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    河南省商丘市2022-2023学年九年级上学期期中英语试题(含答案)

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    河南省商丘市2022-2023学年九年级上学期期中英语试题(含答案)

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    这是一份河南省商丘市2022-2023学年九年级上学期期中英语试题(含答案),共10页。


    测试范围:Unit 1 - Unit 3
    注意事项:
    1.本试卷共8页,六大题,满分120分,测试时间100分钟。
    2.请用蓝、黑色钢笔或圆珠笔直接答在试卷上。
    3.答卷前请将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
    一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
    ()1. When will the next bus leave fr the airprt?
    A. In three minutes.B. In six minutes.
    ()2. What is David ging t d?
    A. Tell a secret.B. Make a call.
    ()3. What is Jack’s suggestin?
    A. T be patient.B. T be careful.
    ()4. Where is Mike ging n vacatin?
    A. T Washingtn.B. T Chicag.
    ()5. Where did the man put his passprt?
    A. On the table.B. On the sfa.
    第二节听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三 个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
    ()6. What’s wrng with the man’ friend?
    A. He had acar accident.B. He caught a cld.C. He gt a headache.
    ()7. What des the wman advise the man t buy?
    A. Pears.B. Apples.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
    ()8. Hw ften did Lily have Mrs. Brwn’ class?
    A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.
    ()9. What can we knw abut Mrs. Brwn?
    A. She helped Lily a lt.B. She is frm America.C. She is als gd at French.
    听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
    ()10. When was the English Day in Li Mei’s schl?
    A. Last Wednesday.B. Last Thursday.C. Last Friday.
    ()11. Hw lng did the reading last?
    A. Fr tw hurs.B. Fr three hurs.C. Fr fur hurs.
    ()12. Where was the English music shw held?
    A. On the playgrund.B. In the classrm.C. In the schl hall.
    听下面一段对话,回答第1至第1三个小题。
    ()13. Hw des Jack feel?
    A . Excited .B. Sad.C. Happy.
    ()14. Wh is Dave?
    A. Jacks friend.B. Jacks brther.C. Jacks neighbr.
    ()15. What des the wman advise the man t d?
    A. T talk t Dave.B.T call the plice.C. T mve away.
    第三节听下面几段短文。按照你所听到的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。

    16.17.18.19.20.
    二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
    阅读下面四篇语言材料,然后按文后要求做题。
    A
    根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
    ()21. Hw lng will the English Festival last?
    A. Fr ne mnth.B. Fr tw mnths.
    C. Fr three mnths.D. Fr fur mnths.
    ()22.____is rganizing the English Festival.
    A. The English teachersB. The Students Unin
    C. The Speech ClubD. The Happy English Club
    ()23. Jenny is in Class 8,Grade 9,s which activity can she take part in?
    A. Garden Party and Cs Play.
    B. Speech Cntest and Cs Play.
    C. Speech Cntest and Garden Party.
    D. Little Singer Cmpetitin and Garden Party.
    ()24. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the festival?
    A. Yu can listen t sme Chinese sngs at lunchtime.
    B. Yu can talk with teachers in English in the English Festival.
    C. Yu needn't d anything n weekends fr the English festival.
    D. If yu want ttakepartin the activities, yu can call 84980132.
    ()25. Where wuld yu prbably read the text?
    B
    A little by almst thught fhimself as the unluckiest childin the wrldbecausehe was brn
    with a lame (病的)leg. He seldm played with his classmates and always lwered his head withut a wrd.
    One spring, the by's father gave each child a small tree t plant, “ Whever grws thebest tree willget a favrite gift , ”he said tthem. Seeinghisbrthers andsisters watering the trees happily in the garden , a terrible idea hit his mind: he hped the tree he planted wuld die sn. S he never cared abut it.
    A few days later, he was surprised t find it nt nly did nt die but als grew sme fresh leaves and it lked greener and healthier than the thers. One night, lking at the bright mnlight utside the windw he suddenly remembered what his teacher nce said mst plants grew at night.
