2022-2023学年江苏省扬州市高邮市高三上学期1月期末考试 英语（word版） 听力

这是一份2022-2023学年江苏省扬州市高邮市高三上学期1月期末考试 英语（word版） 听力，共17页。试卷主要包含了5分, 满分30分），5分， 满分37，5℃， ccurred 58， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。

2022—2023学年第一学期高三期末学情调研测试
英语试题
本试卷满分150分。考试时间120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出 最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后, 你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小 题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Whose phone is in the sun?
C. The woman’s mother’s.
A. The woman’s. B. The man’s.
2. What does the woman probably want to do?
A. Read a magazine.
B. Put off writing the article.
C. Finish the article before her exams.
3. What are the speakers talking about?
A. A game. B. A player. C. A commercial.
4. What does the man suggest the woman do?
A. Close the window.
B. Buy a new sweater.
C. Put on more clothes.
5. What month is it now?
A. August. B. September. C. October.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三 个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟； 听完后, 各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where does the conversation take place?
A. At a studio.
B. At a concert hall.
C. At a radio station.
7. What is the man going to do?
A. Sing his song.
B. Write a new song.
C. Listen to some singers.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. Where does the woman want to go?
A. To the park office. B. To the zoo. C. To the forest.
9. Why does the man agree to go with the woman in the end?
A. He’s done with his game.
B. He’s concerned about her safety.
C. He doesn’t want to eat dinner alone.
10. When does the man want to return?
A. Before dark. B. After dinner. C. In the morning.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Why did the brothers grow apart?
A. They had different hobbies.
B. They stopped living in the same house.
C. They no longer spent much time together.
12. How does the man feel now?
A. Regretful. B. Hurt. C. Angry.
13. What does the woman suggest the man do about the problem?
A. Leave his brother alone.
B. Try talking to his brother.
C. Invite his brother to hang out.
听第9段材料，回答第14至17题。
14. What is Fresh Air?
A. A magazine.
B. A handwork product.
C. A radio program.
15. What is Terry?
A. A writer. B. A host. C. A photographer.
16. What does Mr. MacGregor do for the artists?
A. He builds many websites for them.
B. He advises them to make silver jewelry.
C. He helps them sell artworks through the NOVICA program.
17. What is one of the purposes of Mr. MacGregor’s work?
A. To keep the cultural traditions.
B. To get a high price.
C. To live a better life with his family.
听第10段材料，回答第18至20题。
18. What is Mr. Reynolds like?
A. Easygoing. B. Fun. C. Strict.
19. When will the students study reading comprehension?
A. During the first term.
B. During the second term.
C. During the third term.
20. How many novels will the students read in the last three months?
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
第二部分 阅读(满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解(共15题；每小题2.5分， 满分37.5 分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Climate Change — Are Tomorrow’s Needs more Important than Today’s Reality?
Can countries and the world find the critical balance between addressing today’s realities and the needs of tomorrow? An online essay competition on this topic is coming.
Terms & Conditions
1. This essay competition is open to all NUS alumni(校友)and students, as well as students of all Singapore universities and polytechnics.
2. Please indicate the following clearly in the footer of every page:
a. Page Number
b. Full Name
c. Faculty, Current Year of Study and Matriculation Number (for NUS students); OR
d. School, Faculty, Current Year of Study (for non-NUS students); OR
e. Faculty and Year of Graduation (for NUS alumni)
3. Charts, images and illustrations should be avoided unless absolutely necessary. Please insert them as Annexes with clear labelling, and not as part of the main essay.
4. Please submit your essay online by 29 February 2023. Only one submission per participant will be accepted. For two or three submissions, the latest essay received by the closing date and time will be treated as final and all earlier submissions by the same participant will be disregarded.
5. An essay with several authors may well be accepted but as one single submission. If it wins, only one prize will be awarded and one author will be invited to present the ideas on stage. The remaining author(s) are welcome to participate at the event as part of the audience.
