河北省邯郸市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份河北省邯郸市2022-2023学年高二下学期期末考试英语试题，共14页。试卷主要包含了15等内容，欢迎下载使用。

邯郸市高二年级第二学期期末考试
英 语
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. What is the man?
A. A restaurant waiter. B. A taxi driver. C. A policeman.
2. When will the man fly back?
A. Before this weekend. B. On Sunday. C. Next week.
3. How does the woman feel?
A. Satisfied. B. Delighted. C. Discouraged.
4. How many bank robbers were there altogether?
A. One. B. Two. C. Four.
5. What would the man probably do?
A. Borrow 300 dollars. B. Buy a new computer. C. Repair the computer.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. What does the man want to do?
A. Have his shoes repaired. B. Buy a pair of new shoes. C. Do shopping in a supermarket.
7. How will the man go to the place?
A. By bus. B. By car. C. On foot.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What’s the relationship between the speakers?
A. Secretary and boss. B. Teacher and student. C. Doctor and patient.
9. Why was the woman late?
A. Her aunt asked her to get up late.
B. She got a telephone call.
C. She missed the bus.
听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。
10. What is the woman going to be in Milan?
A. A doctor. B. A nurse. C. A teacher.
11. What worries the woman so much?
A. The people in Milan are not friendly enough.
B. The work in Milan is hard to do.
C. She has no friends in Milan.
12. How will the woman get in touch with the man?
A. By phone. B. By letter. C. By e-mail.
听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。
13. What does Jan consider the most important when he judges a restaurant?
A. How well the food is prepared. B. Whether the prices are low. C. Where the restaurant is.
14. When did Jan begin to write for a magazine?
A. As soon as he got his first job in 1982.
B. After he came back to Sweden.
C. Before he went to the United States.
15. What may Jan do to find a good restaurant?
A. Talk to people in the street. B. Speak to taxi drivers. C. Ask hotel clerks.
16. What do we know about Jan?
A. He cooks for a restaurant. B. He travels a lot for his work. C. He prefers American food.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. What does the speaker do exactly?
A. She is a student consultant. B. She is a school doctor. C. She is the headmaster of a school.
18. How can students ask for the speaker’s advice?
A. By calling her. B. By writing letters to her. C. By visiting her.
19. When does the speaker work in her office during the week?
A. In the evenings. B. Every day. C. At weekends.
20. Which of the following is the most typical of students’ problems?
A. Playing computer games. B. Medical problems. C. Difficulty in making friends.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Four of the Best Art Competitions to Enter in 2023
If you’re creating amazing art but struggling to gain exposure, art contests are a great opportunity for publicity. Ready to show off your art to the world? Check out our guide to some of the best art contests to enter this year.
The Lumen Prize for Digital Art
Prize: $4,000 first prize
Entry Fee: $40 for two works
This digital art competition is organized by Lumen Art Projects Ltd, a non-profit organization that’s committed to providing new opportunities for digital artists around the world. The only requirement is that the submitted artworks must somehow engage with technology.
World Illustration Awards
Prize: A cash prize of £2,000
Entry Fee: £29 per entry
Anyone who’s into illustration is bound to have heard of the famous World Illustration Awards. Illustrators are invited to submit works published since 2018. Winners will not only win a cash prize, but they’ll be offered invaluable global exposure, such as a marketing package in the Directory of Illustration.
Beautiful Bizarre Art Prize
Prize: Over $50,000 in cash
Entry Fee: $ 40 per entry
The Beautiful Bizarre Art Prize is an annual international art prize that celebrates diversity and excellence in the visual arts. It aims to inspire creatives from around the world to enter the art profession through funding and increased exposure of their works.
The Sunny Art Prize
Prize: A total cash fun d of £6,000
Entry Fee: £25 for one artwork
One of the most inclusive and diverse art competitions in the UK, the Sunny Art Prize offers unique exposure for both emerging and established artists. Winners will have an opportunity to produce their works during a month-long residency in China.
