2022年甘肃省酒泉市肃州区中考二模英语试题(word版含答案)

这是一份2022年甘肃省酒泉市肃州区中考二模英语试题(word版含答案)，共9页。试卷主要包含了听力理解， A，Why des Mrs等内容，欢迎下载使用。
2022年中考适应性检测（二）
英语试卷
I.听力部分（20分）
1.听力理解（分4小节，共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
第一节：听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。每个句子读两遍。

1.______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______
第二节：听句子，选择恰当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。
（ ）6. A. Yes, please. B. Good idea. C. Of course, it is.
（ ）7. A. Certainly you are. B. Sure. Hold on, please. C. I’ll do that.
（ ）8. A. Oh, they are over there. B. I'm glad you've found it. C. Go straight and tur left.
（ ）9. A. OK, I will. B. Yes, I think so. C. Good for you.
（ ）l0. A. Never mind. B. You are welcome. C. I'm sorry.
第三节：听对话及问题，选择能回答所提问题的最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
（ ）11. How does the girl want to go around Jiuquan?
A. By bike. B. By car. C. By bus.
（ ）12. When will Alex's mother arrive at his school?
A. At 4:20 p.m. B. At 4:30 p.m. C. At 4:40 p.m.
（ ）13. What is the boy's uncle?
A. A teacher. B. A writer. C. A shop owner.
（ ）14. Who borrowed the bike yesterday?
A. Carol. B. Paul. C. Larry.
（ ）15.Why does Mrs. Green want to learn English?
A. To make more friends. B. To find a job in a school. C. To travel around the world.
第四节：听短文，根据其内容选出能回答下列问题的最佳答案。短文读两遍。
（ ）16. The World Milk Day is on
A. June 1st B. June 21st C. July 1st
（ ）17. ______ first started the World Milk Day.
A. Germans B. Russians C. Americans
（ ）18. Milk is called the best ______ in the passage.
A. gift B. drink C. medicine
（ ）19. People should drink ______ of milk every day according to scientists.
A. one cup B. two cups C. three cups
（ ）20. People can't eat ______ with milk.
A. hamburgers or tomatoes B. apples or carrots C. chocolates or oranges
笔试部分
II.语法与情景对话（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
阅读下列各题，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选择一个最佳答案。
（ ）21. — Excuse me, where can I find ______ photo that won the first prize?
— Follow me. I'll show it to you.
A. a B. an C. the D. /
（ ）22. — Amy, I'm sorry I mistook your book for ______ and took it home.
— Never mind. Bring it to school tomorrow.
A. me B. mine C. my D. I
（ ）23. — Peter, would you like to go swimming with me?
— What a pity! I'm free every day ______ today.
A. besides B. for C. except D. among
（ ）24. — Sorry, I'm afraid Dr. Johnson isn't at his office now.
— Well, I ______ him on his mobile phone instead.
A. called B. have called C. will call D. is calling
（ ）25. —______ the house after your birthday party, Alice.
—No problem. It's my job.
A. Cleans B. Cleaning C. To clean D. Clean
（ ）26. — How are you today, Mike?
— I’m ______ now. I don't think this medicine is good for me.
A. badly B. better C. well D. worse
（ ）27. — Is this blue schoolbag Lucy's?
—No. It ______ be hers. Her schoolbag is pink.
A. must B. mustn't C. can't D. may
（ ）28. — Do you know the Chinese saying “A tree can't make a forest”?
— Yes, it tells us that, ______ is very important in everything.
A. ability B. value C. spirit D. teamwork
（ ）29. Which sentence is NOT the correct using of “get” according to the mini tips?
A. How often do you get really angry?
B. I got very tired these days with so much schoolwork.
C. If you want to get more information, please visit our website.
D. I get bored with the TV program, because there is a lot of advertisements in it.

（ ）30. — My name is Jonathan. Shall I spell it for you?
— ______.
A. If you don't mind B. Not at all C. It doesn't matter D. Nice to meet you
（ ）31. — Simon failed the exam again.
