福建省三明第一中学2022-2023学年高一英语下学期期中考试试题（Word版附答案）

这是一份福建省三明第一中学2022-2023学年高一英语下学期期中考试试题（Word版附答案），共18页。

三明一中2022-2023学年第二学期半期考试
高 一 英 语 试 题

本试卷共12页，满分150分，考试用时120分钟。

注意事项：
1、 答题前，考生务必用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔将自己的姓名、准考证号和座位号填写在答题卡上，将条形码横贴在答题卡右上角“条形码粘贴处”。
2、作答选择题时，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑；写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3、非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4、考生必须保持答题卡的整洁；考试结束后，将答题卡交回。
第Ⅰ卷
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. When is the girl’s birthday?
A. May 5th.
B. May 15th.
C. May 16th.
2. What does the man mean?
A. They should ask about the fee first.
B. Their neighbor will help them paint the house.
C. They haven’t got enough money to paint the house.
3. What did the man buy yesterday?
A. A shirt.
B. A jacket.
C. A sweater.
4. Where does the conversation most probably take place?
A. At school.
B. At a hospital.
C. At a stadium.
5. What is the man’s hobby?
A. Taking photos.
B. Listening to music.
C. Collecting stamps.
第二节 (共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. When does the meeting end?
A. At 8:30.
B. At 9:00.
C. At 10:30.
7. What do we know about the woman?
A. She was late for work today.
B. She will be the man’s assistant.
C. She is a new worker of the company.
听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. Why did John Morrison leave the company?
A. He left for his medical condition.
B. He wanted to start his own business.
C. He accepted an offer from another company.
9. What does the woman have to do this week?
A. Read some résumés.
B. Reply to an ad.
C. Post a job ad.
听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. How did the man find the apartment?
A. From a friend.
B. From the Internet.
C. From a newspaper.
11. What does the man want?
A. A big kitchen.
B. A big living room.
C. A big bedroom.
12. What will the woman probably do this Friday?
A. Rent an apartment.
B. Pay the man a visit.
C. Entertain(招待) some friends.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What is the man doing?
A. Making a reply.
B. Getting some advice.
C. Asking for information.
14. What sport is the most popular at the camping center?
A. Horse-riding.
B. Boating.
C. Sailing.
15. When do groups always arrive at the camping center?
A. On Friday.
B. On Saturday.
C. On Sunday.

16. What is the cost for a child?
A. ￡425.
B. ￡480.
C. ￡525.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. How old does a guide dog begin serious training?
A. At the age of 4 months.
B. At the age of 14 months.
C. At the age of 40 months.
18. How long does the intensive course last?
A. Three months.
B. Five months.
C. Three to five months.
19. Which is NOT a necessary skill for a guide dog to learn?
A. To bite the other animals.
B. To obey some commands.
C. To walk across the street safely.
20. How long does the most important training course last?
A. About one month.
B. About two months.
C. About four months.

第二部分：阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Fall is a time for harvest. During this season, many countries have their own festivals to celebrate a harvest. Here’s a look at some of them.
China
In 2018, the Farmers’ Harvest Festival was launched in China. It’s held on the day of the autumn equinox (秋分). Every year, a range of events are organized nationwide especially for farmers and rural affairs’ workers to celebrate the harvest festival. Take this year’s festival for example. In Jiaxing, Zhejiang Province, farmers brought 100 seed species to the main site of the ceremony in Hanhu district and placed them in a wall to mark the achievements of the seed industry. In Heilongjiang Province, the festival was combined with local traditions of the Daur people and the locals danced around bonfires (篝火).
Canada
In Canada, people celebrate their harvest on Thanksgiving Day. The tradition dates back to the 16th century, when the English explorer Martin Frobisher (1535-1594) came upon the land which is now Canada while searching for the “New World”. As he arrived in Canada, he celebrated surviving the long journey.
Today, it has become a recognized holiday in the country that falls on the second Monday in October. Its date has moved around several times, but in 1957, the government decided to set the date in line with (与…一致) the completion of the Canadian harvest.
African countries
In Ghana and Nigeria, people have the Yam (山药) Festival to celebrate the most common food in many African countries. The Yam Festival is usually held at the beginning of August at the end of the rainy season. People celebrate the harvest with days of ceremonies and offerings of yams to their ancestors and to the gods.

