2023新高考全国1卷英语试题及答案

2023新高考全国1卷英语试题及答案

      2023最新年新高考全国1卷英语试题及答案
      第一部分阅读理解(共两节，总分 50分)
      第一节(共15小题;每题2.5分，总分 37.5分)
      阅读以下短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最正确选项。
      A
      Grading Policies for Introduction to Literature
      Grading Scale
      90—100, A; 80 —90, B; 70 —79, C; 60 —69, D; Below 60, E.
      Essays (60%)
      Students will work in groups to complete four assignments (作业) during the course. All the assignments will be submitted by the assigned date through Blackboard, our online learning and course management system.
      Daily Work / InClass Writings and Tests / Group Work / Homework (10%)
      Class activities will vary from day to day, but students must be ready to complete short inclass writings or tests drawn directly from assigned readings or notes from the previous class’ lecture/discussion, so it is important to take careful notes during class. Additionally, from time to time I will assign group work to be completed in class or short assignments to be completed at home, both of which will be graded.
      Late Work
      An essay not submitted in class on the due date will lose a letter grade for each class period it is late. If it is not turned in the the 4th day after the due date, it will earn a zero. Daily assignments not completed during class will get a zero. Short writings missed as a result of an excused absence will be accepted.
      21. Where is this text probably taken from?
      A. A textbook. B. An exam paper.
      C. A course plan. D. An academic article.
      22. How may parts is a student’s final grade made up of?
      A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
      23. What will happen if you submit an essay one week after the due date?
      A. You will receive a zero. B. You will lose a letter grade.
      C. You will be given a test. D. You will have to rewrite it.
      B
      Like most of us, I try to be mindful of food that goes to waste. The arugula (芝麻菜) was to make a nice green salad, rounding out a roast chicken dinner. But I ended up working late. Then friends called with a dinner invitation. I stuck the chicken in the freezer. But as days passed, the arugula went bad. Even worse, I had unthinkingly bought way too much; I could have made six salads with what I threw out.
      In a world where nearly 800 million people a year go hungry, “food waste goes against the moral grain,” as Elizabeth Royte writes in this month’s cover story. It’s jawdropping how much perfectly good food is thrown away —from “ugly” (but quite eatable) vegetables rejected by grocers to large amounts of uneaten dishes thrown into restaurant garbage cans.
      Producing food that no one eats waste the water, fuel, and other resources used to grow it. That makes food waste an environmental problem. In fact, Royte writes, “if food waste were a country, it would be the third largest producer of greenhouse gases in the world.”
      If that’s hard to understand, let’s keep it as simple as the arugula at the back of my refrigerator. Mike Curtin sees my arugula story all the time —but for him, it’s more like 12 boxes of donated strawberries nearing their last days. Curtin is CEO of DC Central Kitchen in Washington D.C., which recovers food and turns it into healthy meals. Last year it recovered more than 807,500 pounds of food by taking donations and collecting blemished (有瑕疵的) produce that otherwise would have rotted in fields. And the strawberries? Volunteers will wash, cut, and freeze or dry them for use in meals down the road.
      Such methods seem obvious, yet so often we just don’t think. “Everyone can play a part in reducing waste, whether by not purchasing more food than necessary in your weekly shopping or by asking restaurants to not include the side dish you won’t eat,” Curtin says.
      24. What does the author want to show by telling the arugula story?
      A. We pay little attention to food waste.
      B. We waste food unintentionally at times.
      C. We waste more vegetables than meat.
      D. We have good reasons for wasting food.
      25. What is a consequence of food waste according to the text?
      A. Moral decline. B. Environmental harm.
      C. Energy shortage. D. Worldwide starvation.
      26. What does Curtin’s company do?
      A. It produces kitchen equipment.
      B. It turns rotten arugula into clean fuel.
      C. It helps local farmers grow fruits.
      D. It makes meals out of unwanted food.
      27. What does Curtin suggest people do?
      A. Buy only what is needed. B. Reduce food consumption.
      C. Go shopping once a week. D. Eat in restaurants less often.
      C
      The elderly residents (居民) in care homes in London are being given hens to look after to stop them feeling lonely.
