山东日照市2023届高三一模英语试题及答案（不含听力）

山东日照市2023届高三一模

英 语 试 题

第一部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分)

第一节（共15小题;每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。

A

Poetry Contest

The contest is open to anyone aged thirteen and up who writes poetry. Enter your poem for a free chance to win prizes! You can submit a poem on any topic, employing whatever style you prefer.

Information

No entry fee is required for the contest. The main contest is held twice a year. Contest dates are January 1—June 30 and July 1—December 31. All winners will receive a letter and their prize via regular mail. The first place winner will be contacted by phone or email and asked to call our office to confirm their identity before their prize is mailed. As soon as the complete list of winners is drawn up, it will be posted on the home page.

Rules

Only submit ONE poem, ONE time. Only one poem per household will be accepted.

Poem must be 26 lines or fewer, including stanza breaks but not including the title, and lines may be no more than 55 characters across, including spaces.

Do not use "texting" lingo. Properly spell out all words and typing the first word of each line in capital letter.

All poems must be written in English.

Prizes

Both contests award one first place prize of $2,000.00 and a first prize wall plaque(匾牌) ($100.00 value); twenty second place prizes of $100.00 each and a second place wall plaque(S75.00 value); one hundred third place winners of a third place gift certificate ($25.00 value).Sixty to seventy percent of all entries become semi-finalists and receive a certificate of participation suitable for framing.

1. What do we know about the poetry contest?

A. It is a free contest.

B. Anyone can enter for it.

C. All poems will be published.

D. Each contestant will get a reward.

2.Which of the following will cause disqualification?

A. Submitting one poem.

B. Composing a poem of 23 lines.

C. Writing a poem in English.

D. Typing the poem in capital letters.

3. What will be awarded to a third place winner?

A. A wall plaque.

B. A gift certificate.

C. $25.00.

D. $75.00.

B

Elie Wiesel and his wife, Marion, established The Elie Wiesel Foundation for Humanity soon after he was awarded the 1986 Nobel Prize for Peace. Ellen DeGeneres would be a great candidate for the Humanitarian of the Year Award.

DeGeneres is outstanding in her awareness of those in need. It is in the 'how' Ellen gives that makes her exceptional in kindness.Prezi.com wrote, "Ellen DeGeneres has made a positive impact on the world by helping cancer patients. Ellen DeGeneres helped Talia with her last dying wish to become a make-up artist and gave her a $20,000 check just months before she died.” Additionally, nearly on a daily basis, she provides to those in need: a car for a family that lost everything to Hurricane Sandy; a new car and $15,000 Sam's Club gift card to a family that sold anything necessary to have the money to adopt four boys from Ghana. These are just a few of the thousands of people in need that Ellen has helped.

According to Look to the stars …, Ellen supports 44 charities and 30 causes. With Ben Affleck, DeGeneres launched the "Small Change Campaign" to benefit the Feeding America program, which aids Americans that cannot afford food. Ellen continues her support of the Hurricane Katrina Relief Fund through the American Red Cross. Fundraising for breast cancer is the focus of the Ellen for the Cure campaign, run during October's Breast Cancer Awareness Month on her television show.

DeGeneres' efforts to help the homeless are substantial as well. Fox News first reported the story of Derrick Walton last February. He went from being homeless on the streets to feeding thousands of homeless people. After DeGeneres heard about the story, she brought him to appear on her show where he received a $10,000 check and promised to keep his operation going. The Walton story is just one of many stories in which DeGeneres has lent a helping hand to the homeless and made a huge difference.

4. What can we learn about Ellen from Paragraph 2?

A. She established a website.

B. She fought against disasters.

C. She always helps the needy.

D. She has adopted four children.

5. What does the Cure campaign aim to do?

A. Raise money for breast cancer.

B. Spread the program in the media.

C. Distribute money to the patient directly.

D. Relieve fund through the American Red Cross.

6. Which of the following best describe Ellen?

A. Positive and brave.

B. Polite and honest.

C. Considerate and thoughtful.

D. Generous and helpful.

7. What can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Why Ellen DeGeneres deserves the award

B. Who will be rewarded the Nobel Prize for Peace

C. What websites reported about Ellen DeGeneres' stories

D. How Ellen DeGeneres launched Small Change Campaign

C

Great Smoky Mountains National Park lies on both sides of the border between North Carolina and Tennessee. Its highest peak is called "Clingmans Dome". But before it got that name, the Cherokee people called the mountain “Kuwahi". It sits on ancestral Cherokee homelands. Since the ancient times, the landscape, including mountains and streams, has shaped the history of Cherokee people. They used that name for hundreds of years. Now, tribal(部落) members are hoping to return to the Kuwahi name.