21. Why were 100 seed species placed in a wall?
A. To pray for a good future.
B. To follow the local traditions.
C. To illustrate the role of farmers.
D. To show the achievements in the seed industry.
22. Why did Martin Frobisher go to Canada?
A. To explore the “New World”.
C. To taste the turkey of Canada.
B. To hold a harvest celebration.
D. To experience the pleasure of journey.
23. What is the purpose of observing the Yam Festival?
A. To create new ceremonies.
C. To celebrate the common food.
B. To remember their ancestors.
D. To show respect for the gods.

B
One concern I keep hearing from potential gym goers is the age barrier (障碍). Many men and women thinking about a personal fitness plan sometimes worry that “ I’m too old to start exercising,” or “going to the gym is something for younger people, not me”. This brings up a big question for potential gym-goers: How old is too old? Is there an age requirement at the front door that keeps everyone over the age of 39 out?
A friend of mine was talking about her father who experienced a major lifestyle change late in life, and it reminds me of just how little age really matters when we want to start an active lifestyle. We’ll call her father Rob.
Rob lived an active lifestyle in his earlier years. Even in his mid-70s, Rob was still walking the golf course three to five times a week, actively playing tennis, and traveling abroad whenever he had the chance.
During his travels, Rob had an accident, falling down a set of stone stairs in Istanbul and tearing up both of his knees. He had an emergency surgery and experienced months of physical therapy (疗法), but was told that as a man heading into his 80s, he would never be able to walk unassisted again. However, after months of relying on others for transportation, Rob decided to do something about his condition, old age or not.
Rob started going to the gym, worked with a personal trainer, and set a realistic goal for his future: to walk around the block without a walking stick. For someone who could walk 18 holes in an afternoon, a block might seem insignificant, but Rob knew he had to start somewhere. He began leg exercises, started a healthy diet, and kept at his scheduled workouts.
It paid off. Today, Rob is walking around the neighborhood unassisted, playing golf, and traveling up and down the coast. Rob still has a lot of progress in his future, but he is already miles ahead of where he started.

24. What does the underlined word “potential” in paragraph 1 mean?
A. Passive.
B. Serious.
C. Possible
D. Energetic
25. What did Rob do to make a full recovery?
A. He ate more food than before.
C. He turned to a gym coach for help.
B. He often walked the golf course.
D. He set a long-term goal for training.
26. Which of the following words can best describe Rob?
A. Helpful and grateful.
C. Capable and talented.
B. Tough and determined.
D. Creative and independent.
27. What does the author intend to tell us in the text?
A. No pains, no gains.
C. Never give up hope.
B. Age is not a barrier.
D. Well begun is half done

C
It has been almost six and a half years since the American music group Pearl Jam published its tenth album. That changed Friday when the band dropped its eleventh collection, Gigaton. Critics (批评家) have noted that this new album includes hard rock. Entertainments Weekly called the music “a gathering storm of guitars”. In other words, there is some loud and wild music on Gigaton. But most reviewers agree that Pearl Jam continues to experiment with less traditional rock and roll sound on the album.
But back to the name of the album—Gigaton can also mean the weight mass equal to 1 billion tons. The word is most often used these days in stories related to climate science and environmental damage. In fact, former U. S. President Obama famously defined the word during a speech about climate change in Alaska and the Arctic. When discussing the huge yearly loss of ice from Alaska’s glaciers, he compared the amount to the size of the national Mall in Washington, as if it were a solid (固体的) block that stood almost 700 meters tall.
And climate change issues are at the heart of Pearl Jam’s Gigaton. The album picture shows icefalls in Svalbard, Norway. Svalbard is one of the northernmost places where humans live in the world. Some climate scientists say it is warming faster than any other place. Pearl Jam has spent most of its 30-year existence on environmental causes. The band and its members have won honors for raising money, climate change educational efforts and more. They also put money into environmental health projects to reduce the group’s carbon footprint.
Pearl Jam was officially introduced into the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame in 2017. The lead singer Vedder’s opening comments were about the environment. “So, climate change is real,” he said. “And we...cannot...cannot be the generation that history will look back upon and wonder why they didn’t do anything possible to solve the biggest danger in our time.”