      The project was dreamed up by a local charity (慈善组织) to reduce loneliness and improve elderly people’s wellbeing. It is also being used to help patients suffering dementia, a serious illness of the mind. Staff in care homes have reported a reduction in the use of medicine where hens are in use.
      Among those taking part in the project is 80yearold Ruth Xavier. She said, “I used to keep hens when I was younger and had to prepare their breakfast each morning before I went to school.
      “I like the project a lot. I am down there in my wheelchair in the morning letting the hens out and down there again at night to see they’ve gone to bed.
      “It’s good to have a different focus. People have been bringing their children to see the hens and residents come and sit outside to watch them. I’m enjoying the creative activities, and it feels great to have done something useful.”
      There are now 700 elderly people looking after hens in 20 care homes in the North East, and the charity has been given financial support to roll it out countrywide.
      Wendy Wilson, extra care manager at 60 Penfold Street, one of the first to embark on the project, said, “Residents really welcome the idea of the project and the creative sessions. We are looking forward to the benefits and fun the project can bring to people here.”
      Lynn Lewis, director of Notting Hill Pathways, said, “We are happy to be taking part in the project. It will really help connect our residents through a shared interest and creative activities.”
      28. What is the purpose of the project?
      A. To ensure harmony in care homes.
      B. To provide parttime jobs for he aged.
      C. To raise money for medical research.
      D. To promote the elderly people’s welfare.
      29. How has the project affected Ruth Xavier?
      A. She has learned new life skills.
      B. She has gained a sense of achievement.
      C. She has recovered her memory.
      D. She has developed a strong personality.
      30. What do the underlined words “embark on” mean in paragraph 7?
      A. Improve. B. Oppose. C. Begin. D. Evaluate.
      31. What can we learn about the project from the last two paragraphs?
      A. It is well received. B. It needs to be more creative.
      C. It is highly profitable. D. It takes ages to see the results.
      D
      Human speech contains more than 2,000 different sounds, from the common “m” and “a” to the rare clicks of some southern African languages. But why are certain sounds more common than others? A groundbreaking, fiveyear study shows that dietrelated changes in human bite led to new speech sounds that are now found in half the world’s languages.
      More than 30 years ago, the scholar Charles Hockett noted that speech sounds called labiodentals, such as “f” and “v”, were more common in the languages in society that ate softer foods. Now a team of researchers led by Damian Blasi at the University of Zurich, Switzerland, has found how and why this trend arose.
      They discovered the upper and lower front teeth of ancient human adults were aligned(对齐), making it hard to produce labiodentals, which are formed by touching the lower lip to the upper teeth. Later, our jaws changed to an overbite structure (结构), making it easier to produce such sounds.
      The team showed that this change in bite was connected with the development of agriculture in the Neolithic period. Food became easier to chew at this point. The jawbone didn’t have to do as much work and so didn’t grow to be so large.
      Analyses of a language database also confirmed that there was a global change in the sound of world languages after the Neolithic age, with the use of “f” and “v” increasing remarkably during the last few thousand years. These sounds are still not found in the languages of many huntergatherer people today.
      This research overturns the popular view that all human speech sounds were present when human beings evolved around 300,000 years ago. “The set of speech sounds we use has not necessarily remained stable since the appearance of human beings, but rather the huge variety of speech sounds that we find today is the product of a complex interplay of things like biological change and cultural evolution,” said Steven Moran, a member of the research team.
      32. Which aspect of the human speech sound does Damian Blasi’s research focus on?
      A. Its variety. B. Its distribution. C. Its quantity. D. Its development.
      33. Why was it difficult for ancient human adults to produce labiodentals?
      A. They had fewer upper teeth than lower teeth.
      B. They could not open and lose their lips easily.
      C. Their jaws were not conveniently structured.
      D. Their lower front teeth were not large enough.
      34. What is paragraph 5 mainly about?
      A. Supporting evidence for the research results.
      B. Potential application of the research findings.
      C. A further explanation of the research methods.
      D. A reasonable doubt about the research process.
      35. What does Steven Moran say about the set of human speech sounds?
      A. It is key to effective communication.
      B. It contributes much to cultural diversity.
      C. It is a complex and dynamic system.
      D. It drives the evolution of human beings.
      其次节(共5小题;每题2.5分，总分 12.5分)
      阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最正确选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
      Fitness Magazine recently ran an article titled “Five Reasons to Thank Your Workout Partner.” One reason was: “You’ll actually show up if you know someone is waiting for you at the gym,” while another read: “__________36_________” With a workout partner, you will increase your training efforts as there is a subtle(微妙) competition.