The Cherokee Nation once spread across what is now Georgia, North Carolina, Tennessee and Alabama. In 1838, the tribe was forcibly relocated to present-day Oklahoma--in what was later known as the "Trail of Tears". Through sickness and terrible travel conditions, nearly 4,000Cherokee people died during the forced removal from their homeland. Some Cherokee managed to avoid relocation to Oklahoma by going into hiding, including on Kuwahi. "We're here today because our ancestors hid in those mountains, specifically in Kuwahi,” Hill said.

The name change of the Cherokee's mountain came in 1859, when geographer and professor Arnold Henry Guyot labeled Kuwahi “Clingmans Dome". The peak was named after Thomas Lanier Clingman, who was a strong supporter of slavery(奴隶制). Clingman was not connected to the Cherokee people in any way. "Naming the mountain after Clingman erases everything that the Cherokee people are in order to rename it after someone with zero ties to our community. He didn't even live here," said Hill.

In June 2022, Yellowstone National Park's Mount Doane was renamed to First Peoples Mountain. "That was a huge victory for our brothers and sisters,” Hill said. "I hope it's just the beginning of accurately recognizing and honoring numerous historically significant sites for tribes and native people nationwide. There were so many places that were special and important to native people prior to colonization(殖民). 1 want to be the voice for my people, for my ancestors."

8. What do the Cherokee people intend to do according to Paragraph 1?

A. Save their language.

B. Go back to their homeland Kuwahi.

C. Reshape their history.

D. Change the name back to “Kuwahi"".

9. What is Paragraph 2 mainly about?

A. The sad history of the Cherokee people.

B. The sheltering place for the Cherokee people.

C. The causes of the decrease of the Cherokee people.

D. The traveling route of the ancient Cherokee Nation.

10. What does Hill think of "Clingmans Dome”?

A. lt is related to the culture of the Cherokee people.

B. It reminds the Cherokee people of their ancestors.

C. lt removes everything about the Cherokee history.

D. lt reflects the slave position of the Cherokee people.

11. What does Hill actually mean in the last paragraph?

A. To add great honor to her ancestors.

B. To make his homeland well-known.

C. To express the opinions of her people.

D. To name more historically significant sites.

D

Set on a sloped plot(山坡) above Prague in the city's Troja district. Villa Sophia has no keys.no light switches and a piano that can play by itself. The house can close the windows when it rains and read aloud materials it has selected from the Internet, based on the owners' interests.

“The house is like a brain," said Michaela Pankova, who shares the home with her husband. Karel Panek, and their daughters. "It makes decisions for you based on previous experience. "The home, designed by the Prague-based firm Coll Coll, is intended to go beyond automated to autonomous." As we say, if we have to control it ourselves, it's not smart enough," said Mr. Panek, a computer scientist.

The couple wanted no compromises in quality and efficiency. When they couldn't find a technology that met their standards，Mr. Panek, the brain behind his home’s brain, designed his own system. While family members go about their daily lives，the system collects data and evaluates that data in real time, then comes up with solutions and implements(实施) them. It can accept deliveries when the family isn't home, thanks to individual control of every door from afar and evaluation of the home 's external context. It can preheat the driveway to clear snow and ice (but only if it predicts its use, saving energy otherwise) and lock the doors.

Put energy efficiency, home security and convenience aside, the system’s true benefit is that in developing beyond a smart home system to a smart home it frees the homeowner from the burden of constant control.

Although Mr. Panek calls himself a technology optimist, Mrs. Pankova said it took her some time to warm up to the system. “In the beginning I wasn’t really into the idea of living in an AI house,” she said. “During the time of the preparation and later the construction, I slowly started to be open to the idea.”

