2023年青海省海东市中考三模英语试题
展开满分: 120分
第I卷(听力及选择题)
I、听力测试(共四部分, 计20分)
第一部分: 听句子, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子相对应的图片。每个句子仅读一遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
1. A. B. C.
2. A. B. C.
3. A. B. C.
4. A. B. C.
5. A. B. C.
第二部分: 听句子, 选择最佳答语。每个句子仅读一遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
6. A. Yes, he is. B. Yes, he des. C. Yes, I d.
7. A. By plane. B. Fr tw weeks. C. Have a nice trip.
8. A. After schl. B. During the hliday. C. By WeChat.
9. A. Thank yu. B. It's made f silk. C. It's 20 dllars.
10. A. It's interesting. B. My brther. C. At my hme.
第三部分: 听下面五段对话和对话后的问题, 选择正确答案。每段对话和问题读两遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
11. Where are the speakers?
A. In a library. B. In a bkstre. C. In a classrm.
12. Wh likes drinking cffee?
A. Lily. B. Lily's father. C. Lily's mther.
13. When will the speakers meet?
A. At 5:00 p. m. B. At 6:00 p. m. C. At 8:00p. m.
14. What are the speakers ging t d?
A. Fly a kite B. Write a reprt. C. G ut fr dinner.
15. Why des the girl want t buy bks in Sunshine Bkstre tmrrw?
A. Because it is clse t her hme.
B. Because she likes its service best.
C. Because the bks there will be n sale.
第四部分: 听短文, 根据短文内容, 完成下而的表格, 每空一词, 短文读两递。(每小题1分, 共5分)
Ⅱ、单项选择(每小题1分, 共20分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案填入空白处。
21. There's___________ "h" in the wrd “hur".
A. a B. the C. an
22. A smile___________ nthing, but gives s much
A. means B. leaves C. csts
23. If yu must g, at least wait___________ the rain stps.
A. till B. if C. since
24. Dn't talk ludly in the library. Yu shuld keep___________ in it.
A. active B. quiet C. yung
25. —Tm, yu___________ bad. Did yu take a shwer after exercising?
—N. I'll d it nw, Mm.
A. lk B. taste C. smell
26. We shuld d everything t prtect the earth, ___________we'll lse ur hme.
A. r B. s C. and
27. ___________students, we shuld nt nly spend ur time and energy n ur studies, but als get t knw what's ging n arund the wrld.
A. Frm B. T C. As
28. I can always depend n Sally fr help whenever I'm ___________. She is my true friend.
A. in persn B. in truble C. in time
29. Using many symbls makes ___________pssible t put a large amunt f infrmatin n a single map.
A. it B. ne C. that
30. —___________yu g t see the mvie Brn t Fly with me tnight?
—Srry, I can't. I have t finish my bk reprt.
A. Must B. Shuld C. Can
31. —Luke, ___________crss the rad until the traffic lights turn green.
—OK. Dn't wrry, Da D. I never break traffic rules.
A. nt B. can't C. dn't
32. Anna's parents are glad t see that she studies ___________than befre.
A. hard B. harder C. hardest
33. Hme is a place___________ gives us warmth and lve and keeps us safe.
A. that B. wh C. where
34. —Yur schl is really big. There must be a lt f students in it.
—Yes. There are ___________students in my schl. We all enjy ur schl life here.
A. three thusand B. three thusands C. three thusand f
35. —D yu knw that climate change is making plar bears g hungry?
Yes. And they___________ f hunger if there is n mre ice left.
A. died B. will die C. have died
36. Fred is busy___________ fr the marathn in his city. He will wrk as a vlunteer.
A. t prepare B. prepares C. preparing
37. —D yu knw___________?
—Srry, I have n idea.
A. wh wn first place in the physics cmpetitin
B. where will the 33rd Summer Olympics be held
C. when can humans travel t ther planets like Mars
38. Parents shuld keep their prmises t build ___________with their children.
A. educatin B. trust C. prgress
39. —Hurry up, Tny! We'll be late fr the flight.
—Dn't wrry. I guess ur flight___________ because f the rainstrm.