    Why nt g t see the lvely tree? When he came t the garden, he fund his father was watering his tree carefully. At that time, he understd :his father was secretly taking gd care f his small tree! He returned t his rm with the tears running ut. Many years passed. The little by becme a great president f the UnitedStates. His name wasFranklinRsevelt.
    根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
    ()26. Thelittle by regarded himself as all the time.
    A. a helpful snB. a kind brtherC. an unlucky kidD. a clever student
    ()27. Thechildren planted trees.
    A. by the riverB. in the gardenC. near the schlD. alng the street
    ()28. Theby’s tree grew best because .
    A. his teacher gave him sme advice
    B. it was the best tree at the beginning
    C. his father lked after it really well
    D. ther children did nt water their tree
    ()29. Thelittle by became a when he grew up.
    A. presidentB. painterC. btanistD. dctr
    ()30. The stry mainly tells us .
    A. health is very imprtantB. it’s hard t get t the tp
    C. planting trees needs secretsD. lve is the best gift f life
    C
    Wuld yu like t live in a city where buildings turn thelights ff fryu, andself- driving cars will find thenearest parking spacethemselves?Althugh it might sund a little far frm yu nw, living ina “smart” city like this culd happen sner than yu think.
    Great changes have takenplace intwns that we have lived in fr centuries, whilecmpletely new cities are being built. One such place is the cityf Sngd. Every hme there will have a
    “telepresence” system(远程遥控系统)- allwing users t cntrl husehld appliances(家用电 器),takepartin videmeetings, and receive educatin, health care and gvernment services. A-rund the city, escalatrs(自动扶梯)willnly mve whensmene is n them, andfficesand
    schls will all be in the big system as well.
    The great mind behind Sngd is frmthecmpany Cisc.In fact, technlgy cmpanies arund the wrldsuch as IBM, Siemens and Micrsft are already in the business.
    Abut 75% f the wrld’ ppulatin will live in cities by 2050, s cities will need t be mre mdem t deal with the cming prblems.
    “Making cities smarter is ne way ut, and I think this willin turn makecities greener,” said
    Dan Hill, head f a research cmpany.
    根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
    ()31. Accrding t thetext, living in a “smart” city .
    A. is very expensiveB. may sn becme true
    C. may cause prblemsD. is ppular with ld peple
    ()32. What is the secnd paragraph mainly abut?
    A. A meeting in Sngd.B. A city f the future.
    C. A plan t build a huse.D. A reprt n public health.
    ()33. Which cmpany ffers the great mind t build Sngd?
    A.Cisc.B. IBM.C. Siemens.D. Micrsft.
    ()34. DanHillthinksthatmakingcitiessmarter isne wayt.
    A.drive peple ut f cities
    B.develp his research cmpany
    C. slve the cities’ cming prblems
    D.cntrl the wrld's ppulatin
    ()35. What wuld be the best title fr the text?
    A. Smart CitiesB. Future Educatin
    C. Famus CmpaniesD. Gvernment Services
    D
    Accrding t CCTV , China has 8 millin blind peple , but nly 200 guide dgs are in service. 36 It makesguide dgs even fewer than the giant pandas.
    The dgs - mstly Glden Retrievers(金毛)and Labradrs (拉布拉多),are chsen fr their gentle ,friendly nature. 37 Then they'll return t the center fr anther year f prfessinal training 38 .Alng the way ,abut 60% f the dgs will be disqualifies (不合格的)and becme pet dgs.
    39. In 2020, the Dalian gvernment started t supprt the center with 60,000 yuan fr each guide dg it trains ,but each animal csts abut 200,000 yuan t train. 40 It is hped that mre training centers canbe builtin the futureandpublic services can be friendlier ttheblind.
    根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使短文意思通 顺、内容完整。
    A. It takes mre than three years t train a qualified dg.
    B. The lack f mney is a key prblem fr guide dg schls.
    C. That’s ne guide dg fr every 85,000 blind peple in China.
    D.Nw, there are nly six guidedgtrainingschlslikethisinChina.
    E.They will first stay with nrmal families fr a year t learn t live with humans.