12. What can be inferred about the house from Paragraph 1?

A. It is located at the foot of a hill.

B. It operates automatically.

C. lt frees the family from wind and rain.

D. It is poorly equipped with furniture.

13. Who did some extra work to improve the control system of the house?

A. Coll Coll.

B. Mrs. Pankova.

C. Mr. Panek.

D. The couple's kids.

14. What is the best advantage of the smart home?

A. Picking up deliveries.

B. Saving energy.

C. Preheating the driveway.

D. Removing the task of constant control.

15. What do the underlined words "warm up to" probably mean in the last paragraph?

A. Apply to.

B. Adapt to.

C. Turn to.

D. Keep to.

第二节 (共5小题;每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)

阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

We're all told time and again how important it is to exercise for good health. But with our busy schedules, finding the time to work out is often easier said than done. 16_______

UK exercise guidelines suggest that adults should do at least 150 minutes of exercise a week for good health. 17_______. lt is about whether or not you can still get the benefits of exercise if you squeeze(挤出) it all in on a weekend instead of spreading it throughout the week.

A recent study found that weekend exercisers had a 30% lower risk of premature death from all causes compared to inactive people. Risk of death from heart disease was also around 40% lower, while risk of death from all types of cancer was around 18% lower compared to those who were inactive. But they also found that spreading your workouts throughout the week was associated with the greatest benefits for your health. 18_______ That is, they had a 5% lower risk of premature death from any cause compared to weekend exercisers.

19_______ lt suggests the more exercise you do, the more beneficial it is to your health. But this is only true up to a certain point—with research showing that doing more than five times the minimum recommended weekly activity has no added benefits.

It's well-known that exercise improves our heart fitness. This allows us to exercise longer and more intensely. 20_______ This is also likely the reason why people who exercise regularly have lower risk of premature death from any cause.

But research shows that how often you exercise is also important for improving and maintaining fitness. Regular exercise will lead to adaptations that are good for health.

A. But debate is growing around the issue.

B. This finding is consistent with previous research.

C. Regularly active people had the best health overall.

D. Most people find it hard to do exercise at the weekend.

E. For many of us, the weekend is the only time to exercise.

F. However, it may cause serious diseases, such as heart attacks.

G. Also, it improves other aspects of our health like lowering blood pressure.

第二部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分)

第一节（共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。

A 17-year-old teenager, Anika Puri, has invented a low-cost tool to spot elephant poachers(偷猎者) in real time. She won the 2022 Peggy Scripps Award for Science Communication for her model of a machine-learning-driven software that 21______ movement patterns in thermal videos of humans and elephants. "I'm especially excited by the 22______ focusing on endangered species and environmental science," Puri said.

During a recent trip to India，Puri realized that elephants were still being 23______ for their tusks(牙). "I was quite taken aback," Puri said. "Because l always thought, 'well, poaching is 24______; how come it really is still such a big 25______?”

Over the next two years，Puri 26______ the software ElSa (short for elephant savior). This wildlife poacher detection solution is based on a 27______ process: an EISa camera attached to a mobile phone 28______ over a park on a drone and 29______ the movements of elephants or humans. The software is four times more 30______ than existing state-of-the-art detection methods. It also decreases the 31______ for expensive high-resolution thermal cameras.

The 17-year-old's invention has earned 32______ Irom notable scientists. "Puri's software is quite admirable," says Jasper Eikelboom, an ecologist." It’s quite 33______ that a senior high school student has been able to 34______ something like this. Not only the research and the analysis, but also...being able to 35______ it in the models."

21. A. analyzes  B. changes   C. repeats   D. draws

22. A. discovery  B. invention   C. theory    D. concept

23. A. trained   B. protected   C. killed    D. raised

24. A. dangerous  B. harmful   C. unnecessary  D. illegal

25. A. issue   B. business   C. burden   D. effect

26. A. used   B. created   C. download   D. sold

27. A. similar   B. natural   C. simple    D. gradual

28. A. passes   B. spreads   C. jumps    D. flies

29. A. detects   B. controls   C. stops    D. directs

30. A. expensive  B. accurate   C. active    D. complex

31. A. wish   B. value    C. need    D. preparation

32. A. income   B. praise    C. qualification  D. confidence

33. A. strange   B. essential   C. mysterious   D. remarkable

34. A. achieve   B. record    C. imagine   D. learn

35. A. absorb   B. repair    C. mix    D. apply

第二节（共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)

阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。

A robot has been taught to laugh at jokes to make it more human. Researchers are using AI to train robots about appropriate laughter, and 36_______(distinguish) between chuckles and screams.