A. will cancel B. was cancelled C. will be cancelled
40. —Tmrrw I'll take part in an English speech cmpetitin. I'm a little nervus abut it
—___________The mre relaxed yu are, the better yu will finish it.
A. N prblem. B. Take it easy. C. The same t yu.
Ⅲ、完形填空(共10小题, 计10分)
阅读短文, 从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项, 使短文完整、通期。(每小题1分, 共10分)
Ladies and gentlemen,
Thank yu fr 41 the graduatin ceremny. First f all, I'd like t cngratulate all the students 42 are here tday. I remember meeting all f yu when yu 43 just starting Grade 7. But tday I see a rm full 44 talented yung adults with hpe fr the future. Yu 45 up s much and I'm s prud f yu.
Althugh yu've wrked very hard ver the last three years, 46 f yu did it alne. I hpe yu'll remember the imprtant peple in yur 47 wh helped and supprted yu—yur parents, yur teachers and yur friends.
I'd like t tell all f yu, the end f junir schl is the 48 f a new life. Yu may have different tasks ahead f yu. Yu'll make 49 alng the way, but the key is t lean frm yur mistakes and never 50 .
41. A. attend B. attends C. t attend D. attending
42. A. wh B. whm C. which D. whse
43. A. is B. was C. are D. were
44. A. fr B. at C. f D. t
45. A. grw B. grew C. grwn D. have grwn
46. A. all B. bth C. neither D. nne
47. A. lives B. classes C. schls D. families
48. A. end B. ending C. begin D. beginning
49. A. prblems B. mistakes C. trubles D. questins
50. A. put up· B. cme up C. give up D. pick up
Ⅳ、阅读理解(共三节, 15小题, 计80分)
A
Camp Timing
9:00 a. m. t 12:00 p. m; 2:00 p. m. t 5:00 p. m.
July 17—August 6, 2023
Price:
$100 per week r $25 per day, $20 fr each weekly field trip
Cntact:
admin@bysandgirlsctiutb.cm
050 8902xxx
根据材料内容, 选择最佳答案。(每小题2分, 共10分)
51. Wh can take part in the summer camp?
A. Jack, a 7-year-ld by. B. Mary, a 20-year-ld reprter.
C. Lily, an eighth grader. D. Tny, a middle schl teacher.
52. Camp members can____________ when staying utside.
A. tell interesting stries B. play sccer
C. make different ballns D. enjy magic shws
53. Hw lng dcs the summer camp last?
A. Half a mnth. B. Three weeks. C. Fur weeks. D. Tw mnths.
54. Michael shuld pay____________ if he stays at the camp fr a week and takes part in a field trip.
A.550 B. 875 C. $100 D. $120
55. What's the purpse f the reading?
A. T intrduce a summer camp.
B. T encurage students t jin a club.
C. T ask students t spend mre time utside.
D. T share sme fun activities.
B
Jhn and Jeremy lked ut f the windw.
"Why des it have t rain this weekend?" asked Jhn.
"I dn't knw," Jeremy replied sadly. "I wish it was sunny!"
Mum said, "We'll g camping anther time."
“But schl starts sn," said Jhn "It will be a lng wait befre anther time cmes."
“Speaking f schl, we have a few mre things t get at the stre," Mum said t the bys. "Why dn't yu get yur raincats and cme with me?”
Jhn and Jeremy shrugged their shulders(耸肩). As they headed ut the kitchen dr, they fund Dad unpacking(从箱中取出)everything fr the camping.
"Srry, we'll have t call it ff, guys," Dad said, winking(眨眼示意)at Mum.
The heavy rain cntinued as they shpped. By the time they arrived hme, the bys were mre upset than ever.
"Cme n," Mum said. "Let's get these things in the huse and put them away."
Jhn and Jeremy climbed ut f the car, tk a cuple f bags, and headed int the huse. As they entered the living rm, their eyes lit up(露出喜色)。
There was a tent in the middle f the living rm and a fire burning in the fireplace! And in frnt f the fire, there were sme camp chairs.
"What d yu think f this?" Dad asked as he climbed ut f the tent.
"Camping in the living rm?" said Jeremy. "This is s cl!"
"Well, it's nt camping utside," said Jhn. "But it's the next best thing!"