21. How much should you pay to submit two works to the Lumen Prize for Digital Art?
A. $40. B. $60. C. $66. D. $80.
22. Which is the best choice if you pursue a career in art?
A. The Sunny Art Prize.
B. World Illustration Awards.
C. Beautiful Bizarre Art Prize.
D. The Lumen Prize for Digital Art.
23. What will the winners of the Sunny Art Prize be awarded apart from cash prizes?
A. A marketing package for their artworks.
B. Creating their works for a month in China.
C. Access to technology related to digital art.
D. Connecting with artists worldwide and more exposure.
B
Lynda Doughty, a marine biologist, developed a passion for marine wildlife during her childhood. Growing up along the coast of Maine, she witnessed the impact of human activity on marine mammals and she made it her life’s work to protect them. “I feel this intense responsibility to help these animals,” Lynda said. “And, really, this is what I was put on this Earth to do.”
Harbor seals are among the most common mammals found along the East Coast, and they face various threats to their well-being, including fishing net s and illegal feeding, chemical pollutants, as well as boat and propeller (螺旋桨) injuries.
Earlier in her career, she worked for a marine mammal emergency response organization that eventually closed due to lack of funding. To fill the gap left by the group, Lynda started her own non-profit organization—Marine Mammals of Maine in 2011. It has since provided response and medical care for more than 3,000 marine mammals.
Lynda’s team operates a 24-hour hotline that responds to calls regarding marine mammals in danger. Their permit allows them to respond to mammals stranded (搁浅) within 2,500 miles of the coastline, and her team only offers help if the mammal is in critical condition. Critically ill mammals are transported to Lynda’s center and nursed back to health. Seals typically require three or more months of professional care treatment before they are released back into the ocean.
In addition to mammal rescues, Marine Mammals of Maine conducts important research to learn about marine mammal habitats and human impacts. Marine mammals can give us clues about the ocean’s health, which ultimately affects human well-being as well. The organization also helps promote marine conservation among youth and the local community. In addition, they instruct the public on what to do, and what not to do, when encountering wild species like harbor seals.
24. What do Lynda’s words mean?
A. She was born along the coast of Maine.
B. She ignored the impact of human activity.
C. She did her work with a sense of mission.
D. She protected marine wildlife at a young age.
25. Why did Lynda set up Marine Mammals of Maine in 2011?
A. To earn more money.
B. To replace the group.
C. To make the group a non-profit organization.
D. To restart marine mammal emergency response.
26. What can we learn about Lynda’s team from paragraph 4?
A. It only treats critically ill seals.
B. It rescues marine mammals in danger.
C. It protects all endangered marine mammals.
D. It stops people from fishing marine mammals.
27. What’s the purpose of paragraph 5?
A. To state younger generations need to be instructed.
B. To stress the severe situations that marine life faces.
C. To mention other social contributions of Lynda’s team.
D. To show humans have a great impact on marine mammals.
C
Whether your kid can count on a sizable inheritance (遗产) or your family is living pay period to pay period, a college degree is a must. Along with the invisible life skills you get from those formative years on campus, college comes with a bankable payout: A Georgetown University study found that, on average, college graduates make a million dollars more over a lifetime than people who stop at high school.
Recently, a Bronx nonprofit asked me to speak to a group of high schoolers whose families were struggling financially. The participants were (rightly) worried about taking on too much college debt. Here’s what I told them: Even when you subtract (扣除) tuition, lost earnings during the college years, and other factors, an average college grad will still take in $300,000 more than those without a college degree.
And while rising tuition fees are a serious worry, free college programs of one kind or another have sprung up in more than 20 states. My own home state, New York, boasts one of the most comprehensive efforts. The Excelsior Scholarship program guarantees that students at public institutions attend tuition-free if their family earns under $110,000 a year.
Even in Silicon Valley, where there are many successful people who don’t own a college degree, I asked a group of parents there if it’s true that kids are giving up a college degree because they’re sure they’ll be rich people. The answer was a resounding, unapologetic no.
The truth is that in this STEM (science, technology, engineering and math)-centric age, any form of home-schooling or social education can’t replace the formal school education. Especially in an age when many low-end careers are being replaced by artificial intelligence (AI), a college degree can give your kid an edge.