They described 37_______ (work) with a robot called Erica in the hope of making a conversation more natural. “We think that one of the important 38_______ (function) of conversational Al is sympathy," said Dr Koji Inoue, a professor. "A conversation is, of course, multimodal, not just responding correctly. So we decided that one way a robot can empathize(共情) with users is to share their laughter, 39_______ you cannot do with a text-based chatbot."

Creating a “40_______ (share) laughter" model, the researchers used Al to help detect laughter and decide whether to laugh and what kind of laughter would be 41_______ (good). Four short dialogues between real people and Erica 42_______ (use) lo test the system, which performed well.

However, the experts said there is more work to do to create 43_______ (true) natural laughter situations.

Dr Inoue said, "The robot should actually have 44_______ distinct character, and it can show this character through its conversational behaviors，such as laughing, eye gaze，gestures and speaking styles. It may well take more than 10 to 20 years before we can finally have a casual chat 45_______ a robot like we would with a friend.”

第三部分 写作（共两节，满分40分)

第一节（满分15分)

假定你是李华，你的好友 Michael非常喜欢中国美食。本学期你校要开设烹饪选修课程，请你写封信向他介绍此课程，内容包括:

1．开设时间;

2．课程内容。

注意:

1．词数80左右;

2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Dear Michael,

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节（满分25分)

阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文

Autism(自闭症) is a mental disorder that affects children, particularly their ability to relate to other people. Having a child with autism adds an additional learning curve to parenting. And parents with kids with autism know just how beautiful and cruel it can be because they aren't kids who fit into society's typical mold(模式). It simply means that parents，friends，strangers, caregivers, neighbors, and teachers need to find different ways to create a supportive community because every individual with autism is uniquely different.

Daniel, who has autism, recently wrote down his wish and Kevin, Daniel’s father, shared that because of his son’s autism. Daniel typically prefers to play alone. In fact, throughout his entire childhood Daniel never once asked to go play with friends. But this year, Daniel made a special birthday wish. The request floored and shocked his father because Daniel’s birthday wish was to make a few friends.

Kevin often shares updates about Daniel on social media in hope of recording his life. He is clearly aware that social skill training is important and difficult to autism children. After he learned of his son 's birthday wishes, he eagerly wanted to make Daniel's birthday just a little sweeter.

On social media, he wrote, "Daniel is my son. Profoundly Autistic, he hasn't one single friend. It's his birthday today." He posted his son's written birthday wish and politely asked others to put in and wish his son a happy birthday. A dad's heartfelt birthday wish for his son is the most beautiful story you will find, and this one is taking over the Internet.

注意:

1.续写词数应为150左右;

2．请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。

Kevin didn't realize this simple request of kindness would spread so widely.

Kevin reflected why there was such a positive response for such a simple request.

参考答案

第一部分 阅读理解（共20小题:每题2.5分，满分50分)

1—3 ADB

4-7 CADA

8-11 DACC

12—15 BCDB

16—20 EACBG

第二部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分30分)

第一节(共15小题;每小题1分，满分15分)

21-25 ABCDA

26-30 BCDAB

31-35 CBDAD

第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分，满分15分)

36.to distinguish

37.working

38.functions

39.which

40.shared

41. better

42. were used

43. truly

44. a

45. with

第三部分 写作（满分40分)

Dear Michael,

Our school is going to have a cooking course this term. Knowing you are an enthusiast of Chinese food, heartily recommend it to you.

The course is arranged on every Wednesday afternoon from 5:00 to 6:00. We can learn basic knife skills food decorating and traditional cooking methods. Meanwhile, we will have fun exchanging cooking experience and sharing food cooked together. What's more, we can pick various organic vegetables grown on our school farm when preparing for a dish. I'm sure the course appeals to you.

Looking forward to your reply!

Yours,

Li Hua

第二节

略