2022-2023学年四川省南充市嘉陵第一中学高二下学期第一次月考英语试题含解析

2022-2023学年高二下期第一次月考

英语试题

时间：120分钟    满分：150分

注意事项：

1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。

2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题的正确答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上，且书写整洁。

3. 考试结束后，将答题卡交回。

第Ⅰ卷（选择题  共100分）

第一部分  听力（共两节，满分30分）

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。

第一节

听下面5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读一遍。

1．Why does the woman go out so early?

A．To go to school.      B．To watch a match.      C．To see a doctor.

2．How far is the man’s workplace?

A．It’s one mile away.      B．It’s 20 miles away.      C．It’s 30 miles away.

3．Who’s having a party?

A．Henry.      B．The man.      C．The woman.

4．Where is the woman going this afternoon?

A．To the railway station.      B．To the library.      C．To the airport.

5．What does the man think of Adam?

A．He’s selfish.      B．He’s hard-working.      C．He’s outgoing.

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6-7题。

6．How long will the woman stay in Ireland?

A．For two weeks. B．For a month. C．Half a year.

7．What’s the weather probably like in Ireland now?

A．Rainy. B．Hot. C．Cold.

听第7段材料，回答第8-10题。

8．What kind of movie is Glass?

A．Thriller. B．Cartoon. C．Crime.

9．What can we know about the woman?

A．She likes crime movies.    B．She hardly watches movies.  C．She loves children’s movies.

10．What’s the most probable relationship between the speakers?

A．Mother and son. B．Teacher and student.  C．Wife and husband.

听第8段材料，回答第11-13题。

11．What’s the man going to do on Saturday?

A．Go camping. B．Join in a clean-up.  C．Play in a park.

12．What does the woman think important?

A．Protecting animals.       B．Keeping the environment clean.  C．Participating in school activities.

13．Where is the woman going this weekend?

A．To the park. B．To the seaside. C．To the countryside.

听第9段材料，回答第14-17题。

14．Where did the woman think she had put her purse?

A．On the table. B．Beside the bill. C．On the chair.

15．What was the man doing before the conversation?

A．He was talking with a friend.  B．He was waiting for the owner.  C．He was counting his money.

16．What is the man most probably?

A．A policeman. B．A waiter.   C．A customer.

17．Where does the conversation take place?

A．At a shop. B．At a restaurant.   C．At a bookstore.

听第10段材料，回答第18-20题。

18．What does Lily want Tamika to do?

A．Teach her to swim. B．Work harder.   C．Be her best friend.

19．Who would give the book two stars?

A．The speaker herself.       B．The speaker’s son.          C．The speaker’s daughter.

20．What does the speaker mainly talk about?

A．How to read a book. B．How to develop an interest.  C．How to make friends.

第二部分：阅读理解（共2节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题每小题2分，满分30分）

阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Henry Raeburn (1756—1823)

The Exhibition

This exhibition of some sixty masterpieces celebrating the life and work of Scotland’s best loved painter, Sir Henry Raeburn, comes to London. Selected from collections throughout the world, it is the first major exhibition of his work to be held in over forty years.

Lecture Series

Scottish National Portrait (肖像画) Gallery presents a series of lectures for the general public. They are held in the Lecture Room. Admission to lectures is free.

Exhibition Times

Monday—Saturday 10.00—17.45  Sunday 12.00—17.45

Last admission to the exhibition: 17.15. There is no re-admission.

Closed: 24—26 December and 1 January

Admission

£4. Children under 12 years accompanied by an adult are admitted free.

Schools and Colleges

A special low entrance charge of £2 per person is available to all in full-time education, up to and including those at first degree level, in organised groups with teachers.

21. What is the right time for attending Raeburn’s English Contemporaries?

A. Sun. 26 Oct.  B. Thurs. 30 Oct.  C. Thurs. 6 Nov.  D. Thurs. 13 Nov.

22. How much would a couple with two children under 12 pay for admission?

A. £4.    B. £8.    C. £12.    D. £16.

23. How can full-time students get group discounts?

A. They should go on Sunday mornings.            B. They should come from art schools.

C. They must be led by teachers.            D. They must have ID cards with them.

B

Shortly after I graduated from college, I moved to a new state to start a full-time job. One day at work, I found myself wanting to go traveling. Once I’d saved up enough money, I decided it was the perfect opportunity to travel by myself for the first time in my life. So I quickly started doing research on where I’d like to go.

I had never traveled alone before, so I decided to sign up for a guided group that was going to Thailand. This gave me a sense of security (安全). It felt like a great way not only to try being alone and meeting strangers but also doing something that sounded really fun for two weeks.