      So, how do you find a workout partner?
      First of all, decide what you want from that person. __________37_________ Or do you just want to be physically fit, able to move with strength and flexibility? Think about the exercises you would like to do with your workout partner.
      You might think about posting what you are looking for on social media, but it probably won’t result in a useful response. __________38_________ If you plan on working out in a gym, that person must belong to the same gym.
      My partner posted her request on the notice board of a local park. Her notice included what kind of training she wanted to do, how many days a week and how many hours she wanted to spend on each session, and her age. It also listed her favorite sports and activities, and provided her phone number. __________39_________
      You and your partner will probably have different skills. __________40_________ Over time, both of you will benefit —your partner will be able to lift more weights and you will become more physically fit. The core (核心) of your relationship is that you will always be there to help each other.
      A. Your first meeting may be a little awkward.
      B. A workout partner usually needs to live close by.
      C. You’ll work harder if you train with someone else.
      D. Do you want to be a better athlete in your favorite sport?
      E. How can you write a good “seeking training partner” notice?
      F. Just accept your differences and learn to work with each other.
      G. Any notice for a training partner should include such information.
      其次部分语言运用(共两节，总分 30分)
      第一节(共15小题;每题1分，总分 15分)
      阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最正确选项。
      My husband, our children and I have had wonderful camping experiences over the past ten years.
      Some of our ___41___ are funny, especially from the early years when our children were little. Once, we ___42___ along Chalk Creek. I was ___43___ that our 15monthold boy would fall into the creek (小溪). I tied a rope around his waist to keep him near to our spot. That lasted about ten minutes. He was ___44___, and his crying let the whole campground know it. So ___45___ tying him up, I just kept a close eye on him. It ___46___ —he didn’t end up in the creek. My threeyearold , however, did.
      Another time, we rented a boat in Vallecito Lake. The sky was clear when we ___47___, but storms move in fast in the mountains, and this one quickly ___48___ our peaceful morning trip. The ___49___ picked up and thunder rolled. My husband stopped fishing to ___50___ the motor. Nothing. He tried again. No ___51___. We were stuck in the middle of the lake with a dead motor. As we all sat there ___52___, a fisherman pulled up, threw us a rope and towed (拖) us back. We were ___53___.
      Now, every year when my husband pulls our camper out of the garage, we are filled with a sense of ___54___. Wondering what camping fun and ___55___ we will experience next.
      41.A.ideas
      B.jokes
      C.memories
      D.discoveries
      42.A.camped
      B.drove
      C.walked
      D.cycled
      43.A.annoyed
      B.surprised
      C.disappointed
      D.worried
      44.A.unhurt
      B.unfortunate
      C.uncomfortable
      D.unafraid
      45.A.dueto
      B.insteadof
      C.apartfrom
      D.asfor
      46.A.worked
      B.happened
      C.mattered
      D.changed
      47.A.signedup
      B.calmeddown
      C.checkedout
      D.headedoff
      48.A.arranged
      B.interrupted
      C.completed
      D.recorded
      49.A.wind
      B.noise
      C.temperature
      D.speed
      50.A.find
      B.hide
      C.start
      D.fix
      51.A.luck
      B.answer
      C.wonder
      D.signal
      52.A.patiently
      B.tirelessly
      C.doubtfully
      D.helplessly
      53.A.sorry
      B.brave
      C.safe
      D.right
      54.A.relief
      B.duty
      C.pride
      D.excitement
      55.A.failure
      B.adventure
      C.performance
      D.conflict
      其次节(共10小题;每题1.5分，总分 15分)
      阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
      The Chinese government recently finalized a plan to set up a Giant Panda National Park (GPNP). _56____________________ ( cover ) an area about three times _57____________________ size of Yellowstone National Park, the GPNP will be one of the first national parks in the country. The plan will extend protection to a significant number of areas that _58____________________ ( be ) previously unprotected, bringing many of the existing protected areas for giant pandas under one authority _59____________________ ( increase ) effectiveness and reduce inconsistencies in management.
