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    2021-2022学年福建省宁德市高一下学期期末质量检测英语试题Word版含答案

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    2021-2022学年福建省宁德市高一下学期期末质量检测英语试题Word版含答案

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    这是一份2021-2022学年福建省宁德市高一下学期期末质量检测英语试题Word版含答案,共12页。试卷主要包含了5分,共7等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    (考试时间:120分钟 满分150分)
    温馨提示:请将全部答案填写在答题卡上,
    第一部分 听力(共两节,共30分)
    第一节(共5小题:每小题1.5分,共7.5分)
    听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你将有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. Hw will the man travel?
    A. By plane.B. By train.C. By car.
    2. What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
    A. A bk.B. Stars.C. A mvie.
    3. What des the man want nw?
    A. Ice cream.B. Milk.C. Water.
    4. Hw much did the man pay fr the cap?
    A. $10.B. $15.C. $20.
    5. When did the man leave cllege?
    A. In 1985.B. In 1987.C. In 1989
    第二节(共15小题:每小题1.5分,共22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟:听完后,每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7小题。
    6. What did the man think f this weekend?
    A. Bring.B. Tiring.C. Satisfying.
    7. What is the Italian city like?
    A. Ancient with a lng histry.B. Mdern with tall buildings.C. Crwded with heavy traffic.
    听第7段材料,回答第8、9小题。
    8. What happened t the wman?
    A. She missed her flight.B. She lst her bag.C. She had her clthes brken.
    9. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
    A. At the airprt.B. On the plane.C. At a stre.
    听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
    10. Why did the man stay at hme last night?
    A. He had sme hmewrk.B. He was nt well.C. His parents were ut.
    11. What game did the man watch last night?
    A. Basketball.B. Tennis.C. Vlleyball.
    12. What did the wman d last night?
    A. She watched a game.B. She saw a mvie.C. She did her hmewrk.
    听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
    13. Why des the man make the call?
    A. T give his address.B. T bk a bus.C. T invite the wman.
    14. What is the man ging t d next Saturday?
    A. Hld a party.B. G camping.C. G hiking.
    15. Where will the speakers meet?
    A. At the man’s.B. At a bus stp.C. At Charles’.
    16. When will the speakers meet?
    A. At 7: 00.B. At 7: 10.C. At 8: 00.
    听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
    17. Where will Jack’s family mve?
    A. Ls Angeles.B. New Yrk.C. San Francisc.
    18. Why is Jack happy t mve t the new huse?
    A. The garden is bigger.B. The climate there is better.C. The huse is mre mdern.
    19. What is David interested in?
    A. Surfing.B. Playing ftball.C. Playing the pian.
    20. Hw many peple are there in Jack’s family?
    A. 3.B. 4.C. 5.
    第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,共40分)
    第一节(共11小题;每小题2. 5分,共27. 5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳答案。
    A
    One f the best ways t sightsee yur way thrugh a new city is with the help f a lcal. With this in mind, U. S. News runded up several Chicag’s best guided turs. Yu’ll gain a cultural and histrical understanding f the Windy City during these turs.
    Chicag Fd Planet
    The three-hur tur centers n the West Lp neighbrhd’s amazing fd scene and the histry and culture f the area. Ticket prices cst $65 fr adults and $50 fr children ages 12 and yunger. Turs are ffered Thursday thrugh Sunday at 1 p. m.
    Abslutely Chicag Segway Tur
    The 8-mile jurney n easy-t-ride, tw-wheeled, battery-pwered vehicles lasts abut 21 hurs. It has many f the city’s mst ppular attractins, including Millennium Park, Grant Park, Mnre Harbr, the Field Museum. Tickets cst at least $76, depending n date and time. Nte that riders must be at least 12 years ld. Turs are ffered daily.
    Bbby’s Bike Hike Chicag
    This tur cmbines bicycling, fd and beer. The fur-hur, 13-mile ride is frm Gld Cast t Lincln Park neighbrhds with stps fr pizza, beer, cupcakes and ht dgs. Tickets fr adults, which include the bike rental as well as fd and drinks, cst $86.99 fr weekday rides (weekend rides are slightly mre expensive). Participants must be at least 21 years ld.
    Chicag Pizza Tur
    On this 31-hur tur, yu’ll visit fur independently run neighbrhd pizzerias and taste six r mre pieces. Many reviewers insist that the tur is abut mre than just pizza and cvers Chicag histry, architecture and culture. Tickets cst $60 fr adults and $36 fr children.