6. Winners will be contacted by mid-March 2023 via the same email address used for submission. Participants may provide a telephone number as an alternative means of contact.
21. What should a NUS alumni include in the footer of every page?
A. Faculty and Year of Graduation.
B. School, Faculty, Current Year of Study.
C. Faculty, Current Year of Study and Matriculation Number.
D. Page Number, Full Name, Faculty and Year of Graduation.
22. What is welcomed most about the essay competition?
A. Submissions with illustrations.
B. An only essay per participant.
C. A multi-authored essay.
D. Much earlier submissions.
23. What do we learn about the winner of the essay?
A. He will be awarded with several prizes.
B. He will be reached only by email.
C. He will present his ideas on stage.
D. He will learn the result before March.
B
Technology has undoubtedly opened up the world for me. Literally, in the case of my fully accessible home. My windows are automatic, and my front door is automatic too. There are also my wheelchairs. I guess that any wheelchair user will say the best invention is that of the wheel. It’s a tool bringing independence and comfort.
Last week, I took a well-deserved break from work and went on a staycation in my local area. On the first day, I was heading further out in my power wheelchair than I’ve ever been on my own. This chair is almost like a Transformer. I like the speed, the phone charger and the flexible feature. It’s a wonderful creation.
However, while there are many benefits that come with technology, I still live in a disabling world. For example, out in my power wheelchair that day, feeling free and easy, I headed straight to the shop not far away. I deserve to feel heard and included when innovation is concerned. But when I got there, I was confronted by self-service checkouts. While they are designed for easy and quick service, for me and many other disabled people, the lack of face-to-face services can put us at a disadvantage. Not only are the checkouts far too high, they are awkwardly designed so that you cannot approach them with a wheelchair. So, I waited for someone to assist me. In just a matter of a few hours, I had seen how technology and accessibility advancements have empowered me then, in the next breath, disabled me.
I still live in a disabling world with sub-standard accessibility. Therefore, disabled people by and large are more likely to rely on mechanical and technological devices such as lifts and communication aids. Unfortunately, these things are sometimes abused and mistreated, making the person relying on them dependent on others.
24. How does the author think of technology according to paragraphs 1 and 2?
A. He casts some doubts on it.
B. He shows much gratitude for it.
C. He expresses curiosity about it.
D. He feels really carefree with it.
25. What happened to the author in the shop?
A. He came across many other disabled people by chance.
B. He waited quite a few hours in order to check out.
C. He was unable to seek assistance from others.
D. He couldn’t use the self-service checkout by himself.
26. Why does the author say he still lives in a disabling world?
A. He thinks it is not easy to make his voice heard.
B. Some shops are inaccessible to wheelchair users.
C. He finds it really hard to fit in with non-disabled people.
D. Things related to technology are sometimes out of service.
27. What would be the best title for the text?
A. My different views concerning disability
B. How I make full advantage of technology
C. My love-hate relationship with technology
D. How I live independently as a disabled man
C
Get cold hands, but hate wearing gloves? There might soon be a technology that can help you. The US scientists are developing an arm heater that allows people to go glove free in freezing conditions, helping them to carry out mechanical repairs or first aid.
In cold weather, wearing gloves might be a good choice because they can keep your hands at a comfortable temperature, but they often reduce flexibility. Take off your gloves, though, and numbing cold has an equally damaging effect on your fine motor skills, as well as being extremely uncomfortable.
John Castellani, an American physiologist who specializes in cold weather, and his team are attempting to solve the problem with a pair of electrically heated armbands worn around the forearms.
Dr. Castellani says that much of the problem is due to the body shutting down blood flow to surrounding areas. “Through research, we find keeping the forearms warm can prevent this,” he says.