28. What can we know about the new album Gigaton?
A. It includes more loud music.
C. It is Pearl Jam’s tenth album.
B. It receives fans’ high praise.
D. It has new musical elements (要素).
29. Why are Obama’s words mentioned?
A. To give a definition of Gigaton.
B. To call on people to focus on glaciers.
C. To show the influence of climate change.
D. To explain the character of Alaska’s glaciers.
30. What do the members of Pearl Jam always try to do?
A. Fund healthcare projects.
C. Fight against climate change.
B. Build houses in Svalbard.
D. Team climate scientists up.
31. What can be the best title of the text?
A. Pearl Jam’s New Album Makes a Hit
B. Gigaton: a Gathering Storm of Guitars
C. Pearl Jam: an Famous Band in the World
D. A New Album Rocks Hard on Climate Change
D
An important lesson in the moral education of children could be as close as the book in their hands. Stories can play a role in changing the importance of particular moral values in young audiences, according to the result of a new study.
“ Media can greatly influence separate moral values and get kids to place more or less importance on those values depending on what is uniquely stressed in that content,” says Lindsay Hahn, PhD, a professor in the University at Buffalo College of Arts and Sciences.
Hahn is first author of the new study, which adds an important part to a body of literature that explores how media content affects children. While many previous studies have focused on broad conceptualisations (概念化), like positive or negative effects of specific content, Hahn’s study looks at how reading of content featuring specific moral values might influence the weight kids place on those values.
Do children reading about particular moral characteristics absorb those qualities as building blocks for their own morality? The findings suggest so, and further support how this indirect approach to socializing children’s morality can add to the direct teaching of moral principles kids might receive through formal instruction.
For the study, Hahn and her colleagues took the main character from a teenager story and edited the content to reflect in each version (版本) the study’s focus on one of four moral values. A fifth version was changed in a way that featured an amoral main character. The stories were shared with about 200 participants between the ages of 10 and 14. The team then measured the importance kids place on moral values to find out how participants might be influenced by specific stories.
“Measuring these effects can be difficult,” says Hahn. “That’s why one purpose of this research was to develop a measure of moral values for kids”.
32. What can be inferred from the results of the study?
A. Good virtues can carry children through hard times.
B. Good morals in stories help shape children’s values.
C. Teaching moral principles directly to kids seems useless.
D. Reading stories is a better approach than formal instructions.
33. What does the author try to tell us in paragraph 3?
A. The response of the public to Hahn’s study.
B. The difference between Hahn’s study and previous studies.
C. The big contribution of Hahn’s study to children’s literature.
D. The branches of the research on media influences on children.
34. What did Hahn’s team do for the study?
A. They adapted a character and created five stories.
B. They tested different moral principles in children.
C. They created a chain story out of an old character.
D. They illustrated the study for younger participants.
35. Where does this passage probably come from?
A. A textbook.
C. A medical report.
B. A social report.
D. An education magazine.

第二节 （共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
Before movies had voices, they had music. From silent films to today’s computer-generated ones, film composers use the score to help tell the story.
Music Manipulates (影响) Emotions
The most obvious role music plays in movies is in manipulating the audience’s emotions and bringing them the desired feelings.   36   Philip Ball, author of The Music Instinct, says our brain is born to respond in emotional ways. He says, “Our response to certain kinds of noise is something so strong in us that we can’t switch it off. Film composers know that and use it to shortcut the logical part of our brain and get straight to the emotional centers.”
Music Gets Us in the Mood
The first bars of music in a movie usually establish its style. The low sound of an organ communicates a different atmosphere than light electronica playing a quick tune.   37   The music telegraphs whether something is serious, adventurous, joyful or amusing.
Music Introduces People, Places and Things
Music helps viewers understand the story, a trick filmmakers picked up from operas, etc.   38   A recent example of this can be found in The Lord of the Rings trilogy, in which, quick music is played for the Hobbits, while the fellowship gets romantically heroic music.
  39  
Movies rely on music to help establish time period, location, cultural heritage or social standing. Using Baroque-style music sets a scene in the 18th century. Back to the Future used Huey Lewis’ The Power of Love for its “present day” scenes and such songs as Earth Angel and Johnny B. Goode for its scenes in the past.   40   For example, music that audience thinks to be Russian can set something in Moscow even if the music is actually American in origin.
A. Music places us in time and space.
B. Music doesn’t have to be real for this to be effective.
C. Music enables people to forget about time and space.
D. Composers use music to predict and connect the story.
E. Film composers create theme music for characters, situations or places.
F. The selection of certain sounds creates feelings of happiness, fear or even panic.
G. Film composers carefully choose instruments and sounds to set a mood for each scene.