根据短文内容, 选择最佳答案。(每小题2分, 共10分)
56. Hw might Jhn and Jeremy feel abut the weather?
A. Angry. B. Wrried. C. Upset. D. Surprised.
57. What did Mum suggest ding?
A. Ging camping. B. Ding shpping.
C. Returning t schl. D. Taking ff raincats.
58. What des the underlined wrd "they" refer t?
①Mum ②Dad ③Jhn ④Jeremy
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④
59. What did Jhn mean by saying "But it's the next best thing!"?
A. He didn't enjy the new plan fr the weekend.
B. He liked what his dad had dne fr them.
C. He didn't want t camp utside n the weekend any mre.
D. He thught that he had the best dad in the wrld.
60. What might happen next?
A. Mum and Dad might buy a new tent.
B. The brthers might try camping in the rain.
C. The family might have a fun weekend.
D. The family might decide n anther time fr camping.
C
Each year, hundreds f peple climb Munt Qmlangma. Mst f them d it t achieve a persnal dream. But fr sme, they push themselves up the muntain fr ther purpses.
On September 24, 2021, Gu Yngjie and the ther seven members f a team set ut at a height f 5,800 meters. They reached a height f arund 6, 200 meters several hurs later. This was the secnd time the Chinese team had climbed Munt Qmlangma in 2021, fllwing their first trip in August.
“Desideria himalayensis," Gu cried as sn as he saw a plant. He tk pictures f the plant frm all directins and recrded its height and lcatin right away. It was the first plant they fund at a height abve 6,000 meters. What made Gu mre excited was that sme f the siliques(角果)f the plant had divided, which meant the team had a chance t cllect its seeds(种子).
T d research, a cmplete seed sample(样本)needs at least 2,500 seeds. Hwever, since seeds are scarce at high pints f Munt Qmlangma, it is hard t cllect 2,500 seeds. S the team culd nly try t cllect as many as pssible.
In July 2022, after being kept in very lw temperatures fr nearly a year, the seeds cllected n Munt Qmlangina were taken ut t test if they were alive. And sn all the seeds germinated(发芽). It means that China has successfully cllected and kept thse valuable seeds.
A seed carries the hpe f life frm the mment it cmes int being. Fr China, thse seeds have brught mre hpe t its plant prtectin.
据短文内容, 选择最佳答案。(每小题2分, 共10分)
61. Which is TRUE abut Gu's secnd trip t Munt Qmlangma in 2021?
A. He walked 6, 200 meters during the trip. B. There were eight members in his team.
C. He left fr the muntain in June. D. He finally achieved his persnal dream.
62. Accrding t Paragraph 3, Gu gt mre excited because
A. he tk many phts f the plant B. he knew where the plant was
C. he might be able t get seeds f the plant D. he was the first persn t find the plant
63. The underlined wrd “scarce" in Paragraph 4 means"".
A. small in number B. bright in clr
C. strange in shape D. shrt in height
64. What can we learn frm Paragraph 5?
A. The seeds were cllected in. July 2022.
B. The seeds kept alive in lw temperatures.
C. The seeds began t grw after being kept fr six mnths.
D. Mre seeds have been fund n Munt Qmlangma.
65. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. Hw plants grw n Munt Qmlangua
B. Why peple climb Munt Qmlangma
C. Stry behind the seeds fund n Munt Qmlangma
D. Searching fr treasure n Munt Qmlangrma
V、补全对话(共5小题, 计10分)
权据对话内容, 从方框中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。(其中有两个选项为多余选项)(每小题2分, 共10分)
(Mike cmes t see Dr. While)
W: 66. ___________________
M: Well, Dctr. It's my eyes. I can't see clearly.
W: 67. ___________________
M: Since last week, I think.
W: Let me have a lk. Oh, I guess yu are wrking t hard these days and taking less care f yur eyes.
M: 68. ___________________What shuld I d then?
W: Well, when yu feel tired, just stp wrking and cme ut t enjy a shrt rest. Remember, never g t bed t late and dn't read in bed.
M: 69. ___________________
W: Sure.