A previous study showed that heating the torso （躯干） also keeps the hands warm, but that approach requires too much power for a portable device. Castellani’s team has found that warming just the forearm with a battery-powered gadget improves both finger temperature and ability in tasks requiring manual skill, such as putting pegs in a peg board. In a series of tests, the device reduced flexibility loss by 50 percent and finger strength loss by 90 percent compared with wearing no gloves at 0.5℃. The electric forearm heater helps by a combination of delivering warmer blood to the fingers and reducing blood vessel constriction （血管收缩）. Even if the wearer can't go glove free, it could allow them to wear thinner gloves.
28. Why is the electric forearm heater being developed?
A. To deliver warmer blood to the fingers in cold weather.
B. To reduce blood vessel constriction in cold weather.
C. To have the wearer go without gloves in cold weather.
D. To keep hands warm and skillful in cold weather.
29. What do we know about electrically heated armbands according to the passage?
A. They are difficult to carry around.
B. They have been on sale in the market.
C. They use less power comparatively.
D. They can heat the body together.
30. What does the underlined word “it” in the last paragraph refer to?
A. The wearer. B. The arm heater
C. The blood vessel D. The warmer blood
31. What’s the purpose of the passage?
A. To inform. B. To entertain.
C. To advertise. D. To educate.
D
What’s your favorite kind of film? For many people who love being terrified, or scared out of their wits, that answer will be horror. It seems that scary movies have a way of drawing a lot of people in and suit their taste. But just why do people enjoy watching these terrifying films?
First of all, being scared can give us a rush of adrenaline （肾上腺素）. The heart starts pumping, making these films exhilarating. But the fact that you're actually at home safe on the sofa makes the experience of being frightened all the more enjoyable because what’s happening to the characters on the screen is far removed from your experience of being in your living room eating popcorn. It feels more thrilling.
Coltan Scrivner, a PhD candidate in the Department of Comparative Human Development at the University of Chicago, argues that people who watch horror films learn how to regulate their anxiety. A study that he coauthored found that horror fans exhibited greater resilience （韧性） during the early stages on the COVID-19 pandemic than those who didn’t.
Also, some horror fans think they could survive the events on screen. That gives those viewers a sense of superiority. We often tease the typical image of horror films. Why do they try to escape the masked killer by running upstairs and hiding themselves? The characters often make terrible decisions that lead to their deaths — decisions we as viewers believe we wouldn’t make.
So, whether it’s to help people regulate their anxiety, to be thrilled by getting scared, or to feel superior teasing the decisions of the characters, there are many reasons people love watching horror films and if they really scare you, maybe it’s best to watch them with the lights on.
32. The question at the end of Paragraph 1 is used to .
A. express the author’s doubt B. introduce the point for discussion
C. enrich the content of the passage D. expect an answer from readers
33. What does the underlined word “exhilarating” in Paragraph 2 mean?
A. Upsetting. B. Inspiring.
C. Amusing. D. Thrilling.
34. What can we learn from the passage?
A. Horror fans are more anxious facing unfavourable situation.
B. Heart attacks are more likely to happen to horror fans.
C. Viewers are superior to characters in horror films.
D. The scenes in horror films are very different from reality.
35. What’s the author attitude towards watching horror films?
A. Cautious B. Critical
C. Objective D. Indifferent
第二节 七选五（共5小题;每小题2.5分, 满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为 多余选项。
Hearing is one of our most important senses. However, many people don’t realize that they may be exposing their ears to a huge amount of potentially damaging noise on a daily basis. It’s important to protect your hearing from noise and other damaging factors.
36 Listening to loud music through earphones has been identified as one of the major causes of hearing damage in young people. You also need to be careful when listening to loud music in enclosed spaces, such as in a car. Turning the volume down can make a difference to your hearing.
Don’t try to clean out your ears. Many people attempt to clean out their ears using cotton buds. 37 In more severe cases, cotton buds may damage the thin skin and even negatively affect your hearing. You can place a couple of drops of earwax solution into your ears. The solution will soften the earwax, causing it to flow out naturally.
Avoid head injuries. Damage to the middle and inner ear due to head injury can result in hearing loss. 38 Always wear a helmet when riding a bike or playing any kind of contact sports, and always wear a seat belt when travelling by car.