The Thailand trip forced me out of so many comfort zones (舒适区) that ended up being one of the big turning points of my life. The time I spent in Thailand finding my way around airports and taxis alone, meeting a group of strangers, and doing rock climbing with them in often remote parts of the country, ended up being one of the greatest experiences of my life. Up until this point I had always been shy and very careful to avoid danger and mistakes, but this travel experience inspired me to become different. It showed me a brave, strong, and independent side of myself that went on to influence my life greatly when I returned home.

When I got back, I pretty much dedicated my life to spending as much time as possible doing activities like climbing, hiking, or backpacking especially things that I once thought I wasn’t “capable of” or was “too scared of”. Today, about 6 years later, I’m an outdoor empowerment coach and backpacking educator.

My trip to Thailand was just what I needed to make that change. It showed me what was possible. It changed the path of my life.

24．Why was the author’s trip to Thailand special?

A．Because it was planned all by himself.           B．Because it was his first trip after college.

C．Because it was achieved by quitting his job.       D．Because it was the first time he had traveled alone.

25．What can we learn about the author’s trip?

A．It was a guided trip.         B．It was free of charge.

C．It was about 6 weeks long.                   D．It was designed for young travelers.

26．What did the author do during the trip?

A．He learned to drive.                        B．He practiced rock climbing.

C．He explored many remote areas alone.         D．He met his best friend for the first time.

27．How has the author changed after the trip?

A．He made friends more easily.                B．He fell in love with traveling.

C．He became a brave outdoor type.        D．He started staying away from danger.

C

     A recent study conducted by Gavin Sandercock at the University of Essex in the UK and his colleagues shows just one in 20 people aged 18 to 64 in England are meeting England’s strictest weekly strength training guidelines. Strength training is defined as any activities that strengthens muscles or bone, says Sandercock. This can include lifting weights, body weight exercises and fitness plans.

The teams looked at survey data from over 275,000 adults in this age group. Between 2015 and 2017, these people were asked to estimate how much time they spend doing physical activity each week. They wanted to find out what proportion of these adults in England met the UK’s weekly health guidelines, which recommend 150 minutes of moderate activity a week.

The researchers found that on average just 5 percent of these adults in England met the full recommendation, including strength training. They also found that men were more likely to meet all the guidelines as well as younger age groups. “But the strongest effect that we found when we looked at the variables was education,” Sandercock says.

“ There are two main reasons why this could be the case,” Sandercock says. “ People who are more educated may be more likely to know what the UK’s recommended health advice is. On the other hand, it could be that strength training——especially lifting weights——often requires access to a gym which costs money. Higher levels of education have been linked to greater wealth,” he says.

“ To encourage greater participation in strength training, I believe we need to raise awareness about its multiple benefits. And we need to stress that strength training is relevant to health and fitness across all age groups and not just for young males. Anyway, there’s still a long way to go.” says Anne Tidedmann at the University of Sydney.

28. What does the study show about the adults in England?

A.They lack strength training.                B. They attach importance to diet. 

C.They watch their weight.                  D. They have strict fitness plans.

29. What do we know about the UK’s weekly health guidelines?

A.They are aimed at male athletes.             B. They have a standard for exercise time.

C.They include some mental activities.          D. They only apply to healthy people.

30. Why does Sandercock talk about education?

A.It enriches knowledge on health.              B. It makes a person become wealthy.

C.It affects strength training greatly.             D. It contributes to one’s wisdom.

31. What can we infer about the work of popularizing strength training?

1. It takes less time.                      B. It needs great efforts.

C. It makes mo difference.                  D. It gets wide support.

D

Around two-thirds of the world’s population will face at least one month of water shortages by 2050, according to a new report on how climate change is affecting the world’s water resources.

     The report from WMO(世界气候组织）,released Tuesday, includes predictions about river flows, floods and droughts on every continent. It warned that some places, such as Brazil’s Rio Sao Francisco basin, face a challenging future because of the continuous droughts. However, others, including the Great Lakes region of the United States, are in better shape. There will be losers and winners, the authors wrote, though, “Overall, the negative trends are stronger than the positive ones.”

     Researchers also said rapid snow melt in high-altitude regions has “a great impact” on global water security. The heavy use of groundwater for irrigation, a problem worsened by droughts, also affects global water security

     “ The impacts of climate change are often felt through water---more severe and frequent droughts, and more extreme flooding. They have great effects on economy, ecosystem and all aspects of our daily lives,” WMO Secretary-General Taalas said.