第三部分：语言运用（共三节，满分40分）
第一节 （共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
One good turn deserves another.
A man was hired to paint a boat. He brought paint and brushes and began to paint the boat as the 41 wanted. While painting, he  42   there was a hole in the body of the boat and decided to repair it. When he finished painting, he received his 43 and left.
The next day, the owner of the boat visited the painter and  44  him with a cheque (支票), much higher than what he was paid for the painting work. The painter was  45  .
“You’ve already paid me for painting the boat, sir!” He said.
“This is not for the paint job. It’s for repairing the  46   in the boat.”
“Ah! But it was such an insignificant service.” The man said. “Certainly it’s not worth paying me such a high amount for something so  47  !”
“My dear friend,” the owner said, “You don’t 48 . Let me tell you what  happened. When I asked you to paint the boat, I  49  to mention the hole. When the boat dried, my kids took it and went on a fishing 50 . They did not know that there was a hole there. I was not at home at the time. So when I  51  and noticed they had taken the boat, I was hopeless. Imagine my  52  and joy when I saw them returning safely from fishing.”
“ Then, I examined the boat and found that you had repaired the hole! You now see what you did? You  53   the life of my children!”
Each of us has a moral duty to offer help. Wipe tears, listen carefully and repair all the “hole” we  54  in our life journey, because a small act will make a big   55    in the future.
41.
A. boss
B. owner
C. director
D. company
42.
A. heard
B. sensed
C. noticed
D. figured
43.
A. tip
B. award
C. prize
D. money
44.
A. shared
B. charged
C. dropped
D. presented
45.
A. pleased
B. surprised
C. disappointed
D. embarrassed
46.
A. hole
B. chain
C. engine
D. equipment
47.
A. small
B. great
C. typical
D. obvious
48.
A. lie
B. cheat
C. reject
D. understand
49.
A. hated
B. tended
C. forgot
D. offered
50.
A. race
B. trip
C. show
D. ceremony
51.
A. left
B. assisted
C. returned
D. complained
52.
A. pride
B. despair
C. tension
D. relief
53.
A. cured
B. saved
C. improved
D. respected
54.
A. come across
B. come into
C. get over
D. get through
55.
A. profit
B. progress
C. difference
D. achievement
第II卷
第三部分 语言运用
第二节 单句填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10 分）
根据句意，在空白处填入1个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
56. Virtual choir members record ________ (they) while they perform alone on video.
57. Music gave me hope and a sense of ________ (satisfy) .
58. During the Mid-autumn Festival in China, families gather to admire the ________
.. (shine) moon and enjoy delicious mooncakes.
59. Online shopping websites and social media apps have made it much ________ (easy)
...for the public to spend more on gifts for their loved ones.
60. Festivals help us understand where we came from, who we are and what _________
...(appreciate).
61. Sarah Williams was very afraid and she felt so alone and ________ (discourage).
62. The new People’s Republic of China saw Dr Lin Qiaozhi ________ (play) a key role.
63. People celebrate the harvest festival to show that they are grateful ________ the year’s
...supply of food.
64. Celebrating Naadam with my friend was totally worth ________.
65. _________ Lin Qiaozhi never married, she was known as the “mother of ten thousand
...babies”.
第三节 语篇填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The Qingming Festival is an occasion when Chinese people pay respect to their ancestors. And for those people 66 love drinking tea, this festival also reminds them of China’s 67 (tradition) tea-making. China’s tea-making was added 68 the intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产) list of the UNESCO. China now has 43 items on the list, 69 (continue) to be the most enlisted country in the world.
Since ancient times, Chinese people have been planting, picking, making and drinking tea. 70 (base) on natural conditions and local customs, Chinese tea producers have developed six categories of tea—green, yellow, dark, white, oolong and black—and there are other 71 (variety) like flower-scented teas, and more than 2,000 tea products.
The tea processing techniques and associated social practices in China consist of knowledge, skills and the management of tea plantations, tea picking, manual processing and the 72 (promote) of tea. The tea-making techniques are 73 (main) concentrated in the four tea regions in China. Associated social practices, however, are spread throughout the country and shared by multiple ethnic groups.
Tea 74 (find) everywhere in Chinese people’s daily life, as dipped or boiled tea is served in families, workplaces, tea houses, restaurants and temples, to name but a few. It is also 75 important part of socialization and ceremonies such as weddings and sacrifices.