— That's not surprising. Computer games ______ too much of his time.
A. take out B. take away C. take off D. take up
（ ）32. — I'm going to have a bicycle tour in the countryside this weekend.
—______
A. Well done. B. Take it easy. C. What a pity! D. Have a good time!
（ ）33. — The second Tiangong Class is over. Now can you tell me ______?
— Well. My favorite part is the “ice and snow” experiment done by Wang Yaping.
A. how long the class lasted B. where the ground classrooms are
C. what experiment you like best D. who did the “ice and snow” experiment
（ ）34. — I heard that AECM（抗疫表彰会）was held in Lanzhou on April 26th.
— Yes. I really look up to those heroes in Gansu ______ have made great achievements（成就）
A. who B. which C. where D. whose
（ ）35. — One-third of the six cars in the parking lot are black, the left of them are white. How many cars in the parking lot are white?
— Let me think. It's ______.
A. Two B. Four C. Three D. One
（ ）36. — Of the following words, which underlined part has a different sound?
— ______ does.
A. Mouth B. Both C. Think D. These
（ ）37. — Excuse me, can you tell me the way to the nearest underground station?
— Walk straight on ______ you see a white building. It's right there.
A. though B. since C. until D. if
（ ）38. When you stop a stranger in the street to ask for directions, start by saying “______.”
A. Excuse me B. I'm sorry C. Please D. Thank you
（ ）39. Which sentence uses the passive（被动语态）？
A. Is he often invited to go to his friends' parties?
B. Will he go to Lisa's housewarming party next Sunday?
C. Is Tina with her friends going to the library?
D. Has the man caught the thief?
（ ）40.— There is a beautiful park near your school, ______ ______?
— Yes. I often go walking there.
A. Is there B. isn't there C. are there D. aren't there
III.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

In February, 2021, a young man in Italy posted a video on Tik Tok about his new neighbor-and their unbelievable piano talent! They 41 their friendship by two pianos separated by one wall.
One day in January, the young man 42 an idea when he heard the music from his neighbour. He wrote a note to his neighbour and 43 him to play a song together: the classic “My Heart Will Go On” by Celine Dion.
The next day, hearing the music from the neighbor, the young man was both 44 and moved. Their communication soon 45 piano duets（二重奏）through the wall, where each of them would create great music together.
Later, the young man 46 that his neighbour's name was Emil and he was 78 years old. His wife had passed away in December from COVID-19.Emil felt so sad and the only 47 thing left to him was playing the piano. He played it for his wife at 2 p.m. every weekend.
48 , Emil passed away in his sleep a few weeks later. When the young man learned the news, he felt so sad. To express his feeling, the young man wrote a letter to Emil, “Dear Emil, I knew very little about you, 49 you changed my life. You gave me back my passion（激情）, and we shared that with the world. You'll be in my 50 . I'll keep playing, thinking of how powerful music can be. You said I was your light, but you've been mine, too. Bye, Emil.”
（ ）41. A. heard B. changed C. built D. cut
（ ）42. A. came up with B. looked forward to C. stayed away from D. got out of
（ ）43. A. allowed B. invited C. took D. taught
（ ）44. A. bored B. tired C. excited D. worried
（ ）45. A. turned into B. broke into C. looked into D. ran into
（ ）46. A. learned B. said C. hoped D. thought
（ ）47. A. famous B. correct C. strange D. happy
（ ）48. A. Unluckily B. Hopefully C. Perfectly D. Probably
（ ）49. A. and B. but C. so D. or
（ ）50. A. way B. house C. bag D. heart
IV.阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
A
阅读以下材料，根据其内容判断其后各个小题正、误。正确的选A，错误的选B。
A Letter From 2070
Hi, this is the year 2070.I have just turned 50.hut I look like a person of 85.Because I don't have enough water to drink. I'm afraid I don't have much time left to live. I'm already one of the oldest people in this society.