      After a threeyear pilot period, the GPNP will be officially set up next year. The GPNP _60____________________ ( design ) to reflect the guiding principle of “protecting the authenticity and integrity (完好性) of natural ecosystems, preserving biological diversity, protecting ecological buffer zones, _61____________________ leaving behind precious natural assets(资产) for future generations”. The GPNP’s main goal is to improve connectivity between separate _62____________________ ( population ) and homes of giant pandas, and _63____________________ ( eventual ) achieve a desired level of population in the wild.
      Giant pandas also serve _64____________________ an umbrella species (物种), bringing protection to a host of plants and animals in the southwestern and northwestern parts of China. The GPNP is intended to provide stronger protection for all the species _65____________________ live within the Giant Panda Range and significantly improve the health of the ecosystem in the area.
      第三部分写作(共两节，总分 40分)
      第一节(总分 15分)
      假定你是校广播站英语节目“Talk and Talk”的负责人李华，请给外教Caroline写邮件邀请她做一次访谈。内容包括：
      1. 节目介绍;
      2. 访谈的时间和话题。
      留意：
      1.写作词数应为80左右;
      2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
      Dear Caroline,
      Yours sincerely,
      Li Hua
      其次节(总分 25分)
      阅读下面材料，依据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完好的短文。
      It was the day of the big crosscountry run. Students from seven different primary schools in and around the small town were warming up and walking the route (路线) through thick evergreen forest.
      I looked around and finally spotted David, who was standing by himself off to the side by the fence. He was small for ten years old. His usual big toothy smile was absent today. I walked over and asked him why he wasn’t with the other children. He hesitated and then said he had decided not to run.
      What was wrong? He had worked so hard for this event!
      I quickly searched the crowd for the school’s coach and asked him what had happened. “I was afraid that kids from other schools would laugh at him,” he explained uncomfortably. “I gave him the choice to run or not, and let him decide.”
      I bit back my frustration (懊恼). I knew the coach meant well — he thought he was doing the right thing. After making sure that David could run if he wanted, I turned to find him coming towards me, his small body rocking from side to side as he swung his feet forward.
      David had a brain disease which prevented him from walking or running like other children, but at school his classmates thought of him as a regular kid. He always participated to the best of his ability in whatever they were doing. That was why none of the children thought it unusual that David had decided to join the crosscountry team. It just took him longer —that’s all. David had not missed a single practice, and although he always finished his run long after the other children, he did always finish. As a special education teacher at the school, I was family with the challenges David faced and was proud of his strong determination.
      留意：续写词数应为150左右。
      We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me.
      I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners.
      2023新高考一卷 英语学科
      英语学科参考答案(非官方)
      第一部分 阅读理解(共两节，总分 50分)
      第一节(共15小题;每题2.5分，总分 37.5分)
      21 ~ 23 CBA 24 ~ 27 BBDA 28 ~ 31 DBCA 32 ~ 35 DCAC
      其次节(共5小题;每题2.5分，总分 12.5分)
      36 ~ 40 CDBGF
      其次部分 语言运用(共两节，总分 30分)
      第一节(共15小题;每题1分，总分 15分)
      41 ~ 45 CADCB 46 ~ 50 ADBAC 51 ~ 55 ADCDB
      其次节(共10小题;每题1.5分，总分 15分)
      56.Covering
      57.the
      58.were
      59.toincrease
      60.isdesigned
      61.and
      62.populations
      63.eventually
      64.as
      65.that(which?)
      第三部分 写作(共两节，总分 40分)
      第一节(总分 15分)
      Dear Caroline,
      I am Li Hua, who is a in charge of a program named “Talk and Talk” in the broadcast station of our school. With sincerity, I am writing to invite you to attend an interview for the talk show.
      Here is a brief introduction to “Talk and Talk”. Taking place at 2:00 pm every weekday and lasting 15 minutes each session, it mainly features campus life and latest news. Also, interviews with talented students and popular teachers are included.
      The interview with you is supposed to start at 2:00 pm this Friday. It will be highly appreciated if you share with us your teaching experiences and your suggestions for English study. We’ll be honored if you can come. Looking forward to your early reply.