第四部分 写作（共两节 满分 30分）
第一节 英汉互译（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10 分）
76. Music spoke words of encouragement to the deepest part of my being.
____________________________________________________________________。
77. The celebration featured a parade and a great feast with music, dancing and sports.
____________________________________________________________________。
78. And even as she lay dying, her final thoughts were for others.
____________________________________________________________________。
79. 每个节日都有它不同的风俗和独特的魅力。
____________________________________________________________________.
80. 对于一个人来说，生命是最宝贵的。
____________________________________________________________________.

第二节 书面表达（文章内容15分，书写5分；满分20分）
假定你是李华，你校正在组织英语演讲比赛。请以身边值得尊敬和爱戴的人为题，写一篇演讲稿参赛，内容包括：
1. 人物简介；
2. 尊敬和爱戴的原因。
注意：
1. 词数100左右；
2. 稿件题目和首尾句已为你写好。


The Person I Respect
Good morning, everyone! My name is Li Hua. ________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________
Thank you!

三明一中2022-2023学年第二学期半期考试
高一英语试题参考答案


第Ⅰ卷（选择题 共95分）
第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）
1-5: ACCBB
6-10: CCCAB
11-15: BBCAB
16-20: ABCAA
第二部分：阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
A篇阅读 21-23: DAC
C篇阅读 28-31: DACD
B 篇阅读 24-27: CCBB
D 篇阅读 32-35: BBAD
第二节（共5小题：每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36 – 40：FGEAB 
第三部分：语言运用（共三节， 满分25分）
第一节 完形填空（共15 小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
41- 45: BCDDB
46-50: AADCB
51-55: CDBAC



第II 卷（非选择题 共55分）
第二节 单句填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
56. themselves
57. satisfaction
58. shining
59. easier
60. to appreciate
61. discouraged
62. playing
63. for
64. it
65. Although/Though
第三节 语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
66. who
67. traditional
68. to
69. continuing
70. Based
71. varieties
72. promotion
73. mainly
74. is found
75. an
第四部分：写作（共两节，满分30分）
第一节 英汉互译（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10 分）
76. 音乐使我的内心深受鼓舞。
77. 庆祝活动主要是游行和丰盛的筵席，载歌载舞，并伴有体育活动。
78. (就算在) 临终时，她仍在为别人着想。
79. Every festival has its different customs and unique charms.
80. To a person nothing is more precious than their life.
第二节 书面表达 （内容15分，书写5分，满分20分）
81. One possible version: （词数：118）
The Person I Respect
Good morning! My name is Li Hua. It’s an honour to make a speech titled “The Person I Respect” here. There are many respectable people around us, by whom we are moved and inspired. My mum is one such person.
My mother is a teacher of a Senior High. Devoted and faithful, she puts her heart and soul into her job. Not only does she care about every student’s studies but their physical and mental health. Besides being a volunteer of our community, she often helps children in need with their schoolwork. As a mother, she is considerate, always listening to me patiently and helping me out readily.
I respect my mum due to her devotion, kindness and selflessness, and I’m proud of her !
Thank you!

