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山东省青岛莱西市（五四制）2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试（线上）英语试题
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这是一份山东省青岛莱西市（五四制）2022-2023学年七年级上学期期末考试（线上）英语试题，共9页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（时间：100 分钟 满分：120 分）
说明：
1. 本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分，共九道大题。第Ⅰ卷为选择题，共 55 小题，共 60 分；第Ⅱ卷为非选择题，共三道大题，共 60 分。
2. 所有题目均在答题卡上作答，在试题上作答无效。
卷一（60 分）
第一部分 听力测试 (20 分)
一、听句子，选择相应的答语。每个句子听一遍。(5 分)
1. A. He has shrt straight hair. B. I’d like sme tea. C. He’s a pliceman.
2. A. Yes, I did. B. I lst my keys. C. It was great.
3. A. Beef ndles. B. Twn Cinema. C. Miss Liu.
4. A. Once a mnth. B. I stayed up late. C. It was cheaper.
5. A. The air was clean. B. I wrk harder. C. I went t Guizhu.
二、听对话和问题，选择正确答案。每组对话听两遍。(5 分)
6. A. The waitress. B. The dctr. C. The singer.
7. A. Her mther. B. Her sister. C. Her friend.
8. A. She’s gd at math. B. She is smart. C. She’s ppular.
9. A. He played the pian. B. He played sccer. C. He played the drum.
10. A. Because she was tired.B. Because it was cld and rainy. C. Because the fd was expensive.
三、听短文，完成下列问题。（10 分）
听第一遍短文，将下列短语按照录音中出现的先后顺序排序。（5 分）
A. feels bred at hme in winter B. learned a lt in gegraphy classes
C. spend her winter vacatin with them D. is tw kilmeters frm the statin
E. take the fd t her grandparents
11. _____ 12. _____ 13. _____ 14. _____15. _____
再听两遍短文，选择正确答案。（5 分）
16. Where d Cindy’s grandparents live?
A. In a muntain village. B. Near the beach. C. In a small city.
17. Hw is the weather in Cindy’s city in winter?
A. It’s very warm. B. It’s cld and dry. C. It’s windy and cl.
18. When did Cindy’s parents take her t the supermarket?
A. On December 5th. B. Last Tuesday. C. A mnth ag.
19. Hw did Cindy feel when she gt n the train?
A. Excited. B. Bred. C. Wrried.
20. Hw lng did the train trip take?
A. Twenty hurs. B. Twelve hurs. C. Eleven hurs and a half.
第二部分 笔试 (40 分)
四、单项选择 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（10 分）
21. Talent shws give peple _____ way t make their dreams cme true.
A. an B. the C. a D. /
22. Schl buses make it _____ easier fr students t get t schl than befre.
A. much B. t C. quite D. very
23. —I will be very busy tday, Paul.
—Dn’t wrry, Mm. If yu wrk late, I _____ fd nline myself.
A. will reach B. will rder C. reach D. rder
24. _____ the players tried their best, they lst the game.
A. S B. Because C. Thugh D. But
25. Culd yu speak luder s that everyne can hear yu ______?
A. quickly B. happily C. safely D. clearly
26. —What did yu d this Dragn Bat Festival?
—I ______ the bat races n TV and read bks.
A. watch B. am watching C. watched D. watches
27. Are the tw pictures the same? I can’t see any ______.
A. surprise B. difference C. service D. height
28. It’s difficult t decide which ne t ______, because all f the cats are beautiful.
A. wnder B. dislike C. agree D. chse
29. Yu dn’t need a lt f friends ______ they’re gd.
A. as sn as B. as lng as C. all in all D. at least
30. —Wuld yu like t g camping with us tmrrw?
—_____. Catch yu at 8:00 a.m.
A. I’d lve t B. Have a gd time C. Never mind D. Yu’d better nt
五、完形填空 （10 分）
Many ld peple in China exercise in parks, dance in squares r spend time with their grandchildren. But 66-year-ld Zha Wenying frm Zhejiang has a 31 life. She was a teacher and nw she is a Rubik's Cube player.
“After 30 years f 32 in a primary schl, I didn't knw what t d after retiring (退休),” Zha said. “The Rubik's Cube gives me a new 33 .” She learned abut it frm her granddaughter. She said, “She played in the math lessn with the cube and 34 it hme. I was very interested, s I played with her.” At first, she learnt it very 35 . Then she watched the lessns nline and 36 ver fur years learning it by herself.