      Yours sincerely,
      Li Hua
      其次节(总分 25分)
      阅读下面材料，依据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完好的短文。
      We sat down next to each other, but David wouldn’t look at me. Obviously, he was trying to hide his depression. Holding his hands, I said gently, “David, do you still remember what I told you before your first practice in the crosscountry team?” “Yes,” he murmured, “You said ‘you are not different unless you think you are’.” “And that’s exactly what I am telling you now,” I held up his face so that I could look him straight in the eyes, “No one laughs at a person who is trying hard.” It was clear that he was touched by these words. With lights sparkling in his eyes, David sat up and raised his head, saying, “I’ll take part in the race.”
      I watched as David moved up to the starting line with the other runners. “Ready ... Go!” The judge declared. Every other child ran fast to the best of their ability, leaving David behind. Surprised at his awkward posture at first, the audiences soon realized his weakness and let out of a storm of cheers. I secretly followed him along the route. I saw sweats running down his cheers, along with a determined look that I was familiar with. For sure, he finished last. But in the last km, many kids, including his schoolmates and those I didn’t know, kept him company along the way. Tears welling up in my eyes, I couldn’t feel prouder of David. That was exactly what made my job meaningful
      高考时各题型的留意事项
      1.听力最重要的是做好预报(特殊说明：部分省市参与听说考试，无听力)。
      A.直接在对话中听到的一般不是正确答案。假如选项中消失一些日常生活中不太可能发生或很少发生的事情一般不会是正确选项。
      B.通常要办的事情都是不顺当，如买东西买不到，订房间客满等。借车一般是借不到的。匹萨、海鲜吃了一般会有不适反应。
      C.一般男生比较衰，男生提出的观点女生都不同意或有不同看法，反之女生提出的观点男生都是同意和欣赏的。
      D.考试、作业、论文一般比较难或需要熬夜。老师一般比较严峻。听讲座的题目一般是比较好玩丰富的，内容一般是比较冗杂难懂的。作文一般需要修改polish或重写 rewrite。
      E.坐车、飞机、轮船一般都需要等。事故、灾难一般不会死人。医院需要预约 make an appointment。
      2、阅读题
      A. 看似松散，一般每篇只有四个问题，实则考查对〔文章〕中心思想的把握力量。
      B.看似粗线条，依据文中详细信息便可推断正确答案，实则考查句意理解的精确度。
      C. 抓住关键句，每段的首句大抵是本段的关键句。
      3、七选五
      A. 先确定简洁的选项。
      B. 肯定要既能承上，又能启下，才是最正确答案。
      C. 关键词很重要，但也可能是陷阱。
      4、填词和改错
      A. 填词和改错考的无非是那几种，尽量往那几种上面想。
      B. 冠词只会考最明显的错。
      C.找不到就把文章读慢一点，一个单词一个单词地读，特殊是行首和行末。
      2023高考英语书面表达〔方法〕
      书面表达对字数的要求是100词左右，因此建议考生可以写到100到130。
      词数为什么不能低于100?由于考生写的太少，看上去不像一篇文章是很危急的。对阅卷者而言，分数不会给的高。如果写太多，考生难免费心，自然削减其他试题的答题时间，还可能言多而失。
      书面表达若有标题，而且没有在答题卡上印出，考生要记得书写。
      书面表达题的“字”法：字色(黑色)，字迹(工整、清晰)，字形(占格子的三分之二为宜)，字体(全都)，字距(不宜过密，不宜过疏，悦目为宜)，字数(比较合适在100130之间)。
      书面表达题的“版”法：三段或四段体，切忌一段究竟。每段开头缩进。不行超格、超框。“版”的核心就是要让文章看上去像文章!
      书面表达题的“式 ”法：文章无乱涂乱画现象，干净爽目。修改的地方应当尽量不留明显痕迹。写作肯定要有从草稿到誊正的过程。
      留意：选择题需要填涂答案在答题卡上。考生可把填涂区依次分块填涂：听力题区一块，完型题区一块，阅读题区一块。不要四区一次填完，简单造成移位。最终切记不要随便改动答案。
      科学讨论说明：第一感觉其实是人的潜意识的第六感，有些信息是在你不知道的状况下就已经进入到你的大脑，帮你做出了合理的推断的。所以肯定要注意第一次所做出的选择，没有把握切不行随便改动答案。