I remember when I was five years old. Everything was very different. There were lots of trees in the parks. I could enjoy a shower for half an hour. At that time, women had beautiful hair. Now we have to shave（剃）our heads to keep them clean without the use of water.
I remember there were “Save Water” warnings in many places, but nobody paid attention. We believed water would last forever. Now, all the rivers and lakes are either dry or polluted. Water is much more ex-pensive than gold. In the past, doctors suggested adults drink eight glasses of water a day. Now days, I am only allowed half a glass. People die young.
When my son asks me about my childhood. I tell him about how pleasant it was to fish in the rivers and how healthy people were. When he asks, “Why is there no clean water now?” I feel very sorry. I belong to a person who turned a blind eye to all the warnings.
I wish this letter could travel back in time and that it would make people living in the 2020s truly understand the importance of saving water.
Best, Natalie
（ ）51. According to the passage, a person who is 85 is one of the oldest people in society.
（ ）52. There used to be lots of trees and women used to have beautiful hair.
（ ）53. Now, water is much more expensive than gold because it will last forever.
（ ）54. The writer probably didn't save water when he was young.
（ ）55. The article is written to give people advice on how to save water.
B
阅读以下材料，根据其内容回答其后各个小题。
Do you still remember something lovely happened when you were little? Memories return every time I read or hear these sweet poems.
①I can set the table.
I can sweep the floor.
I can wash my clothes.
And count to forty-four.
I can wash dishes.
And clean my bedroom.
There is so much I can do.
②New Baby Brother
I was sitting in classroom when I heard the news.
“Your baby brother is born, and wants to see you!”
Dad got me from school and to the hospital with no delay.
Hurrying on our journey, he almost forgot the way!
My brother's hands were tiny, and wrinkly soft, like a prune.
After he smiled at me, Mom said, “He'll come home soon!”
Everyone “oohing” and “aahing”, they said “He is so sweet”.
And one day he'll walk around on those little baby feet!

（ ）56. From the first poem, we can infer（推断）that “I” was ______.
A. patient B. lucky C. careful D. helpful
（ ）57.According to the second poem, where was “I” when hearing the news?
A. In the hospital. B. At school. C. In the store. D. At home
（ ）58.The underlined（划线）part “with no delay” in the second poem means ______.
A.不迟到 B.不耽搁 C.不阻挡 D.不匆忙
（ ）59.How did the family feel to have the new baby?
A. Excited B. Worried C. Relaxed D. Surprised
（ ）60.What are the two poems mainly about?
A. Sister and brother. B. Housework and hobbies. C. Family life and love. D. New baby and humans.
V.任务型完形填空（共10空；每空1分，满分10分）
用方框中所给单词或短语的适当形式填空，使短文通顺、正确、连贯，每个单词限用一次。
We feel totally which accepted festival added close discussion Although
The sweetest memory of my childhood is about a round table. When I was still little, my whole family would get together on different traditional 61 to have dinner. We kids would be sitting around or playing hide-and-seek under the table while the grown-ups were having a 62 .
When I got a bit older.my aunt brought back her boyfriend and my grandma cheerfully 63 another seat to the round table. It seemed a little more crowded（拥挤的）, but we all felt much 64 to each other. When I was twelve, my grandpa passed away. That made us 65 sad. However, when the whole family got together once again, we 66 agreed that his chair, his bowl and his chopsticks should remain the same, even though his seat was empty, we felt like that he had never left us.
We all have a table like this in 67 homes. It is a sign of reunion（聚会）of our family showing our feelings. 68 the reason why we come together may be different, the feelings behind it are the same. Usually different cultures are 69 by us around the table. What's more, we express the love not only for our family, but also for a community, our nation and even the whole world.
The history of our nation has been the stories of looking for or running to the round table 70 we belong to. The round table has been a symbol of the Chinese feelings. It was, it is and will always be.
61.______ 62. ______ 63. ______ 64. ______ 65. ______
66. ______ 67. ______ 68. ______ 69. ______ 70. ______
VI.口语交际（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
根据对话内容，从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。（有两项多余）
A: Hello, Carla! You look unhappy.71______
B: I failed the chemistry exam last Friday.