Be careful at live concerts and shows. Attending concerts or shows where you’re exposed to loud, live music can be damaging to your hearing. To protect your ears while listening to live music, strategically position yourself away from any amplifiers, speakers or stage monitors.
39
Get plenty of exercise. Aerobic exercise like walking, running or cycling helps to improve blood flow to your ears, which is good for your hearing. 40 This also gives your ears a break from the hustle and bustle （喧嚣） of daily life.
A. Turn down the music.
B. See a specialist if you suffer from hearing problems.
C. The further away you are from the source of the sound, the better.
D. However, cotton buds may pack earwax deeper into the ear.
E. Therefore, it is important to protect yourself from head injury in any way possible.
F. As a result, you can’t hold a conversation with someone standing two meters away.
G. It’s even better if you can do your exercise somewhere nice and quiet, like the woods.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节, 满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Getting to the top of your profession as a quarterback （橄榄球的四分卫） in the NFL is not just down to talent alone. 41 that, you must have self-belief, dedication, determination, single-mindedness, and an 42 work ethic （职业道德）.Cam Newton has all those 43
and more and has reached the highest point possible in his playing career.
Winning many awards and holding many records, Cam Newton has 44 a reputation as a first-class professional football player. From 2011 to 2019, he played as a quarterback for the Carolina Panther. He had been the number 1 pick in round 1 of the 2011 NFL draft. 45 , he is a free agent.
Cam is well-known as a 46 athlete. He spends many hours training and 47 his skill. His large size makes him an awesome 48 , and he uses this to his advantage. Cam 49 to be capable of reacting quickly when playing, believing that all the training is worthwhile.
Meanwhile, Cam has a real 50 for life. He 51 as much energy to his personal life as he does to his football career. Cam knows he is good at what he does and that he has discovered and 52 his true potential.
Cam wants to see others do the same, as he firmly 53 that everyone has potential. Cam has begun a second 54 as a motivational speaker so that he can help others achieve success. The message he tries to 55 is that winning takes a tremendous amount of effort,
commitment, and courage.
41. A. Rather than
B. Apart from
C. Other than
D. Except for
42. A. incredible
B. innocent
C. independent
D. informative
43. A. senses
B. abilities
C. qualities
D. features
44. A. explored
B. acquired
C. restored
D. suspended
45. A. Currently
B. Accidentally
C. Previously
D. Immediately
46. A. desperate
B. committed
C. courageous
D. talented
47. A. perfecting
B. performing
C. recovering
D. imitating
48. A. opponent
B. coach
C. companion
D. witness
49. A. pretends
B. refuses
C. aims
D. promises
50. A. recognition
B. fantasy
C. enthusiasm
D. reflection
51. A. spares
B. devotes
C. saves
D. invests
52. A. limited
B. admired
C. investigated
D. realized
53. A. insists
B. contradicts
C. accuses
D. predicts
54. A. assumption
B. approach
C. career
D. priority
55. A. show off
B. pick up
C. get across
D. turn down

第二节 语法填空 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
China’s traditional tea-making techniques and their associated social practices successfully became UNESCO’s latest world intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) on November 29, 2022.
Up to now, in addition to the common six categories of tea, other varieties like flower-scented teas and more than 2,000 tea products 56 (develop). Because of changes that 57 (occur) in the long history, the tea-making process 58 (compose) of numerous challenges has become rather complicated today.
Speaking of the reasons why the application succeeded, Zheng Changling, 59 research fellow at the Chinese National Academy of Arts, believes it is mainly due to the long and great history of Chinese tea culture, 60 travelled along the ancient Tea Horse Road to reach as far as West Asia and East Africa.
The successful application can further help improve tea’s influence 61 (globe). It will not only promote more respect for cultural 62 (diverse) and human creativity but also will encourage people to pursue 63 (healthy) lifestyles by integrating tea culture into their daily lives.
