陕西省宝鸡市渭滨区2022-2023学年高二下学期期末检测英语试题

高二年级英语试题(202306)

(考试时间120分钟，总分150分)

第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分） 

做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。 

第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)

听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。

1. How will the woman get to the city center?

2. How does the man feel now?

3. What are the speakers talking about?  

4. What is George’s favorite activity?

5. What is the woman doing?

第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）

听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。

听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。

6. What does the woman think of the match?

7. What do the speakers plan to do on Tuesday afternoon?

听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。

8. How did the woman know about the hotel?

9. When will the woman’s family leave the hotel?

10. What do we know about the woman?

A. She has one child.

B. She takes the man’s advice.

C. She will book rooms next to each other.

听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。

11. What did Peter learn from his grandfather?

A. How to appreciate art works.

B. How to deal with artists.

C. How to run a museum.

12. What did Peter do in Chicago?

13. Whose works did Peter like best?

听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。

14. What might be the man’s first job?

15. What is the woman learning?

16. How soon will the woman graduate?

听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。

17. What do people often do to celebrate their 21st birthday in Las Vegas?

18. Why did Janice ask Austin what day that day was?

A. To remind him of the workday.

B. To remind him of the exact date.

C. To remind him of her birthday.

19. Who called Janice outside the door?

20. What is the speaker mainly talking about?

第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）

第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分） 

    阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

A

Four unusual festivals around the world

Wife Carrying Competition—Sonkajärvi, Finland

Although the exact origins of the tradition are unknown because of its long history, but today, wife carrying is practiced around the world. Participants (参与者) are allowed to carry their wives in various ways— including piggyback or fireman’s carrying. The prize is awarded based on the wife’s weight in beer.

Monkey Buffet (自助餐) Festival—Lopburi, Thailand

You may consider how a monkey would taste, but this is a buffet for monkeys. The local monkeys in the Lopburi are gifted with a feast of tons of fruits, vegetables, cakes, and candies every November. After the monkeys are given their treat, youths dressed up as monkeys perform dances. The festival first occurred in 1989, run by a local businessman to drive up tourism in Lopburi. Luckily for him and the monkeys, it worked.

Mud Festival—Boryeong, ROK

The festival is not historic by any means— the first one took place in 1998— and it was originally created as a marketing event for Boryeong mud cosmetics (化妆品). The mud from the Boryeong is considered rich in natural minerals and is used to make beauty products. Popular activities include a mud pool, mud slides and mud skiing.

Tomato Festival—Bunol, Valencia, Spain

The festival has run annually in August during a week long celebration in Bunol since 1945, when a noisy crowd took the tomatoes from a vegetable stall and started a food fight. The hour-long tomato fight used up about 145,000 kg of tomatoes in 2015. Since 2013 it has been a ticketed event to limit participants to just 20,000.

21. What will you get if you win the Wife Carrying Competition?

22. What is the purpose of creating Monkey Buffet Festival?

23. Which festival is likely to have the shortest history?

B

Alan Mathison Turing was born in England in 1912. Like many talents who go on to great things, Turing showed his incredible intelligence from a very young age. In fact, by the time he was halfway through primary school, Turing’s teachers had already realized he was a mathematical genius. He could do complex calculating in his head even though he had never been taught about it.

Fortunately, Turing was the opposite of Hawking, and he absolutely loved school. Proof of this is the extreme lengths he would go just to get to class. For example, on one occasion when there was a train strike, Turing even cycled 60 miles to attend. Now that’s devotion!

However, in spite of Turing’s scholarly attitude and his obvious genius, his teachers had their concerns about his future. This is because well-known schools in Britain like the ones Turing attended regarded the Classics, such as Latin and Greek as the most important, not subjects like maths and science. Turing’s proud teachers even wrote letters to his parents asking them to convince the young man to focus more on the Classics. Imagine how different the world might be if the young Turing had listened to his teachers! Thankfully, his love for all scientific and mathematical things meant there was no chance of that.

After finishing secondary school, Turing completed a degree in mathematics at King’s College Cambridge, and then obtained his PhD from Princeton University in the USA．It was during these university years that he invented the Turing Machine, which is considered by many people to be the earliest version of a computer processing unit. It sounds unbelievable that anybody could have invented something which was similar to a computer in 1936. But that just shows how far ahead of his time Alan Turing was, even when he was still a young man.

24. What can be inferred about Turing according to paragraphs 1-2?

A. He was inspired by his teachers.            

B. He showed a strong desire for schooling.      

C. He ignored parents’ advice on course selection.

D. His intelligence was first recognized by his parents.

25. What does the writer think of the Turing Machine?

A .He argues it’s still limited in many functions.   