     “ There isn’t enough understanding of changes in the distribution(分布），quantity, and quality of freshwater resources. The 36-page report will fill that knowledge gap and provide an outline of water availability in different parts of the world,” another official said. The findings will guide investments on climate adaptation. Besides, it will also give information to the United Nations’ campaign to provide access to early risk warning system for climate disasters.

     “Between 2001 and 2018, the United Nations reported that 74 percent of all natural disasters were water-related. This motivates participants at the recent U.N. climate conference to further add water into adaptation efforts. This report will be a great help,” added the official.

32. What is the main finding of the report?

1. Continuous floods have put Brazil at risk.
2. The use of groundwater has worsened droughts.
3. The world water security has become unbalanced.
4. Every continent is suffering from natural disasters.

33. What is Taalas’s attitude to global water security?

1. Concerned.        B. Optimistic.         C. Critical.          D.Tolerant.

34. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 5?

A.The content of the report.               B. The purpose of the report.

C.The background of the report.            D. The significance of the report.

35. Why did the author write this text?

    A. To call on people to save water.         

B. To explain reasons for climate disasters.

C. To present a report on global water security.

D. To compare water resources in different places.

第二节    七选五（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能坡入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

I have the same 24 hours in a day as you do, but I have made specific choices that allow me to make the most of every day, and still feel happy and relaxed.   36 

· Pick the most important.

  37   Focus on spending time that for you is fun and productive. I chose the life of an adviser because I like to work with companies, but don’t want the life of a big company CEO. My choices are based on the lifestyle I want.

· Combine your activities.

Many people go crazy trying to figure out how to spend time with friends, family, work, play, etc.   38   Find ways to enjoy them in a combined manner. Build your social life around people in your work environment. Find people in your company who share common interests and develop your career (职业) around the people and activities you love.

·   39 

You would think learning takes more time from you, but actually there are always new ways of doing things that can save you time on daily tasks, freeing you up for the most important. Always be looking for a new way to gain back an hour here or there.

· Lighten up.

The world won’t come to an end in most cases just because you left a few things undone. Celebrate progress and keep refining (改进) toward a happy productive existence.   40   Every completion is a small victory that adds up in a big way.

第三部分    英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节    完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

When Beverley Burdeyney turned seventy-four last year, she started having problems with her   41  , notably dryness and discomfort.

“I was simply   42   a terrible experience,” Ms. Burdeyney said at her home in Toronto. “I felt so helpless and insecure because the quality of my   43   was affected.”

    Ms. Burdeyney talked to some friends who had   44   problems and discovered that they were largely suffering in   45  . “Nobody chooses to talk about it because it seems so   46  ,” she said. “But more and more are suffering and lives are being   47  .”

Eventually, Ms. Burdeyney learned about plans for an eye research   48   at Tel Aviv University in Israel. The research team   49   Canadian doctor Allan Slomovic, who has done   50   work on eye care using stem cells. Seeing a ray of hope, Ms. Burdeyney began raising   51  for the project with a friend, Toronto businessman Meyer Zeifman.   52  , she has raised $110,000 with another $40,000   53  .

“I’m trying to get more and more people to   54   that there are solutions ,” said Ms. Burdeyney, a trained nurse who is still working as a personal trainer after   55  . “I say there is no old   56  , there’s only neglect (忽视). Don’t stand   57  , do something about it.”

Ms. Burdeyney   58   that she was hoping to do more for the research project. “I just want to

bring   59 into people’s eyes and this is just the   60  . There is still a long way to go.”

41. A. throat    B. skin    C. lungs    D. eyes

42. A. getting over   B. going through      C. holding on       D. passing down

43. A. story        B. treatment      C. life       D. relationship

44. A. similar       B. various      C. personal      D. specific

45. A. turn       B. peace       C. vain       D. silence

46. A. unbearable      B. abnormal      C. insignificant     D. disturbing

47. A. affected          B. forgotten      C. replaced      D. separated

48. A. course       B. program      C. paper       D. conference

49. A. informed      B. declared       C. included       D. revived

50. A. part-time      B. controversial     C. voluntary       D. ground-breaking

51. A. money        B. standards      C. awareness      D. questions

52. A. As ever       B. So far       C. In return      D. Once again

53. A. wasted        B. donated       C. expected      D. earned

54. A. imagine       B. confirm      C. remember      D. understand

55. A. retirement      B. childbirth       C. graduation      D. marriage

56. A. time       B. rule       C. age       D. tale

57. A. straight       B. still          C. firm        D. alone

58. A. commented      B. learned      C. reminded      D. added

59. A. light        B. joy       C. color       D. beauty

60. A. future     B. beginning     C. truth     D. meaning

                            第II 卷   非选择题  （共 50 分）

第二节（共10小题；每小题 1.5分, 满分15分）

阅读下面材料, 在空白处填入适当的内容 (1 个单词) 或括号内单词的正确形式。

China’s National Day falls on October 1st every year     61    (celebrate) the formation of the People’s Republic of China. It is also known as National Day and National Golden Week.