    三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处 的最佳答案。
    Fur friends were drinking ina villagepub(酒吧).Their jackets were hanging n the backs f their chairs. Suddenly ne f them, Jack 41 that he had lst ne hundred punds. He said he was sure 42 here had stlen the mney. Tm suggested that they shuld all empty their pckets n the table. But the wner f the pub wuld nt let them d that because all 43 will lk the same. They didn’t knw what t d. 44,Mike,a traveller , std up. He said he culd help find the mney.
    “Yu knwhw45sme animals are,” He said. “I’ve fund ut that rsters (公鸡)are gd at catching thieves. Let’s 46 the pub wner’s rster. ”
    Mike tk a big black pt and put it upside dwn n the table. Then he put the rster under it.
    “After I turn ff the lights,” he said, “yu must cme up ne by ne and tuch the 47 f the pt with yur right hand. When the thief des s, the rster will crw(啼鸣).”
    48peple did nt knw whether theyshuld believe him. One by ne they went 49 the table in the dark, the rster never made a 50 .
    “I’m afraid it was a waste f time, ”Fred said when the lights were turned back51 .
    “I’m nt sure it was, ” Mike said. Then he asked everybdy t 52 his right hand. He lked at each hand in 53 , thentk Fred’s handandsaid, “ Fred, givethemney backt Jack. ”
    “Yu musthave made amistake.54,therster never crwed ! I have nthing t d with the theft,” said Fred.
    Mike tld Fred t lk atall the ther hands. “They're all black except yurs.Canyu55 why yu didn’t dare t tuch the pt, Fred?”
    ()41. A. saidB. askedC. insistedD. shuted
    ()42. A. smebdyB. everybdyC. anybdyD. nbdy
    ()43. A. shwedB. tablesC. mneyD. paper
    ()44. A. Since thenB. By thenC. Just thenD. Frm then n
    ()45. A. sillyB. cleverC. beautifulD. curius
    ()46. A. lendB. sellC. brrwD. ck
    ()47. A. bttmB. sideC. wnerD. tp
    ()48. A. AntherB. OthersC. The thersD. The ther
    ( )49. A. beyndB. pastC. acrssD. nt
    ()50. A. niseB. mistakeC. differenceD. decisin
    ()51. A. fB. upC. dwnD. n
    ( )52. A. shwB. tuchC. hideD. clean
    ()53. A. rderB. timeC. turnD. place
    ()54. A. Abve allB. In allC. Nt at allD. After all
    ()55. A. expressB. explainC. describeD. repeat
    四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    第一节阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完 整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
    he plan helpleave hwever already gd surprise that t
    The winter hliday is cming sn. Our favrite teacher , Ms. Steen , is 56 t g back t the US. We’re very sad that she's leaving because she is a fun teacher. T shw hw much we're ging t miss her, we'll have a 57 partyfr her next Friday. Imade aninvitatin and here are sme replies.
    Jake wuld like t cme t the party, but he is nt available. His family is taking a trip t Wuhan at the end f this mnth 58 visit his uncle. 59 , he wuld still be glad t help with the party preparatins like60 the games.
    Anther classmate He Wei likes Ms. Steen a lt. She 61He Wei t imprve his English s much ver the last tw years. This party is the 62 way fr He Wei t say “ thank yu and gdbye”. He can help t buy sme f the fd and drinks. He can als help t bring Ms. Steen t the party withut telling her s 63she can be surprised. He 64 has a greatidea abut it. I hpe 65 idea will cme true.
    56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
    61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
    第二节阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
    Jhnsn is an eight - year - ld by and he is a gd by. Jhnsn des well in all his lessns. He lves schl and he is always active in class. Every time the teacher asks 66 questin, Jhnsn always puts 67his handquickly.Smetimes his answer is wrng, but the teacher always smiles (微笑)and says, “Gd, Jhnsn. But is therea better answer t myquestin?”
    One day, the teacher asksthebys and girls a questin.“Swallws (燕子)fly t the suth
    68 winter is cming?” he says. “But 69 dn’t cats and dgs d the same?”
    Jhnsn raises (举)his hand70 usual.
    “Yes, Jhnsn?” says the teacher happily.
    Jhnsn stands up and says, “Because they have n wings(翅膀).”