Wang Yongjian, head of the Chinese delegation to the UNESCO session, expects that they will apply 64 more of the intangible cultural heritage projects with Chinese characteristics in an effort 65 （spread） Chinese culture.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分） 第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
假定你是学生会主席李华，因为感染新冠病毒人数还在不断增加，请你代表学生会就 如何过好即将到来的寒假，给全体学生一些建议。内容包括：
1 .做好个人防护。
2 .注意劳逸结合。
注意：
1 .写作词汇应为80左右；
2 .可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
参考词汇：新冠病毒novel coronavirus
Dear students,
Students’ Union
第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一个完整的短文。
With sunlight flooding through the window, I was sitting at the kitchen table, enjoying the breakfast with my son, our cat, Rosie, rubbing itself against my son’s legs from time to time. After assigning my son what he would do in the morning, I also engaged myself in my work. However, within only minutes I could hear my son jumping around and laughing, doing who-knows-what but certainly not his schoolwork. “Stop playing and get your schoolwork done!” I yelled from my room where I was working. There was complete quiet for a while, and then the noise started up again.
“What are you doing? I shouted.” You know you can’t have a break until the schoolwork is done!” As a single mom working from home and home-schooling my son, I had to finish my work each day and help my son gain knowledge and form a good learning habit.
“Rosie stole my pencil, Mommy! I can’t do my schoolwork!” The response came in a voice
that sounded as though he surely didn’t mind having a pencil stolen. With a sigh, I pulled myself away from work and entered my son’s room. There I saw our cat, Rosie, sitting on the desk with the pencil between her feet. She threw it and bit it, and then sat right on my son’s books. I walked up to the desk and removed her from it.
This had become the norm. Rosie often disturbed my son. They were good friends and my son never minded Rosie disturbing him. Each time Rosie caused trouble, I wanted to lock her inside the bathroom. But when seeing how my lonely son, who was shy, homeschooled and had few friends, enjoyed Rosie’s company, I abandoned the idea.
That day, I finally made a rule after trying to remove Rosie from the desk for the millionth time. “If you focus on your work and don’t let her distract you, she can stay on the desk. Otherwise, I’ll lock her in the bathroom,” I told my son. Then I moved Rosie off his books and onto the side of the desk, making her lie down. 注意:
1. 续写词数应为150 左右;
2. 请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1:
“Stay here!” I ordered and then returned to my room.
Paragraph 2:







2022-2023学年第一学期高三期末学情调研测试
英语试题答案

第一部分：听力（共20小题，每小题1.5分, 满分30分）
1-5 CBACB 6-10 AACBA 11-15 CABCB 16-20 CACBA
第二部分：阅读理解（满分50分）
第一节 阅读短文(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
A: 21-23 DBC B: 24-27 BDDC C: 28-31 DCBA D: 32-35 BDDC
第二节 七选五（共5小题：每小题2.5分,满分12.5分）
36-40 ADECG
第三部分：语言运用（共两节, 满分30分）
第一节 完形填空（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
41-45 BACBA 46-57 BAACC 51-55 BDACC
第二节 语法填空（共10小题：每小题1.5 分, 满分15 分）
56. have been developed 57. occurred 58. composed 59. a 60. which
61. globally 62. diversity 63. healthier 64. for 65. to spread
第四部分：写作(共两节, 满分 40分)
第一节 应用文写作（满分15分）
Dear students,
With many people being infected with novel coronavirus, we’d like to make some constructive suggestions to help you spend a meaningful winter holiday.
To begin with, confronted with the serious condition, we students had better have personal protection in public and stay at home to have enough rest if possible. In addition, so precious is the time that we can’t afford to waste it as senior students. It is advisable that we should keep a balance between relaxation and study.
Hopefully, the advice will of benefit to you.