M: 70. ___________________Thank yu very much
第Ⅱ卷(非选择题)
Ⅵ、词汇运用(每空1分, 共5分)
用方框中所给词的适当形式填空, 使短文完整、通联。
Why are s many peple s afraid t fail? Quite simply because n ne tells us hw t face the failure. In fat, failure can becme experience that means grwth. We frget that failure is part f the human cnditin and that every persn has the right t fail.
Mst parents wrk hard t prevent failure r 71. ___________________their children. One way is t lwer standards. Nearly 60% f the parents chse this way. When a child finishes making a table, the mther describes it as "perfect" even thugh it. desn't stand still. The ther way is t blame thers. If Jhn fails in science, his teacher is 72. ___________________r stupid.
There's a prblem with the tw ways. It makes a child unprepared fr the 73. ___________________life if they dn't meet enugh failure. The yung need t learn that n ne can be best at everything, t ne can win all the time. The yung shuld be 74. ___________________t experience failure.
Failure never gives peple pleasure. It hurts bth grwn-ups and 75. ___________________. But it can be really gd t yur life when yu learn t use it.
Ⅶ、阅读表达(每空1分, 共10分)
根据短文内容, 用符合语义及语法规则的词填空, 每空一词。
There is a 24-hur smart bkstre in Guiyang, Guizhu. It has n wrkers. Visitrs get int the bkstre via a facial recgnitin system(凭借面部识别系统)and they pay fr things at the self-service checkut(自助付款台),
The 200 m2 bkstre has nearly 10,000 bks fr all ages. It nt nly sells bks, but it als serves as a. library.(Gustmers can stay there and read fr free as lng as they like withut being disturbed(打扰)by anyne.
What's mre, it's very safe t stay in the bkstre because f a remte mnitring and alarm system(远程监控和警报系统). "We keep an eye n the bkstre frm a cntrl rm. As sn as we find a prblem, we will act quickly t deal with it," said Wang Ying. the stre manager.
Since the bkstre pened in April 2022, it has been very ppular. It. receives hundreds f custmers a day. Peple enjy its quietness and cnvenience(便利)a lt. 26-year-ld Chern Wenta has develped a new reading habit as a result f visiting the stre. "It makes me feel easy t pick up a bk and enjy it here," Chen says. “Unlike vide games, reading brings me a sense f peace in the fast life."
A number f ld peple have als been visiting the bkstre. Fr them, the bkstre is mre than just a place t real. 69-year-ld Lu Yinfeng usually cmes t the bkstre t relax. "I lve reading here. It is really gd fr the elderly t experience new technlgies and keep up with the rapidly changing wrld," she says.
76. Visitrs wn't see any___________________ in the 24-hur smart bkstre in Guiyang.
77. The bkstre nt nly sells bks, but it als serves as___________________ ___________________.
78. It is___________________ ___________________t stay in the bkstre because f its remte mnitring and alarm system.
79. After___________________ the stre, Chen Wenta has develped a new___________________ habit.
80. The bkstre gives the elderly a chance t___________________ ___________________ ___________________the rapidly changing wrld.
Ⅷ、书面表达(计15分)
人非圣贤, 孰能无过? 作为一名学生, 在学习或生活中你是否也曾犯过错误, 做过傻事? 在认识到自己新犯的错误或明白所做的傻事后,你又是如何改正的呢? 请根据写作要点提示, 以“The Mistake Made Me Grw Up”为题, 用英语写一篇短文。
写作要点:(1)简述你犯过的一次错误或做过的一件傻事;
(2)谈淡你是如何在他人的帮助下或在自己的努力下改正的;
(3)你从中吸取了哪些教训或收获了哪些成长的经验。
要求:(1)内容积极向上, 完整连贯;
(2)逻辑清晰, 表达准确, 书写规范;
(3)文中不得出现真实姓名、校名和地名;
(4)词数80—100。
The Mistake Made Me Grw Up
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2023年英语模拟(三)参考答案
I、听力测试(共四部分, 计20分)
1—5 CBACB 6—10BCCAB 11—15ABBAC
16. speak 17. hbbies 18. hand 19. talents 20. parties
Ⅱ、单项选择(每小题1分, 共20分)
21—25 CCABC 26—30ACBAC 31—35CBAAB 36—40 CABCB
Ⅲ、完形填空(共10小题, 计10分)
41—45DADCD 46—50 DADBC
Ⅳ、阅读理解(共三节, 15小题, 计30分)
51—55CBBDA 56—60CBCBC 61—65 BCABC
Ⅴ、补全对话(共5小题, 计10分)
66—70DEBAF
Ⅵ、词汇运用(每空1分, 共5分)
71. prtect 72. unfair 73. real 74. allwed 75. children
Ⅶ、阅读表达(每空1分, 共10分)
76. wrkers 77. a library 78. very safe 79. visiting; reading 80. keep up with
Ⅷ、书面表达(计15分)
略
2023年初中学业水平考试模拟(三)听力材料
英语
Ⅰ、听力测试(共四部分, 计20分)
第一部分: 听句子, 从A、B、C三个选项中选出与所听句子相对应的图片。每个句子仅读一遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