B. He doubts if it is truly invented by a young man.

C. He considers the construction of such machines impossible.

D. He thinks it has a great influence on the invention of computer.

26. What is the author’s main purpose in writing this passage?

A. To indicate the link between genius and success.

B. To illustrate the invention of the Turing Machine.

C. To stress the impact of teachers’ guidance on Turing’s life.

D.To introduce Turing’s genius, scholarly attitude and achievement.

27. What does Turing’s story tell us?

A. Contented with little, yet wishing for more.

B. Chances favor the minds that are prepared.

C. Nothing great was ever achieved without enthusiasm.

D. Ordinary people hope, while talented people create.

C

The Australian Koala Foundation says Australia has lost about 30 percent of its koalas over the past three years. The non-profit group says drought（干旱）, wildfires and development projects played a part in the drop in the koala population. They are asking the government to do more to protect the creature’s environment.

The group said the koala population has dropped to less than 58,000 this year from more than 80,000 in 2018. The biggest decrease（减少）was in the state of New South Wales, where the numbers have dropped by 41 percent. Deborah Tabart leads the Australian Koala Foundation. She called the drop quite huge. Only one area in the study was estimated（预估）to have more than 5 ,000 koalas. Some areas were estimated to have as few as five or ten.

Tabart said, “What we’re concerned about are places like western New South Wales where the drought over the last ten years has just had this cumulative（积累）effect, river systems completely dry for years, and red gum plants, which are the lifeblood of koalas, are dead.” The loss in New South Wales likely sped up after large forest areas were destroyed by wildfires in late 2019 and early 2020. But some of those areas already had no koalas.

Tabart said the country needs a koala protection law. Land clearing by property developers and road builders has also destroyed the koala’s environment. “I think everyone gets it that we’ve got to change. But if those bulldozers（推土机）keep working, then I really fear for the koalas,” Tabart said.

28. How did the author develop the second paragraph?

29. What do we know from paragraph 3?

30. What did Tabart mainly suggest in order to protect koalas?

31. What can be a suitable title for the text?

A. Australia’s Wild Animals Are Facing Big Danger

B. Australia Lost One-Third of Its Koalas in Last Three Years

C. Effects of Australia’s Wildfires Are Beginning to Show Up

D. Koalas in Australia Could Disappear from the Earth in the Future

D

These days, it seems like everyone wants to go out into space and live on new planets. Rather than depend on another pre-existing planet, could we make a new, proper planet ourselves?

To start with, if we do want to be living on it, we should find a good place in space to put the new planet. We’d want it to be in a habitable zone, meaning the planet should be at the right distance from its star to make sure there would be perfect temperatures and most importantly, liquid(液态的) water.

We’d also need the right materials to make the planet. Our Earth is made up of many different elements(元素). If we made our own new planet we’d probably want it to have similar elements and a similar structure(结构) we’ d also want enough water to form some oceans.

But even if we get all of the materials creating a new planet like Earth could have many troubles. It might be something more like a huge space station. It would be pretty expensive if we wanted it to be super big. We would probably also need a lot of food since there is going to be many scientists and astronauts out in space working on this project!

According to NASA, each astronaut uses about 0. 83 kilograms of food per meal, including 0.12 kilograms of packaging(包装) material. Without the weight of the packaging material, we’d need about 780 kilograms of food just to feed one astronaut for a year.

Putting all these together could make it possible to make our own planet one day! In reality, creating a new planet would probably require a very modern technology and there would be tons of other things to think about. And if this is even possible, it likely won’t happen for a very long time.

32. What’s the first thing we should do if we want to create a new planet?

A. To prepare enough food.                  

B. To design its inner structure.

C. To find a proper place to set the planet.      

D. To collect materials similar to our Earth.

33. What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 3 refers to?

34. How much food does an astronaut actually eat each meal?

35. What does the author think of creating a planet?

第二节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）

根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。

With the summer holiday just around the corner, it seems like everybody is busy planning their vacations. Here are some tips that can help you enjoy your holiday without emptying your pocket.

Travel off-season

Go to your desired destination while the demand is low and take advantage of huge discounts. During the peak season, the hotel and flight prices increase quickly, and you’ll likely spend more of your vacation time standing in line due to the rush of tourists.  36  

  37  

Websites can help you find discount hotel rooms. Look for places that do not charge extra for children if they use the existing bedding. Stay with the locals. If you and your family are going to stay for a longer period, renting a small apartment is a good choice.

Eat like a local

Why eat at big chain restaurants when you can experience something new?  38      

During your family trip, try new food where the locals eat. This will not just save money, but also provide you with a new and different experience. For smaller meals and snacks, avoid restaurants and try street food or other takeout.