    66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
    五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意思连贯、完整。
    A :Hi, Grandma. D yu have time fr a chat?
    B: Yes. (71) ?
    A: Our English teacher asked us t write a reprt abut life in the past. (72 ) _____________
    _______________________ . Can yu help me?
    B : Of curse. I’d like t share my past life with yu. Maybe it can help yu.
    A : That sunds great. Thank yu, Grandma. (73) ?
    B : Of curse nt. Just g ahead.
    A: OK. (74) ?
    B : On ft. Few peple had bikes when I was yung.
    A : Were there many activities in yur class?
    B : (75) . In class, teachers usually explained and students just listened.
    A: I see. Lifeinschl has reallychangeda ltnwadays.Nw wuldyuplease tellsme fyur interesting stries, Grandma?
    B: Sure.
    六、书面表达(20分)
    在寒假即将来临之际,请你以张明的名义给英国笔友Ti写封英文感谢信。
    要点提示如下:
    1.三年前你来到新的班级,没有朋友,感到孤独。Ti多次给你写信,他在信中鼓励你多交朋友;
    2.三年中告诉你学好英语的方法;和你分享快乐,你变得……
    3.近年来河南发生很大变化…….,你邀请他寒假时来河南游玩。
    写作要求:
    1.条理清楚,行文连贯,书写规范,内容可适当发挥;
    2.文中不要出现所在学校的校名和师生姓名;
    3.词数100左右。信的开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
    Dear Tim,
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs,
    Zhang ming
    2022 -2023学年度第一学期期中测试卷参考答案 九年级英语(KB)
    听力材料
    第一节听下面5段对话,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
    W:Excuseme,can yu tell mewhenthenext bus leavesfrtheairprt?
    M: It leaves in three minutes. If yu run, yu might catch it.
    2.W: David, why are yu putting yur hand clse t yurmuth?
    M: Sherry, I want t tell yu a secret abut ur schl.
    3.W: Jack, I’m ging t have an interview this afternn. I’m really nervus nw
    M: Take it easy, Anna. Being cnfident isvery imprtant in an interview. Gd luck!
    4. W: Mike, where are yu ging n yur vacatin?
    M: I wantt g t Washingtn t see my sister, but she will g t Eurpe. S Iamging tNewYrk.
    5. M: Have yu seen my passprt, Jane?
    W: N. Maybe yushuld lk fr it n yur bed. I saw yu pack up yur things there just nw.
    M: Oh, I’ll have a lk.Ah, here it is. I put it n the table.
    W: Yu shuld put yur things in rder, r yu can’t find them.
    第二节听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出 最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
    W: Welcme t ur fruit stre. What can I d fr yu, Sir?
    M : I want t buy smepears tseea Chinese friend.He had a car accidentlast mnth.
    W : But pears have negativemeaning in China. Why nt buy sme apples?Apples mean peace and safety in Chinese culture.
    M : OK. Thank yu !
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
    M : Lily,yugt an Ain the English exam. Hwdidyu d it?
    W : My parents invited Mrs.Brwn t help me with my English every Wednesday and Saturday evening.
    M : Is Mrs. Brwn American?
    W : N, she is frmEngland. She is really gd atteaching. Thankst her, Imade smuch prgress.
    听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
    I’m Li Mei. I study in a middle schl. It was the English Day f ur schl last Friday. There were many activities n that day. At 8 : 30 a. m. , the reading started in the library- We read English bks and cmmunicated with each ther there. The reading ended at 11 :0 a. m. In the afternn, there was English speaking in the schl hall. All f us gave a speech n English learning. In the evening, there was an English music shw n the playgrund. We perfrmed in the shw and enjyed urselves in it.
    听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
    W: Jack, yu dn' 1 lk well. What’s the matter?
    M : Grace, I feel sad because I can! sleep well these days.
    W: Why?
    M : A yung man named Dave mved in next dr t me last week.He always plays theguitar lateat night. It disturbs me a lt.
    W: Why dn't yu talk t him?
    M: It’s a gd idea, but I can’t find him during the day.
    第三节听下面几段短文。按照你所听到的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
    Nw let’s listen t five children talking abut their ways t learn English.