The founding ceremony of New China    62   (hold) in Tian'anmen Square in Beijing on Oct. 1, 1949,     63     the Government declared October 1st as National Day every year from 1950 onward. 

As a great day in China, it represents    64      (independent), strength, and national confidence. The military parade has been     65      important part of the National Day ceremony. From 1949      66     the present, there are a total of fifteen National Day parades held. The number of representatives of the army, navy, and air force on parade       67     (be) generally around 10,000.      68     (usual), there is also a mass parade behind the military parade. In 2019, more than 100,000 people from all walks of life took part in it. The entire parade is broadcast live on all major TV stations.

On National Day, the national flag rises at 6:10 am in Tian'anmen Square. There are always people

  69   (travel) long distances to watch the ceremony. There are also some other   70      (activity) like firework displays, light shows, and flowerbed exhibitions.

第四部分： 写作 （共两节，满分35分）

第一节：短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；2. 只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。

It was Monday morning, and the writing class had just begin. Everyone was silent, wait to see who would be called upon to read his and her paragraph aloud. Some of us were confident and eager take part in the class activity; others were nervous and anxious. I had done myself homework, but I was shy. I was afraid that to speak in front of a larger group of people. At that moment, I remembered that my father once said, “The classroom is a place for learning and that include learning from textbooks, and mistake as well.” Immediate, I raised my hand.

第二节：书面表达（满分25分）

假如你是校学生会主席。端午节即将到来，为了帮助你校的外国留学生更好地了解中国文化，学生会将为他们举办一个端午节活动。请你根据以下提示，用英语向他们发出书面通知。

    时间：下周五6：00 -8：00

    地点：教学楼101室

    内容：1．观看电影《屈原》    2．学习包粽子（rice dumpling）   3．比赛用筷子（chopstick)   

注意：

1．词数100-120词

2．可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。

                                    NOTICE                                                

2022-2023学年高二下期第一次月考

英语试题参考答案

第一部分 听力（每小题1.5分 共30分）（附录音原文）

 1-5   CBACB       6-10  ACAAC        11-15  BBCAB        16-20 CBCAC

第二部分  阅读理解 （每小题2分 共40分）

21-23 BBC      24-27 DABC       28-31 ABCB      32-35 CADC     36—40 FDCBG

第三部分  完型填空 （每题1.5分 共30分）

41-45 DBCAD       46-50 CABCD          51-55 ABCDA        56-60 CBDAB      

第四部分  语法填空 （每题 1.5分  共15分）

61. 
    to celebrate      
62. was held        
63. when         
64. independence       
65. an   

66. to     
67. is     
68. Usually        
69. travel(l)ing      

70. activities 
 

第五部分   短文改错 （每处1分  共10分）

It was Monday morning, and the writing class had just begin. Everyone was silent,  wait to see who would be

                                            begun                   waiting

called upon to read his and her paragraph aloud. Some of us were confident and eager∧take part in the class

                   or                                                  to

activity; others were nervous and anxious. I had done myself homework, but I was shy. I was afraid that to speak

                                            my/the

 in front of a larger group of people. At that moment, I remembered that my father once said, “The classroom is a

 large

 place for learning and that include learning from textbooks, and mistake as well.”Immediate, I raised my hand.

includes                        mistakes       Immediately

  第六部分   书面表达 （共25分）

 Possible version

                                         Notice

 Aimed to promote a better understanding of Chinese traditional festivals as well as Chinese traditional culture, an activity themed Dragon-boat festival is scheduled to be held in Room 101 of the teaching building on next Friday with the approaching of this traditional festival.

It will start from 6 p.m and last for 2 hours. As scheduled, a variety of activities will be presented, including enjoying a movie named Quyuan and learning how to make rice dumplings. We also can have fun in a chopsticks competition.These activities will provide a chance for you not only to experience unique cultures but also enjoy delicious Chinese traditional food.

All foreign students and those who are interested in the activity are welcome. Please be there on time. I’m sure that it can leave a wonderful impression on you.