Don’t hesitate to bargain

Tourist-heavy places are known for overcharging for just about everything. Clothes, travel goodies, souvenirs, etc. are very expensive at these places.  39   Bargain hard to get the best price.

Choose local transportation

  40  Instead, take buses, railways or subways, which are always cheaper. If you are planning to stay for a while, you can consider renting a car. Hiring a car is much easier than carrying your bags everywhere if you are moving around a lot.

A. Save on hotels.

B. Surf the Internet while traveling.

C. Therefore, avoid buying anything there.

D. So it’s best to find out when the off-season starts.

E. For this reason, you shouldn’t feel ashamed to ask for bargains.

F. Planning your meals is another way to reduce your travel costs.

G. As a tourist, avoid taking taxis whenever possible, since they are expensive.

第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）

第一节  完形填空（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）

  阅读下面的短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。

On September 3, 1928, Alexander Fleming was hard at work. His  41   was to study bacteria in a lab. While working, Fleming found mold (霉菌) on one of his Petri dishes. And when he looked   42  , he saw something   43  . The bacteria he studied were also  44  all over the dish, but they weren’t growing on the spots that had mold. He   45   whether the bacteria were driven away by the mold. After more tests, Fleming found that it was doing just that. And he learned that the mold was a   46  called Penicillin.

Fleming believed that he could turn the mold into medicine to   47   infections. This medicine was the world’s first antibiotic (抗生素). Fleming first  48  it “mold juice.” Later, he   49   the name to “penicillin.” Soon, a team at Oxford University   50   to help. Scientists Howard Florey, Ernst Chain and Norman Heatley worked with Fleming. Together, they further   51   penicillin.

The first patient treated with the new drug had a bad   52  . His name was Albert Alexander. After a few   53   with penicillin, he felt much better. However, they   54   the medicine. The infection came back, and   55   Alexander passed away. Still, the doctors had learned that penicillin could fight bacteria. They just needed to   56   more of it. Later, Florey and Chain flew to the United States. There, they found ways to grow the mold  57  . Starting in 1942, penicillin was used to treat World WarⅡsoldiers.

At that time, diseases were just as   58   for soldiers at war as enemy forces were. Bacterial pneumonia (肺炎) alone   59   18% of American soldiers to die in the first World War. Thanks to penicillin, that   60   to less than one percent in World WarⅡ.

The four scientists saved lives and changed the world of medicine forever. Today, antibiotics are used to treat many illnesses.

第II卷(满分50分)

第二节 语法填空（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）

阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。

In 2020, the Nobel Peace Prize  61  (award) to the World Food Programme (WFP) for its efforts to fight hunger.

The WFP,   62   (found) in 1961, is the largest food-assistance branch of the United Nations. In emergencies, it is often the first on the scene, delivering food assistance to the victims of wars, civil conflicts, earthquakes, and crop    63  (fail) due to natural disasters. In 2019, the UN organization helped 97 million people in 88 countries   64  are victims of serious food insecurity and hunger, the   65   (high) number since 2012.

In 2015, ending hunger was adopted   66   one of the UN’s Sustainable(可持续的) Development Goals. Primarily, the WFP works to realize this goal. It works hard   67  (help) people who cannot produce or obtain enough food for  68   (they) and their families.

The WFP plays   69  important role in fighting hunger for world peace. The Nobel Committee wishes to emphasize that providing aid to increase food security not just    70   (effective) prevents hunger, but also helps to promote stability and peace.

第四部分  写作（共两节，满分35分）

第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）

   假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。

增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。

删除：把多余的词用斜线(＼)划掉。

修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。

注意：1．每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；

      2．只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。

Dear Bill,

How time flies! I went back to school and begin my lesson last month. It will be ten months before I attend the College Entrance Examination, that makes me worried. I failed pass the English test last term because of I had difficulty with it. I will never give up and determine to give myself the second chance to pass them. I will ask my teachers and friends for advices on how to improve it and work out a detailed plan. Besides, I’ll make fully use of time. Do you have any good ideas? Tell me or I will be grateful to you.

I’m looking forward to hear from you.

Yours,

                                                                  Li Hua

第二节  书面表达（满分25分）

为弘扬中国传统文化，你校学生会将举办一场诗歌朗诵大赛(a poetry recitation contest)，邀请学校国际部学生参加。请你根据提示写一则通知，内容包括：

1. 大赛的目的；

2. 大赛的时间、地点；

3. 朗诵内容：唐诗宋词（poetry of the Tang and Song dynasties)。

注意：词数100左右。