28. In writing paragraph 1, the author aims to ________.
A. propose a definition B. make a comparison
C. give an example D. present an argument
29. What can we infer from the text?
A. Free college programs are available all over the USA.
B. In the STEM-centric age, a college degree is essential.
C. In New York, all public school students are tuition-free.
D. Children from rich families don’t need a college degree.
30. What is happening to the low-end careers?
A. They are developing very rapidly.
B. They are all being engaged by AI.
C. They are all depending on a degree.
D. They are disappearing because of AI.
31. Which is the most suitable title for the text?
A. Why do you need a college degree?
B. Where can you enjoy free education?
C. What is a must in the STEM-centric age?
D. How much do people with a degree earn in US?
D
Asteroids (小行星) are believed to have formed early in our solar system’s history—about 4.5 billion years ago—when a cloud of gas and dust called the solar nebula (太阳星云) collapsed and formed our sun and the planets. By visiting these near Earth objects to study the material that came from the solar nebula, we can look for answers to some of humankind’s most arresting questions, such as: How did the solar system form and where did the Earth’s water and other organic materials such as carbon come from? In addition to unlocking clues about our solar system, asteroids may provide clues about our Earth. By understanding more about asteroids, we may learn more about past Earth impacts and possibly find ways to reduce the threat of future impacts.
If we don’t want to go the way of the dinosaurs someday, we need to protect ourselves against the threat of being hit by a big asteroid. According to NASA, typically about once every 10,000 years, a rock y or iron asteroid the size of a football field could crash into our planet and possibly cause tidal waves big enough to flood coastal areas.
But what we really have to fear is asteroids about 328 feet across or bigger. Such an impact would cause a firestorm and fill the atmosphere with sun-blocking dust, which would wipe out forests and farm fields and starve the human and animal life that it didn’t immediately kill.
That’s why it’s vital to develop a way to neutralize such a threat to Earth. NASA’s Double Asteroid Redirection Test, launched in late November 2021, was the first mission to demonstrate a technology called asteroid redirection by manmade impactor. A robotic spacecraft will be crashed into an asteroid named Didymos, in an effort to show that it’s possible to slightly change the path of an asteroid. That would enable NASA to redirect potential threats to miss Earth.
32. What is the first paragraph mainly about?
A. How solar system came into being.
B. How long asteroids have existed.
C. Why asteroids are to be explored.
D. When asteroids will impact Earth.
33. Why does the author mention dinosaurs in paragraph 2?
A. To make the text more interesting.
B. To introduce the topic of the text.
C. To grab readers’ attention to asteroids.
D. To show the disaster from an asteroid impact.
34. Which can best replace “neutralize” underlined in paragraph 4?
A. strengthen B. avoid C. beautify D. realize
35. What can we know about asteroids?
A. Dinosaurs may live on some of them.
B. They were formed earlier than Earth.
C. Exploring them helps us know Earth.
D. NASA’s Double Asteroid Redirection Test failed.
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Never overlook the pleasure of reading a great work of fiction. 36 Men who read it develop their minds by not only educating themselves with new information but also learning how to think. Reading works of fiction makes a better man.
37 Reading literary fiction develops our vocabulary, strengthens our speech, and makes us a better writer. Literary fiction, rather than easy-to-read fiction, has the potential to expand our vocabulary because while it exposes us to new thoughts and ideas, it does so through plenty of grammatical styles, forms of wording and undiscovered words.
Fiction is culture. 38 Reading reveals different cultures and attitudes from a variety of people from various time periods and places. Each great work of fiction is beautiful and an important piece of culture that shapes the different cultures which treasure it.
Fiction develops our theory of mind. 39 A developed theory of mind allows a person to interact socially and use their cognitive abilities to read thoughts, feelings, and emotions. Studies have found that works of literary fiction can impact our theory of mind so that we may guess motives and thoughts in social situations based on experiences gained from fiction.