附：听力录音文本
Text 1
W: It’s my birthday next week. I’ll be 16!
M: Which day?
W: May 5th. That’s next Tuesday…sorry Wednesday.
Text 2
W: We’ve lived here for 5 years now and I think it’s time to have the house painted.
M: You’re right. Mr. Churchill, our neighbor, just had his house painted. But we cannot afford
..the fee unless we do it ourselves.
Text 3
M: I went to the shopping center yesterday. I saw lots of nice shirts and jackets.
W: But you’ve already got lots of shirts.
M: Yes. And the jacket I liked was expensive. Actually I ended up with a rather stylish new
..sweater.
Text 4
W: What’s the matter with you?
M: Oh, I fell over at school today while I was playing football. My arm hurts.
W: Let me have a look. Emm… You’d better take an X-ray of your arm.
Text 5
W: What do you usually do in your spare time?
M: I spend most of my spare time listening to pop and rock music. And you?
W: I love to collect stamps and take photos.
Text 6
M: Hello, Sarah. Good to see you again. Welcome to the company.
W: Thank you. I know you asked me to come in a little later on my first day, but what time do
.I normally start work?
M: Well, the office opens at 8:30 and the team starts work at a 9 o’clock meeting.
W: What happens after the meeting?
M: We take a break at 10:30. My assistant Mia makes coffee for us all. Then it’s time to call
..customers and make sales.
W: That sounds good.

Text 7
W: Hey, Bob! Did you hear that John Morrison left the company? And that’s why the
..marketing department has been really shorthanded and they asked me to post a job ad.
M: Yes, Janet in Accounting told me he got a job offer from the P&T Group in Canada. By the
..way, did many people respond to the ad?
W: A lot more than I expected. But the problem is that I should finish reviewing résumés and
..narrow down the list of applicants by the end of the week.
M: You’ll be very busy, then. If you need any assistance, please let me know.

Text 8
W: Your new apartment is great, Kevin!
M: Thanks.
W: Did it take you a long time to find it?
M: No, I just looked online and found a few one-bedroom places that met my needs. Then I
..spent an afternoon visiting them with a friend.
W: Wow. That sounds pretty easy. I usually look in the newspaper or on the Internet. I can
..find a lot of information, but it takes a while to sort through all the information.
M: Yeah, I kept my search simple. I wanted a nice kitchen, a comfortable bedroom, but the
..most important thing was having a big living room.
W: Why? So you can entertain(招待) people?
M: Yeah, I love to have my friends over and cook dinner for them.
W: Really? You should invite me to one of your parties sometime.
M: I’d love to. Are you free this Friday?
W: Of course.
Text 9
W: Good morning, Lake Camping Centre. Can I help you?
M: Oh, yes. I’m interested in bringing a group of schoolchildren to your center this summer,
..and I’d like some information. Could you tell me something about your center?
W: Certainly, sir. We’re a place where you can come and enjoy great fun. Whatever your goal
..is, our workers are on hand to help you.
M: I think we’d like to have an educational visit and some fun at the same time. I was
thinking of some of our children who have failed exams, and need to retake them next year.
W: I see. Well, we have teachers in different subjects at most levels. And we offer sailing,
..volleyball, boating and quite a few other sports. Most children have never tried
..horse-riding, so we offer courses in that, too. It’s the most popular with children.
M: That sounds good. I’ll see if there is any interest. And how many days could the children
..stay at your camping center?
W: For one week. Groups always arrive on a Saturday evening, and leave the following
..Sunday morning.
M: That would be fine. Now, about prices?
W: The cost would be ￡425 per child, and ￡480 per adult.
M: Oh, OK. I’ll speak to my headmaster and get back to you as soon as possible.
W: Good. I look forward to hearing from you.

Text 10
A guide dog is a dog especially trained to guide a blind person. Dogs chosen for such training must show talent, intelligence, physical fitness and sense of responsibility.
At the age of about fourteen months, a guide dog begins serious training that lasts from three to five months. The dog learns to watch the traffic and cross the street safely. It also learns to obey such commands as “forward”, “left”, “right” and “sit” and to disobey any command that might lead its owner into danger.
The most important part of the training is a four-week program in which the guide dog and its future owner learn to work together. However, many blind people are not used to working with dogs. Only about ten percent of blind people find a guide dog useful.