Students’ Union

第二节 读后续写（满分25分）
One possible version:
Paragraph 1:
“Stay there!” I ordered, and then returned to my room. However, my son’s laughter came not much later again, and I couldn’t focus on my work. I knew my son wasn’t studying, either. Should I follow the rule? After much thinking, I walked into my son’s room with a serious look and reminded him of the previous rule that he could only play with Rosie after finishing schoolwork. He lowered his head in tears and remained silent. Without hesitation, I brought Rosie out of his room.
Paragraph 2:
Once I put Rosie into the bathroom and closed the door, she started to miaow loudly. Then my son suddenly burst into crying, which made me heartbroken. I hurried to his room, wrapped my arms around his tiny body and offered to read him a story. To my relief, his cry gradually turned into laughing. Then I explained to him why I did that with patience. He nodded understandingly and agreed to continue his schoolwork, eyes twinkling with joy. Since then, he has adapted to the new rule and formed a good learning habit.

应用文评分标准
一、 试题分析：
应用文考查的是一封建议信：因为感染新冠人数不断增加，李华代表学生会就全体学生如何过好即将到来的寒假提出建议。
二、审题和写作要求及评分依据：
第一步：陈述事由，表明写信目的。（3分）
第二步：提出具体建议及理由。（6分，至少两点）
第三步：表达愿望或者期待。（2分）
提醒：范文是以学生会的名义给出建议，如果以个人口吻提出建议亦可，比如：I am writing on behalf of the Students’ Union to give some suggestions on how to spend a meaningful winter holiday.
三、评分标准
1. 总体要求：
1. 本题总分为15分，按五个档次进行评分。评分时，主要从内容要点、语言表达两个方面考查。
2 .评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3.评分时还应注意:
（1）词数少于60和多于100的，从总分中扣2分。
（2）单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
（3）书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
2. 各档次给分范围
第五档（13-15分）
1.写出全部合理的内容要点。
2.使用多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达流畅，语言很少错误且完全不影响理解。
第四档（10-12分）
1. 写出大部分合理的内容要点。
2. 使用多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达基本流畅，语言有少量错误但不太影响理解:
第三档（7-9分）
1.写出部分合理的内容要点。
2.使用一些恰当的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达不够流畅，语言有些错误，对理解有些影响。
第二档（4-6分）
1.写出少量合理内容要点。
2.使用简单的词汇和语法结构的句子，表达不流畅，语言有较多错误，严重影响理解。
第一档（0-3分）
1. 只写出一个合理内容要点或从试卷上抄袭无关内容。
2. 所用的词汇和语法结构低级且错误很多，非常严重影响理解。

读后续写评分标准
【语篇解读】本文是一篇记叙文。主要讲述了作者多次劝说儿子写好作业再和小猫玩耍失败后，决定把小猫关在浴室里，小猫的叫声引起儿子的哭闹。我又心疼儿子的孤单，陪他读书，安抚情绪后，耐心讲解道理。儿子理解后开心地继续写完了作业，并从此养成了好的学习习惯的故事。
【审题分析】
语篇类型: 记叙文
人称和时态: 第一人称; 一般过去时
主题: 温馨家庭，沟通理解
故事情节：
After breakfast, I assigned my son some schoolwork.
Within only minutes, he began to play happily with his best friend, our cat, Rosie.
I yelled from my room where I was working and required him to get down to work, but in vain.
I wanted to lock the cat inside the bathroom. But thinking of his loneliness, I abandoned the idea.
I walked up to the desk and removed the cat from it for several times, but still failed.
I decided to make a rule that…
Then I moved Rosie off his books and onto the side of the desk, making her lie down.