When we read literature, we’ll learn things about the world, others and ourselves. 40
A. Fiction expands our creativity.
B. Fiction expands our vocabulary.
C. Reading great fiction puts us ahead of the pack.
D. Just as each painting tells a story, so does a novel.
E. Thus, the power of literature should not be underestimated.
F. Fiction influences how we think so that we may discover new ideas.
G. It is the realization that other people have different beliefs and desires from their own.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
That day Bill Price was attending a re union for a summer program. He remembers standing outside after the reunion, 41 with friends. Eventually, everyone said their 42 —leaving Price standing by himself.
“Sometimes when you’re 43 , it’s fine,” Price said. “But sometimes when you’re alone, you feel 44 . And that’s the way I felt then.”
Nearby, another group of teenagers stood laughing and 45 . “I found myself wishing so much to be a part of them,” Price 46 . One of the teenagers was a person named Wendy Westman. She and Price had only met in another summer program a few months earlier. As Price stood there, feeling 47 lonely, Westman turned around and 48 him if he’d like to join them.
“My life was transformed at that moment,” Price said.
Westman’s kindness 49 a realization in Price: He could offer that same 50 to anyone, at any time. “It’s so easy to see someone who seems left out and alone and 51 them, say hello to them, be kind to them,” Price explained. “And I realize that is a gift that everyone can 52 .”
Price became a psychiatrist (精神科医生). His job is being kind to his 53 , listening to them and being attentive to their 54 . Price attributes his understanding of the importance of kindness to that 55 .
41. A. keeping up B. filling up C. putting up D. catching up
42. A. goodbyes B. creations C. achievements D. experiences
43. A. disappointed B. confused C. alone D. sad
44. A. comforted B. abandoned C. interested D. motivated
45. A. talking B. complaining C. crying D. abusing
46. A. evaluated B. indicated C. recited D. remembered
47. A. suddenly B. regularly C. increasingly D. literally
48. A. hugged B. asked C. recommended D. doubted
49. A. inspired B. designed C. recognized D. admired
50. A. investment B. confidence C. curiosity D. kindness
51. A. appreciate B. cheat C. trap D. notice
52. A. refuse B. give C. make D. reserve
53. A. visitors B. patients C. neighbors D. workmates
54. A. talents B. tips C. needs D. guidelines
55. A. moment B. range C. stage D. decision
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
One east London train station has an incredible 7,500-mile direct train link to China. Barking’s Eurohub freight terminal (货运站) 56 (link) to Yiwu in China since January 2017 57 part of China’s Belt and Road Initiative, which is restoring the ancient Silk Road trading routes.
The route is 58 (actual) not new at all. It is part of the old Silk Road, which began in 200 BC, through 59 Chinese silk caravans (车队) carried goods to Europe and Africa.
In January 2017 in Yiwu in eastern China, a bright orange train 60 (pull) 44 containers loaded with suitcases, clothes and a 61 (various ) of household goods set off on a 7,500-mile journey to western Europe.
London is the 15th European city 62 (find) its way onto the ever-expanding map of 63 (destination) for China’s rail cargo. At the time, Yiwu Timex IndustrialInvestments—which ran the service—said prices 64 (be) half that of air cargo and cut two weeks off the journey time by sea. China is the past-master of such engineering initiatives. Instead, it has transformed its economy through 65 series of well-planned transport and manufacturing investment.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
随着暑假的临近,你班开展了以“During the Summer Vacation, Part-time Jobs or Not”为题的讨论。请你根据此次讨论写一篇短文向校英语报投稿，内容包括：
1.讨论结果；
2.你的观点。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
During the Summer Vacation, Part-time Jobs or Not



第二节（满分25分）
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Taking my seat on the sidelines, I delightedly watched my daughter, Skyla, ten, perfectly balance on the hands of her teammates in mid-air. From time to time, Skyla looked down at me, excitement written all over her face.
Skyla had joined a cheerleading team three months earlier, and I loved watching her practice, like a pretty butterfly dancing in the wind. “She’s so confident,” I thought. “But as to me, things are different. There’s no way I could do that.”
A few weeks later, one morning, I was watching the training with my fellow cheer mums, chatting about how inspiring our daughters were, when one of the mums turned to me and asked, “How about we give it a go?”