附：听力录音原文

Text 1

M: Why are you going out so early today? It’s Saturday.

W: I have an appointment with my doctor. I’m supposed to meet him at his office around 9:00 am.

Text 2

W: Do you live far from your workplace?

M: Yes. It’s about 20 miles away. I used to spend about one and a half hours getting to the office by bus. But now I drive to work and it takes me just about one third of the time.

Text 3

M: I heard someone at the door. Who was that?

W: It was Henry. He wanted to borrow some plates. He has some friends coming over for a party tonight.

M: I hope they won’t make too much noise.

Text 4

W: Will you use your car this afternoon, Mike?

M: Perhaps no. Why do you ask?

W: I have to see off a friend at the airport, but I’m afraid time is tight for me.

M: Then please come back before 6 pm. I’ll pick up my girlfriend then.

Text 5

W: I heard Adam is applying for the scholarship now.

M: Yes. And he’s working really hard for it.

W: Why?

M: His father is out of work now. So no one needs the scholarship more than he does.

Text 6

M: Hi, Mary. I heard you’re going to Ireland. How long will you stay there?

W: For about fifteen days. But I don’t know well about its weather. I heard you once traveled to Ireland. What kind of clothes do you think I should take at this time of year?

M: Well, you’d better prepare some warm sweaters and coats. Although it was so warm and sunny when I was in Ireland, it’s usually windy at this time of year.

W: OK. Thanks.

M: Anything else you want to know?

W: Not now. Could I call you again if I have more questions about Ireland?

M: Certainly

Text 7

W: Sam, it’s been a long time since we last went to the cinema. How about seeing a movie tonight?

M: Good idea! What would you like to watch? How about Glass? It’s a superhero thriller film.

W: Oh no, I don’t like those horrible scenes.

M: Then what about Toy Story 4?

W: Toy Story 4? Are you kidding? We’re not little kids. We’re adults.

M: Then do you want to watch a crime film? There is a great film titled Once Upon a Time in Hollywood. Leonardo DiCaprio stars in it, you know.

W: That’s great. I’m a big fan of his movies. I’ve watched nearly all of his films. I’m so glad he has a new movie on now.

M: Good. Then let’s decide on this movie.

W: Definitely.

Text 8

W: David, do you want to go camping with us this weekend?

M: I really want to go, but I cannot join you.

W: Why?

M: Our school asked us to take part in a clean-up in the National Forest Park this Saturday. Everyone should go and participate in it.

W: Why does your school organize such an event?

M: It wants to help clean up all the rubbish at the park and encourage us to protect the environment. Besides, it wants to draw the public’s attention to environmental issues.

W: Great! I think it is really important to keep the environment clean.

M: I totally agree. Today, pollution has become a very big problem.

W: Yes. Great efforts should be made to reduce pollution.

M: I agree. So where are you going camping this weekend?

W: In the countryside. After raining for a week, it finally clears up. I’m sure we’ll have a great time.

Text 9

M: Excuse me, madam. Is there anything I can do for you?

W: Thanks, sir. I’m looking for my purse here. I was eating here with a friend. I put the purse on the table. I must have forgotten to take it with me when I left.

M: Are you sure you’ve brought your purse here?

W: Yes, I’m sure. It’s I who paid the bill for my friend. I couldn’t have done that if I hadn’t taken my purse.

M: So what’s the color of your purse?

W: It’s a red silk one. And it’s quite new.

M: And what’s in your purse?

W: There is a credit card, a used lipstick and some cash, three hundred dollars I guess.

M: Good. Here you are. This must be yours. As a matter of fact, I finished eating about five minutes ago. I didn’t leave because I was waiting for the owner of the purse.

W: Oh, that’s very kind of you. Thank you so much!

M: You’re welcome!

Text 10

My Best Friend is a book for young children. It’s mainly about a little girl named Lily. It’s summer, and Lily spends lots of time at the community pool, where she sees Tamika. Lily decides that Tamika will be her new best friend. But Tamika already has a best friend and no matter how hard Lily tries, she can’t seem to impress Tamika. The story tells about the difficulties of finding a friend.

My daughter Lisa and I read the book together. She said that she would give the book three stars. But I would give it just two stars. I especially did not like the topic. I think as a parent we should explain to our children that when someone is being mean and ignoring you, pushing harder will not make them like you more. We should also tell them that it’s OK to walk away from someone who is not showing true interest in being your friend. I wouldn’t recommend the book. But through writing the book, Mary Ann Rodman did open the doors for me to teach Lisa that some people are mean and that it’s OK to walk away from them and make new friends.