A: 72______ But I believe you can do better next time.
B: I really don't know how to study it well. Could you give some advice?
A: Sure. 73______
B: I know where I didn't use to do well. I need to write down all the key information that teacher says in class.
A: What's more, you need to read your notes many times in your free time.
B: 74______
A: It can help you memorize something important. 75______
B: I see. I'll follow your advice. Thanks a lot.
A: You're welcome.
A.I usually listen to the teacher and take notes carefully in class.
B. What's the matter?
C. Why?
D. You can try studying with a group.
E. Repeating something can help you memorize well.
F. What can I do with it?
G. I'm sorry to hear that.
VII.词汇考查（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据句意，用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
76.— Is Jack in the next room?
— Well, it's hard to say. But I heard ______ (he) speaking loudly when I passed by just now.
77. It is ______ (possible) for any fish to live in this dirty river.
78. The first thing he does after getting up is brushing his ______ (tooth).
79. The______ (win) of the photo competition was a 30-year-old man from Shanghai.
80. Every morning the students greet the teachers ______ (polite) with a smile at the school gate.
81. James' uncle is in his ______ (twenty), but he likes clothes from the 1960s.
82. Red Sorghum is a famous novel ______ (write)by Mo Yan.
83. Two young Chinese names ______ (shine) brightly at the Beijing 2022 Winter Games: skier Gu Ailing and snowboarder Su Yiming.
84. The background music sounds ______ (noise). Please turn it down.
85. Beijing is now the first city ______ (host) both the summer and the winter Olympics.
VIII.根据所给汉语提示完成句子共5小题：每空1分，满分10分)
86熬夜太晚对你身体不好。
It's bad for your health to ______ ______ too late.
87.约翰太粗心了，不能照看好他的宠物。
John is______ ______ to look after his pets well.
88.从今以后，我们要更加努力学习英语。
We must study English harder ______ now ______.
89.通往成功的道路是多么艰难！
______ difficult the road to ______ is!
90.有志者，事竟成。
Where there is a ______, there is a______.
IX.书面表达（满分10分）
劳动教育（Labor education）非常重要，劳动不但有助于我们掌握基本的生活技能，还有助于我们养成热爱生活的态度。请根据思维导图的提示写一篇英语短文，介绍你认为适合中学生参与的劳动并呼吁大家多多劳动。

要求：1.文中需包含思维导图中的主要内容，并适当发挥。
2.句子及篇章结构准确、连贯、书写规范。
3.文章不得出现考生的真实姓名、校名和地名。
4.词数：80词左右。（文章开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数；无需抄写在答题卡对应作答区域）
Labor education is really important. It helps us master（掌握）basic life skills and develop the right view of life. As middle school students; we can ______
Why not join me and improve yourself through labor education?
2022年中考英语适应性检测（二）参考答案
听力部分
I.听力理解（分4小节，共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
1-5 BDECA 6-10 BBCAC 11-15 CABCC 16-20 AACBC
笔试部分
II.语法与情景对话（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
21-25 CBCCD 26-30 DCDCA 31-35 DDCAB 36-40 DCAAB
III.完形填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
41-45 CABCA 46-50 ADABD
IV.阅读理解（共10小题；每小题2分，满分20分）
51-55 BABAB 56-60 DBBAC
V.任务型完形填空（共10空；每空1分，满分10分）
61. festivals 62. discussion 63. added 64. closer 65. feel
66. totally 67. our 68.Although 69.accepted 70.which
VI.口语交际（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
71-75BGACE
VII.词汇考查（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
76.him 77.impossible 78.teeth 79.winner 80.politely
81.twenties 82.written 83.shone 84.noisy 85.to host
VIII.根据所给汉语提示完成句子（共5小题；每空1分，满分10分
86. stay up 87.too careless 88.from, on
89.How. success 90.will, way
IX.书面表达（满分10分）
略