    21. What can yu d n Abslutely Chicag Segway Tur?
    A. Taste sme pizza.B. Enjy sme beer.
    C. Visit a museum.D. G t Lincln Park.
    22. Which f the fllwing is the cheapest fr adults?
    A. Chicag Fd Planet.B. Abslutely Chicag Segway Tur.
    C. Bbby’s Bike Hike Chicag.D. Chicag Pizza Tur.
    23. What is the purpse f this text?
    A. T prmte fd sales.B. T intrduce Chicag.
    C. T share a travel review.D. T recmmend sme turs.
    B
    It is natural fr yung peple t admire cl and gd-lking yung “idls” (偶像). We spend a lt f time caring abut them-even mre time than we spend n ur studies r wrk. We ften wnder: What makes them s ppular? What culd I d t be cl like them?
    Well, guess what? Many f yur idls are nly made t “lk” cl. If yu culd see int their private lives, yu wuld find these stars aren’t s bright. Their beauty is nly skin-deep. Sme f them might nt be as hnest, kind r hard-wrking as yu are! They aren’t wrth the ppularity that they enjy at all!
    When I was a teenager, I, alng with mst f my classmates, had admired pp idls, t. Then, ne day, I discvered Lenard Chen and Neil Yung. They were rdinary-lking peple wh played the guitar while sitting n a bench. They wre n flashy(奢华的) clthes, and they had n screaming fans. They didn’t need t be flashy because their sngs were great and meaningful. They tld the truth: Life is hard and the rad yu take might smetimes be lnely. Mst f all, they taught me that it was kay if I was nt ppular and cl all f the time. I still listen t them tday.
    Mdern “idl culture” ften sends the wrng message that life is always easy and fun. But the best actrs, the tp-ranking sprts stars and the mst creative scientists all have scars(伤疤) frm the stress f dealing with many life difficulties. Many f the successful “utging” peple we admire tday were shy when they were teenagers.
    Idls can serve as imprtant rle mdels in ur lives, s it’s very imprtant t chse the right nes. We shuld celebrate peple wh teach us imprtant values that can help t guide us n the rad ahead. The next time yu see sme pretty, ppular “stars,” ask yurself: D I really need these peple in my life?
    24. What is the functin f the underlined sentences in the first paragraph?
    A. T prve the authr’s argument.
    B. T interest readers in reading further.
    C. T shw the imprtance f the idl culture.
    D. T serve as the tpic sentence f the paragraph.
    25. What’s the authr’s attitude twards admiring idls?
    A. He understands it.B. He is against it.
    C. He supprts it.D. He is uninterested in it.
    26. What can we infer frm Paragraph3?
    A. All the teenagers admire pp stars.B. Lenard and Neil are famus musicians.
    C. Life is easy and fun fr stars.D. Being ppular and cl is nt necessarily imprtant.
    27. Which f the fllwing ideas des the authr agree with?
    A. Teenagers shuld be cl like stars.B. Teenagers shuld say n t the wrng idls.
    C. Rle mdels shuld be chsen frm idls.D. Wrng messages are frm idl culture.
    C
    Nt even the sea is safe frm the glare(强光) f humans’ light at night, Researchers published the first glbal maps f cean light pllutin. It shws large parts f the sea lit up at night. And that risks cnfusing r disrupting the behavirs f sea life.
    Tim Smyth led a team t research where in the water this glw is strngest. Smyth and his clleagues started with a wrld map f man-made night-sky brightness that had been created in 2016. Then they added data n the cean and atmsphere. Sme data came frm shipbard measurements f man-made light in the water. Others came frm satellite images that judge hw clear the water is. Particles(微粒) in the water, such as tiny flating plants and animals, can affect hw far dwnward light travels. These factrs vary frm place t place and may change with the seasns. The team als used cmputers t cpy hw different wavelengths f light mve thrugh water.
    Next, they wanted t knw hw that underwater light might affect animals. Nt all species will be easily affected. The team fcused n cpepds(桡足亚纲甲壳动物) . These cmmn creatures are a key part f many cean fd webs. They use light as a signal t mve all tgether t the dark deep, seeking safety frm ther surface creatures. Nrmally they use the sun r the winter mn as their signal. T much man-made light can mess up their usual patterns.
    Light pllutin is strngest in abut three feet f the water. Here, man-made light can be strng enugh t cnfuse the cpepds. Nearly 2 millin square kilmeters f cean get such strng night light. That’s an area abut the size f Mexic. Farther dwn, the light gets weaker. But even 65 feet deep, it’s still bright enugh t bther cpepds acrss 840,000 square kilmeters f cean.
    The team described its findings December 13 in Elementa: Science f the Anthrpcene.