    1.Every mrning, I get up early and listen t BBC news n my cellphne. It can help meknw what is happening arund the wrld and it is als a gd way t imprve my listening skills.
    2. Ellit ismypenpalandhe cmes frm America. We write t eachther inEnglishtwicea week. Thanks t him, my writing skills have imprved a lt.
    3.In my spare time, I like t watch American mvies n TV. My favrite actr is Niclas Cage. His accent sunds very cmfrtable. S when I watch his mvies, I ften imitate his prnunciatin. I have learnt a lt frm him.
    4. I like reading. I ften read t my parents frm many English strybks. And smetimes , I tell interesting English striest my little brther. Thrugh this way , I have learnt many new English wrds.
    5.I think learning English alne is very bring , s I ften g t theEnglishCrner. I think itisan effective way t imprve my listening and speaking . It als helps me nt t be afraid f speaking Englishin public any lnger.
    参考答案及评分标准
    一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
    1—5 AACCA 6—10 ABBAC 11—15 BABCA 16—20 CDEBA
    二、阅读理解(2小题,每小题2分,共4分)
    21—25BDABC26—30CBCAD31—35BBACA36—40CEABD
    三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    41—45DACCB46—50CADBA51—55DACDB
    四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    56. leaving 57. surprise 58. t 59. Hwever 60. planning 61. helped 62. best 63. that 64. already 65. His 66. a 67. up 68. befre 69. why 70. as
    五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    71.What’s up/…
    72.But I dn’t knw hw t writeit/ But Idn’t knw where t start...
    73. D yu mind if I ask yu several questins first / Wuld yu mind answering my questins first..
    74. Hw did yu g t schl when yu were a student / Hw did yu usually g ut...
    75.N(,there weren’t)
    注意:句中大小写错误,每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误,每两个扣1分。此题答案不唯一。如果考生写出 的句子与情景相符,符合英语表达习惯,且上下文意思连贯,表达无误,应当给分。
    六、书面表达(0分)
    One pssible versin:
    Dear Tim,
    Hw time flies! We have been friends fr mre than tw years. Tm writing t thank yu fr yur help! Tw years ag, I came t a new class, and I had n friends, s I felt lnely. Yu wrte t me many times. In yur letter, yu encuraged me t make mre friends and tld me hw t learn English well. Duringthese three years, yu shared happiness with me. And I became happy. In recent years , great changes have taken place in Henan. Culd yu cme and g n vacatin in Henan?
    Hpe t see yu sn!
    Yurs,
    Zhang ming
    评分标准:
    1.第1-20题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
    2.第21 -40题,每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
    3.第41 -55题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
    4.第56 -70题,每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
    5. 第71-75题,每小题2分。句中大小写错误,每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误,每两个扣1分。答案不 唯一。如果考生写出句子符合英语表达习惯,且上下文意思连贯,表达无误,应当给分。
    6书面表达,20分。
    1)评分原则
    (1)本题总分为20分,按4个档次给分。
    (2)评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整 档次,最后给分。
    (3)词数少于80或多于120分的,从总分中减去2分。
    (4)评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
    (5)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼
    写及词汇用法均可接受。
    (6)如书写较差以致影响交际,将其分数降低一个档次。 2)各档次的给分范围和要求
    第四档完成了试题规定的任务。
    16 -201.覆盖所有内容要点。
    2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
    3.语法结构和词汇应用基本正确,些许错误主要是因为尝试较复杂语法结构和 词汇所致。
    4.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
    达到了预期的写作目的。
    第三档基本完成了试题规定的任务。
    11 ~15 分1.虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖主要内容。
    2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的基本要求。
    3.有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
    4.应用了简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。 整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的
    第二档未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
    6 ~10 分1.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
    2.语法结构单调,应用的词汇有限。
    3.有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
    4.较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
    信息未能清楚的传达给读者
    第一档未完成试题规定的任务。
    1 ~5分1.明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
    2.语法结构单调,应用的词汇有限。
    3.较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
    4.缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
    信息未能传达给读者。
    0分未能传达给读者任何信息,内容太少,无法评判;写的内容均与所要求内容无关 或所写内容无法看清。

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