【思路点拨】
续写第一段开头: 我命令小猫“呆在这儿别动！”然后回到了我的房间。 接下来可写作者刚回房间不久，儿子和小猫玩耍时快乐的笑声又一次传来。我很纠结要不要真的实施和他约定的规则。根据第二段开头语可知，我最后还是下定决心履行诺言，带走了小猫并关进浴室。儿子很难过地默默流泪，低头不语。
续写第二段开头: “我刚把小猫关进浴室，小猫就开始喵喵地叫。” 因为回扣原文可知，我是一个单亲妈妈，儿子其实是一个非常孤单且害羞的孩子，小猫是他最好的伙伴，所以接下来可以写儿子听着猫叫时情绪上的转变，开始崩溃大哭。再回扣原文，我多次想要惩罚他们都下不了决心，可见作者其实非常爱儿子，所以接下来可写作者主动去安抚和陪伴儿子，并耐心地解释交流。儿子最终理解并开心完成当天学习任务，从而慢慢养成了学习的好习惯，也满足了我的愿望。
【范文评析】
① “laughter came not much later again”和 “after much thinking” 衔接了原文信息, 说明了儿子屡教不改和我内心的纠结。 “with a serious look”和 “without hesitation”表明了作者多次尝试失败后，要改掉儿子坏习惯的决心。
② “lowered his head in tears and remained silent”描绘了儿子意识到妈妈决心后的害怕和乖巧，为下文妈妈去安抚儿子打下铺垫。公众号：高 中 试卷君
③ “burst into crying” 形象贴切, 描写了儿子的情绪突变，符合小孩子感觉受了委屈后的行为表现。“hurried to…wrapped my arms…offered to”三连动词的运用, 呼应了前文的 “heartbroken”, 浓浓的母爱和心疼跃然于纸上。
④ “explained to him…with patience. He nodded understandingly…continue his schoolwork, eyes twinkling with joy.” 突显了父母和孩子之间通过沟通理解来解决问题的必要性，还有儿子的转变。
⑤ “…adapted to the new rule and formed a good learning habit” 最后再次呼应原文，儿子养成了好的学习习惯，解决了单亲妈妈的一大烦恼，和谐温馨。
说明：若续写情节合理、与原材料相符都可以接受。
评卷要求
1、本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分，每个档次5分。评分时先根据作答的具体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量、确定或调整档次，最后给分。词数少于130的，从总分中减去2分。
2、评分时，从故事内容，词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑，具体为：
（1）创造内容的质量，续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
（2）使用词汇和语法结构的准确性，恰当性和多样性。
（3）上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性 。
阅卷应整体评分，从主题是否明确、内容是否完整、内容和原文衔接度高不高、语言是否符合原文风格、语言使用是否正确等方面综合考虑档次。先确定档次，再具体给分。
3、 续写内容必须符合故事主线。不符合的一律不及格（15分以下）。抄袭原文或不相干的内容达到1/3 的（连着抄，间隔着抄都算）、充满负能量或不道德的内容，均判零分。
4、阅读材料的语言：主要以第三人称叙事为主，因此续写部分的语言也应是叙事风格，否则分数降低一个档次或扣5分。
5、语法：文章时态为一般过去时。使用时态错误，扣3分。 词汇、语法错误：一般大错扣1分，如出现1个小错，从总分中减去半分。相同的错误不重复扣分。如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
注意事项：续写部分应该以第三人称讲述故事，主要用过去时（如果人称或者时态用错，降一档）；与原材料的语言风格保持一致，否则分数降低一个档次。
三、评分标准
第五档（21~25分）
创造了丰富合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整与原文情境融洽度高。
使用了多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解
有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段。全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
第四档（16~20分）
创造了比较丰富合理的内容，比较有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度高。使用了比较多样并且恰当的词汇和语法结构。可能有些许错误，但不影响理解。
比较有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构比较清晰，意义比较连贯。
第三档（11~15分）
创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。
使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。
基本有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
第二档（6~10分）
内容或逻辑上有一些重大问题，续写不够完整，与原文情境有一定程度脱节。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解。
未能有效地使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
第一档（1~5分）
内容或逻辑上有较多重大问题，或有部分内容抄自原文，续写不完整，与原文情境基本脱节。
所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误很多，严重影响理解。
几乎没有使用语句间的衔接手段，全文结构不清晰，意不连贯。
零分
未作答，所写内容太少或无法看清，以致无法评判。所写内容全部抄自原文或与题目要求完全不相关。