    28. Which f the fllwing best explains the underlined wrd “disrupting” in Paragraph 1?
    A. Upsetting.B. Observing.C. Ensuring.D. Prtecting.
    29. What d we knw abut cpepds frm the passage?
    A. They are nt affected by underwater light.B. They can escape attacks with the help f light.
    C. They are main eaters f ther creatures.D. They can weaken the effect f man-made light.
    30. Hw des the authr shw the seriusness f light pllutin in Paragraph 4?
    A. By stating pinins.B. By listing numbers.
    C. By raising questins.D. By giving reasns.
    31. What can be a suitable title fr the text?
    A. Light Pllutin frm Sea LifeB. Living Cnditins f Cpepds
    C. Discveries f CpepdsD. Light Pllutin Even in Sea
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,共12. 5分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两项为多余选项。
    Nt many peple are interested in spending time, mney, and effrt t learn a freign language these days. They think that knwing their mther tngue and the English Language is gd enugh. __32__ I feel strngly that everyne shuld learn at least ne ther freign language in their lifetime.
    The mst bvius benefit f knwing anther language is that yu can cmmunicate mre easily with peple frm different parts f the wrld. Yu will be able t learn mre abut anther culture and frm new friendships. Traveling t ther cuntries wuld be easy. __33__ In additin, yu will be able t enjy mre variety in entertainment and reading material.
    __34__ Students wh learn an additinal language besides English are knwn t d better in English and Mathematics. This is because the skills invlved in learning a new language such as analytical skills are equally imprtant in learning ther subjects. As yu learn a new language, yu practice these skills and becme even better.
    Finally, the ability t cmmunicate in anther language is valuable when yu want t get a jb. __35__ This is why yu will be able t deal with peple frm ther parts f the wrld. Learning a freign language des nt nly make it easier fr yu t find a jb but als makes yu mre valuable t yur emplyer.
    In cnclusin, there are many benefits that cme frm learning a freign language. Therefre, I strngly recmmend that everyne learn an additinal language. __36__
    A. The benefits gained are wrth the time and effrt spent.
    B. Imagine being able t read and understand Japanese cartns.
    C. Yu will have the advantage ver thse wh knw fewer languages.
    D. Learning a freign language can als help yu imprve yur studies.
    E. This is a pity because there are many benefits t learning a freign language.
    F. Learning a new language fr children culd be as imprtant as learning music.
    G. Fr example, knwing French, yu can easily travel in mst Eurpean cuntries.
    第三部分 语言知识运用(共三节,共40分)
    第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,共15分)
    阅读下面短文,从A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    Many years ag, when I was driving n the highway, the car in frnt f me had a flat tire (轮胎). It went ut f __37__ and crashed int a big tree n the radside. I __38__ my car and walked up t see if they were OK. The lady driver was clearly in a state f __39__. She was shaking and I asked if she needed help. She asked t __40__ my phne. Midway thrugh the call, she __41__ it back and asked me t speak t her __42__. I explained where we were and he __43__ me t drive her t the nearest highway service statin.
    Cnsidering the time and the fact that she was __44__, I agreed it was the safest thing t d. We drve dwn t the statin and went inside fr a cffee. The place was mre r less __45__ and I didn’t feel cmfrtable leaving her n her wn, s I __46__ with her until 2 hurs later, when her husband __47__. They bth thanked me prfusely. I said my __48__ and gt back n the highway.
    Tw years later, I __49__ fr a psitin at a bank. The interviewer __50__ t be the lady wh had the accident n the highway. In the interview, she said “I’ve already knwn what kind f persn yu are, thank yu again. The __51__ is yurs if yu want it.”
    37. A. businessB. styleC. useD. cntrl
    38. A. drveB. bardedC. caughtD. parked
    39. A. reliefB. shckC. gratitudeD. shame
    40. A. brrwB. answerC. shwD. check
    41. A. handedB. gtC. pushedD. threw
    42. A. fatherB. husbandC. friendD. brther
    43. A. beggedB. rderedC. invitedD. prmised
    44. A. hmesickB. carelessC. selfishD. alne
    45. A. emptyB. nisyC. tidyD. smelly
    46. A. wrkedB. arguedC. stayedD. lived
    47. A. gave upB. turned upC. wke upD. cheered up
    48. A. greetingsB. wrriesC. gdbyesD. thughts
    49. A. cmpetedB. sentC. paidD. thanked
    50. A. desiredB. happenedC. pretendedD. failed
    51. A. planB. hnurC. rleD. dream
    第二节 完成句子(共10个空;每空1分,共10分)