1. This is a cup.
2. Mr. Zhang wrks in the hspital.
3. They are dancing tgether happily.
4. Please turn right at the next crssing.
5. I want t be an astrnaut when I grw up.
第二部分: 听句子, 选择最佳答语。每个句子仅读一遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
6. Des he have a fever?
7. Next week I'm ging t Guangzhu with my friends.
8. Hw d yu keep in tuch with yur relatives?
9. Yur handbag lks s nice.
10. Wh will yu play chess with this afternn?
第三部分: 听下面五段对话和对话后的问题, 选择正确答案。每段对话和问题读两遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
11. M: I dn't have a library card. D I need ne?
W: If yu want t brrw bks, yu have t have ne. But it's all right if yu just sit here reading.
Q: Where are the speakers?
12. M: Lily, d yu like drinking cffee?
W: Nt at all. But my father lves it. My mther and I like drinking tea.
Q: Wh likes drinking cffee?
13. W: Hi, Steve. Are yu free t have dinner tgether tnight?
M: Er…I have classes until 5:00 p. m., but I am free after that.
W: Then let's meet at 6:00 p. m.
M: Sure. But I have t get back at 8:00 p. m. My friend is cming t see me.
Q: When will the speakers meet?
14. M: It's a lvely day. Let's g and fly a kite.
W: Okay, but I have t finish my reading reprt first.
M: Didn't yu d it last night?
W: N, I didn't have time. We went ut fr dinner t celebrate my sister's birthday last night.
Q: What are the speakers ging t d?
15. W: Dad, culd yu drive me t Sunshine Bkstre tmrrw mrning?
M: Srry, dear. Tmrrw I will have a meeting. What abut the day after tmrrw?
W: But sme f the bks there will be 50% ff nly tmrrw.
M: Why nt ask yur mum t take yu there? She will be free tmrrw.
Q: Why des the girl want t buy bks in Sunshine Bkstre tmrrw?
第四部分: 听短文, 根据短文内容, 完成下面的表格, 每空一词, 短文读两遍。(每小题1分, 共5分)
Sme children dn't knw hw t make friends when they cme t a new schl. Here is sme advice.
First, dn't be shy. Try t speak t yur new classmates.
Secnd, find hbbies yu and yur classmates have in cmmn.
Third, when yur classmates have difficulties, give them a hand.
Furth, shw yur talents. This will make yu mre ppular.
Finally, g t parties and make friends with students frm ther classes.
Advice n hw t make friends in a new schl
Dn't be shy. Try t 16. ________________________t yur new classmates.
Find 17. ________________________yu and yur classmates have in cmmn.
When yur classmates have difficulties, give them a 18. ________________________
Shw yur 19. ________________________. This will make yu mre ppular.
G t 20. ________________________and make friends with students frm ther classes.
Fun Activities
Face painting, dress-up, magic shws, fashin shws, balln making
Educatinal Activities
Fruit carving(雕刻), keybard, painting, strytelling
Outdr Activities
Rller skating, park games, sccer, dance, field trips
Evening Wrkshp
Dance, guitar, keybard, martial arts, rbties
A. D yu think that. will help? B. That's true. C. Yu are wrng.
D. What's the truble? E. Hw lng have yu had the prblem?
F. All right, Dctr. I'll try it. G. Gd idea!
really child prtectin fair allw
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