写出情态动词而无主语），酌情扣分（扣0.5或1分）。　
10、在同一档次内，根据语言错误的多少确定分值：1—2个错误，取该档次分值的高线；3—4个错误，取该档次分值的中线；5个错误，取该档次分值的低线；6个以上错误，可以降一档，取降档后该档分值的中高线。10个左右错误，取其降档后的低线。
Hi, everyone. Could you guys give me some advice? I’m a high school student. I am having a hard time learning English idioms. Even though I understand every single word when I listen to native speakers talking, I fail to make sense of what they say. How frustrating! It’s now my biggest headache since there are just SO many of them. They are really tough for me to master. I really need your help. Thanks in advance.

第二节、 读后续写
一、要点：
第一段：1、准备礼物（礼物应与原文线索相关） 2、父亲看到礼物
第二段：1、父子沟通 2、达成共识
二、评分原则:
1. 本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据所续写短文的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
4. 评分时，应主要从以下四个方面考虑：
(1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度；
(2)内容的丰富性；
(3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性；
(4)上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个重要方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
三、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次
描述
第五档
(21-25分)
1. 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
2. 内容丰富。
3. 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不会影响意义表达。
4. 有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档
(16-20分)
1. 与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
2. 内容比较丰富。
3. 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
4. 比较有效的使用语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档
(11-15分)
1. 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。
2. 写出了若干有关内容。
3. 应用语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求，虽有些许错误，但不影响意义表达。
4. 运用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档
(6-10分)
1. 与所给短文有一定关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度衔接。
2. 写出了一些有关内容。
3. 语法结构简单和词汇项目有限，有语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义表达。
4 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档
(1-5分)
1. 与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
2. 产出内容太少。
3. 语法结构简单，词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义表达。
4. 缺少语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯性。
0
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。