    52. Why nt ________ ________ (参加……的选拔) fr the schl ftball team?
    53. Hearing the news, he sn gave up the attempt ________ ________ (绝望地).
    54. In the 20th century, the suthern part f Ireland ________ ________ (脱离) frm the UK.
    55. Our supply f water will ________ ________ (耗尽) if the drught cntinues fr ne mre mnth.
    56. One wman ________ ________ (被……绊倒) the stne and her water pt went crashing t the grund.
    第三节 语法填空(共10小题,每小题1.5分,共15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Befre the USSR sent the Sputnik 1 t rbit Earth in 1957 and Yuri Gagarin int space in 1961, explring space was just __57__ dream. American Neil Armstrng stepped nt the mn in 1969, __58__ (make) “ne giant leap fr mankind”. After this, many mre gals __59__ (achieve). Althugh scientists tried t make sure everything was all right, accidents still happened. All the astrnauts n the USSR’s Syuz 11 __60__ America’s Challenger died during their missins. These disasters made everyne sad and __61__ (disappint), but the desire t explre space cntinued. The Internatinal Space Statin __62__ astrnauts frm different cuntries wrk tgether is a gd example. China became the third cuntry __63__ (send) humans int space in 2003, when Yang Liwei __64__ (successful) rbited Earth in Shenzhu 5, fllwed __65__ further Shenzhu missins and vehicles t explre the mn, Jade Rabbit and Chang’e 4. Eurpe, the US and China nw plan t explre Mars and Jupiter. Thrugh space __66__ (explre), scientists hpe future discveries will enable us t understand hw the universe began and hw t survive well int the future.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节 应用文写作(满分15分)
    假定你是李华,你校将举办庆祝共青团建团100周年英语演讲活动,请以“Hw t be an excellent teenager”为主题写一篇演讲稿。要点如下:
    1.建议(如学会分享,与人沟通等)及其理由;
    2.发出倡议。
    注意:1.词数80左右;
    2.开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数;
    3.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
    My dear friends,
    I am very pleased t stand here and give a speech. __________________________________________________
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    That’s all, thank yu!
    第二节读后续写(满分25分)
    阅读下面短文,根据所给情节进行续写,使之构成一个完整的故事。
    On Saturday night, my best friend called and invited me t her birthday the next day. I was very excited t g there, but I needed permissin frm my parents.
    I went t my dad’s rm and sftly said, “Dad, tmrrw is my best friend’s birthday and I really want t g.” Papa said, “OK. I dn’t mind, but ask yur mm.”
    I asked my mm and she said, “OK. Yu can g, but yu have t be back befre 10.”
    The next mrning my mm was surprised t see me. N alarm. N Mm’s warning. I just wke up by myself. Finally, the whle day had passed and it was party time. My dad drpped me ff at my friend’s place and tld me that he wuld pick me up at 10. I said “OK” and ran away.
    I enjyed myself a lt at the party. We had dinner and played s many games. It was 10 finally. I remembered my mm telling me that I shuld be back befre 10. I came ut and started searching fr my dad, but I culd nt find him. I was s wrried and scared. I waited and waited, and then I started walking. I thught at least I culd walk hme as my huse was 20 minutes away frm my friend’s. As I was walking, I was crying as I had never walked alne n the rad that late at night.
    Suddenly I heard smene shuting smething. I was scared and started walking fast. I thught sme criminal(不法分子) was there. As I was walking fast, I heard smene walking fast behind me. I started running and crying, and then I saw sme parked cars. I hid behind the cars. I saw a shadw searching fr me. I hped smene wuld help me. After a while, I culd nt see the shadw, s I came ut slwly and ran twards my hme.
    注意:
    1.续写词数应为150左右;
    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    Paragraph 1:
    Finally, I arrived hme, and I began crying when I saw my mm. ______________________________________
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Paragraph 2:
    Hearing what my dad said, my mm culdn’t help laughing. __________________________________________
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    宁德市2021-2022学年度第二学期期末高一质量检测
    英语试题参考答案及评分标准
    第一部分 听力(共20小题,每小题1. 5分,满分30分)
    1-5 BACBA6-10 CABAC11-15 BACBA16-20 BCBAC
    第二部分 阅读理解
    第一节(共11小题;每小题2. 5分,满分27. 5分)
    21-23 CDD24-27 BADB28-31 ABBD
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2. 5分,满分12. 5分)
    32-36 EGDCA
    第三部分 英语知识运用
    第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    37-41 DDBAA 42-46 BADAC 47-51 BCABC
    第二节 完成句子(共10个空;每空1分,满分10分)
    52. try ut53. in despair54. brke away55. run ut
    56. tripped ver n
    第三节 语法填空(共10个空;每空1. 5分,满分15分)
    57. a58. making59. were achieved60. and61. disappinted
    62. where63. t send64. successfully65. by66. explratin
    第四部分 写作(共两节满分40分)

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