As a 36-year-old mum, I was a little worried at first. The only sport I had done was tennis, but soon I realized it might be a good opportunity. We decided to call ourselves Cheer N Dance. Stepping on the mat for our first training session, I was extremely nervous, and I could feel my heart beating clearly. As I waited for the music to begin, I started to doubt myself, “I’m not as young and flexible as I used to be. What if I always forget the moves or make mistakes?” But as I moved to the rhythm of the music, a smile spread across my face.
After three months, the competition day finally arrived. With me taking my place on the mat, my heart was beating out of my chest. Amazingly, when the music started, my fear faded and I was overcome with a rush of excitement. Everything went smoothly. Once we finished, we rushed off stage, our faces beaming with pride.
As the judges announced, “Taking home the gold medal is Cheer N Dance!” I met eyes with Skyla and my husband, Brett. Waving and cheering, they were so excited for me!
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Standing on the winner’s platform, we were waiting for the gold medal.



When I was approaching, Skyla began to run, too.






邯郸市高二年级第二学期期末考试
英语参考答案
听力部分录音材料
听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。
注意：做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
停顿 00′10′′
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you?
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we are a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a new club—we have about 50 members at the moment, but we are growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months ago. I’m looking for ways to meet people. Er, what kinds of events do you organize?
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings?
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages—you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday—Spanish; Tuesday—Italian; Wednesday—German; and Friday—French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If you join now, you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿00′10′′
请看听力部分第一节。
第一节
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。停顿00′02′′
例如：现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿 00′05′′
你将听到以下内容：
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is?
W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen.
停顿00′02′′
你将有5秒钟的时间将正确答案画在试卷上。
停顿00′05′′
衬衫的价格为9镑15便士，所以你选择C项，并将其画在试卷上。
现在，你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。
(Text 1)
W: Can you take me to the Fairyland Restaurant quickly? I’m already five minutes late.
M: I’ll try. But the traffic is so heavy. It will take at least another 15 minutes.
(Text 2)
W: Hello, Mr. Raymond, I didn’t know you were in Shanghai.
M: Oh, hello, Miss Debbie. I arrived a few days ago. I’m afraid I have to fly back before this weekend.
(Text 3)
M: Linda, how are you getting along with the translation work?
W: I have written and rewritten so much that I don’t know if I’ll ever get it finished. (Text 4)
M: Did you know the news about the bank robbers?
W: Yes, but I don’t know whether they have been caught or not.
M: All except one. He escaped while the police were searching the hotel where the other three were hidden.
(Text 5)
W: The repairer said it would cost 300 dollars to have the computer repaired.
M: We might as well spend 300 dollars more to buy a new one then.
第一节到此结束。
第二节
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 6)
M: Excuse me, madam. I’m wondering if you could tell me the place where I can repair my shoes.
W: There’s one on Fifth Street.
M: Thank you, but how far is it to that store?
W: Not very far and not difficult to find. Just keep walking and after two blocks, you will see a supermarket on your left. The store is next to the supermarket.
M: Oh, thank you very much.
W: You’re welcome. You won’t miss it, young man.
听下面一段对话，回答第 8和第9两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
(Text 7)
M: What’s the matter, Alice?
W: Sorry, Mr. Harrison. I missed my train.
M: Why did you miss the train?
W: Because I left home a little late.
M: Did you get up late or something?
W: No. My aunt called me at the last minute.
M: Tell her not to call you in the morning.
W: I will, Mr. Harrison. I’m really sorry for being late.
M: If you are late again, I can’t let you have this class.
W: Oh, no.
听下面一段对话，回答第 10至第12三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
(Text 8)
W: Mr. Green, I’m going to teach in Milan very soon, perhaps next month.
M: Congratulations, Susan! You should be happy. You see, Milan is a big city; there are a lot of interesting things to see.
W: Yes, that’s why I’ve come to you. I have mixed feelings, you see. I’m excited but I’m also a bit worried.
M: What bothers you?
W: You see it’s this: someone told me that people from Milan look down upon people from other places. Is this true?
M: Oh, yes. Some people do. I hate this kind of attitude, I’m sure not everyone in Milan is like that. Do you look down upon others in the class?
W: Of course not! I often help them. And I’ve learned a lot from the people coming from other places. They are all hard-working. Most of them are talented.
M: Anyway, you will start a new life in a beautiful city.
W: Yes. I feel excited. I’ll e-mail you when I settle down.
M: Thank you. Then goodbye and good luck!
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 9)
W: Hello, Mr. Jan Erick Freedman. You’re a frequent traveler. And we also know that you eat out twice a day. How can you get so far and eat out?
M: When I took my first job back in 1992, I started travelling. I had no other choices but to eat out. I found that I felt different due to what I was eating, so I tried to find places that served food that made me feel good. The secret was the quality of the food and how well the food was prepared. I made an effort to find out good restaurants as well as nice dishes.
W: How did you manage to make a list of 218 favorite restaurants?
M: I’ve lived in cities and when I moved back to Sweden from the United States, people asked me where to go and eat. I got a lot of ideas. Then I wrote about restaurants for a Swedish club magazine and some suggested I gather information about restaurants together since I had all the facts about the restaurants I’ve been to. I started to do that.
W: How do you find restaurants?
M: The best way is to ask the people there. I may talk to the people at the street market or take a walk and look for places myself. I never asked hotel clerks or taxi drivers. I don’t go either restaurants or places with menus too difficult to understand.
听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
(Text 10)
W: I work at a university as a student consultant. Students can come to my office and see me if they need help or advice. The following is what I feel about my job.
I’m here every day during the week, and my colleague is here in the evenings and at weekends. There’s also an emergency telephone number at night.
Students come to me with all kinds of problems. A lot of them are worried about their studies and their exams; some want help with financial or legal problems, usually connected with renting flats and houses. Sometimes they want to talk about medical problems and for some reason they don’t want to see their doctors. The biggest problem, though, is loneliness. Universities are exciting places, but a lot of students find it difficult to make friends. They miss their families and friends and feel lost in this new environment. My job is to listen and try to understand how they’re feeling. But, of course, I also give practical advice when it’s needed.
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
听力部分到此结束。
试题答案
1~5 BACCB 6~10 ACBBC 11~15 ACABA 16~20 BACBC
21~23 ACB 24~27 CDBC 28~31 DBDA 32~35 CDBC
36~40 CBDGE 41~45 DACBA 46~50 DCBAD 51~55 DBBCA
56. has been linked 57. as 58. actually 59. which
60. pulling 61. variety 62. to find 63. destinations
64. were 65. a
写作
第一节
参考范文：
During the Summer Vacation, Part-time Jobs or Not
Last Friday, our class held a heated discussion themed “During the Summer Vacation, Part-time Jobs or Not”.
Some students hold the view that we can not only accumulate working experience in advance, but also earn some money to reduce parents’ burden. Others don’t agree, and they think as students we should put study into the first place and we’d better use this gold period to improve our grades, instead of taking part-time jobs.
In my opinion, as senior students, besides focusing on study, which I think will pave the way for our future career, we should also do something meaningful during holidays if possible.
第二节
参考范文：
Standing on the winner’s platform, we were waiting for the gold medal. Unable to believe what had happened, I gave myself a pinch on the left arm. “Ouch! It’s true. I made it.” Every de tail of the training—every turn and every jump, pains, toughness and pleasure—flashed across my brain. “Hi, congratulations!” The chairman put a gold medal around my neck, and then I was dragged back to reality. “Thank you!” I held the medal above my head, waving to the cheering audience. And then I kissed it with water y eyes. Finally, the ceremony came to an end, and I couldn’t wait to rush to my family.
When I was approaching, Skyla began to run, too. We hugged each other tightly. “Mum, you are the best!” She gave me a big thumb. “Thank you, but it was you and dad who pushed me to the gold medal.” “No!” she disagreed, emphasising the importance of my hard work and my courage to overcome all the difficulties. Yes. I’ve learned whatever the age or ability, there is always a team to fit everybody.