When watching Super Brain (超级大脑), a 37 n Jiangsu TV, Zha fell in lve with blind flded cube-slving (蒙眼解魔方). Players need t have their 38 cvered (盖住) when slving the cube. The shrter time, the 39 pints. But fr peple in their 60s, it's 40 t learn it. Zha met a lt f difficulties, but she never gave up. Nw she hlds the wrld's fastest recrd (纪录) fr blind flded cube-slving fr peple ver age 60.
31. A. different B. dangerus C. serius D. pr
32. A. dancing B. exercising C. teaching D. cleaning
33. A. size B. start C. laugh D. place
34. A. rde B. psted C. blew D. brught
35. A. differently B. early C. slwly D. ludly
36. A. lst B. tk C. made D. spent
37. A. prgram B. theater C. guide D. heart
38. A. nses B. eyes C. muth D. ears
39. A. cheaper B. shrter C. wrse D. higher
40. A. careful B. difficult C. easy D. lucky
六、阅读理解 （A、B 篇每小题 1.5 分，C 篇每小题 1 分，共 20 分）
A
My name is Marcus. It's the start f ur ne-week schl hliday in Octber — a hliday withut technlgy (科技). We cannt use cmputers, phnes r any ther technlgy. It's part f ur hmewrk — spending the schl hliday withut technlgy and keeping a diary abut it. We need t spend fifteen minutes writing abut ur feelings in ur diary every day and then send ur diary n the Internet. That's the nly time we can use technlgy!
It's nly 4 pm n Saturday and I'm starting t miss my phne. My sister Mia is talking t her friend n the phne and she is laughing at me! My family dn't think I can live withut technlgy. I want t shw them they are nt right. Hw are my classmates ding?
Dan, 15
I find it easy right nw. I play ftball every Saturday, s I dn't usually play n my cmputer.
Alexandra, 16
I'm feeling a little bred! I miss talking t my friends n the phne. I can't believe it's nly the first day!
Sienna, 15
It's easy fr me because I'm staying with my family in Wales fr the hliday. We cme here every Octber. The huse desn't have Wi-Fi, s my phne has n signal here. I'm writing this in a restaurant in the twn. Our hlidays here are always technlgy-free!
41. The hliday at Marcus’ schl is special because __________.
A. students have n hmewrk B. students can’t use cmputers r phnes
C. the schl is still pen D. it’s the lngest ne in the wrld
42. What d students need t write in their dairies?
A. Their feelings. B. Their dreams. C. Their family. D. Their prblems.
43. Which f the fllwing is true?
A. Marcus’ sister desn’t want t use her phne.
B. Marcus’ family think he can live withut technlgy.
C. Marcus desn’t miss his phne at all.
D. Marcus wants t shw his family they are nt right.
44. Which students think it easy t fllw the hliday rules?
A. Dan and Alexandra. B. Alexandra and Sienna.
C. Dan and Sienna. D. Marcus and Mia.
45. What des the underlined (划线) wrd “signal” mean in Chinese?
A. 电池 B. 信号 C. 装饰 D. 损坏
B
Hi, there! Tday we asked sme students abut their last weekend. Here are their answers.
46. When did Rger have a birthday party?
A. Last Friday. B. Last Saturday. C. Last Sunday. D. Last Mnday.
47. Hw many places did Sara visit n the schl field trip?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Tw. D. Five.
48. Hw was Jenny’s weekend?
A. Exciting. B. Bring. C. Terrible. D. Busy.
49. What did Frank d last Thursday?
A. He met a lt f peple. B. He saw different kinds f sea life.
C. He bught sme gifts. D. He wn a prize.
50. What’s the best title (标题) f the reprt?
A. When did yu g t the park? B. Hw ften d yu exercise?
C. Did yu d anything special last weekend? D. Wh’s gt talent in yur class?
C
D yu think it difficult t learn a freign language well? In fact, it is pssible fr mst f yu. If yu learn it in the right way, yu can learn it well. 51. ________________ Let's take learning English as an example.
52. ________________
Scientists suggest that a language learner shuld learn mre than 300 hurs. As little as 30 minutes a day can help yu imprve yur English ver time.
53. ________________
Study a little grammar, next d a shrt listening exercise, and then perhaps read a passage with the same tpic.
54. ________________
Reading English newspapers and bks, listening t the radi and music, r watching TV can help with yur English writing, listening and prnunciatin. Dn't frget t write dwn new wrds and lk them up in the dictinary.
55. ________________
Take 30 minutes t write dwn what happens during yur day. It is a necessary part f yur learning. Writing exercises are a great way t practice. Day by day, yu can becme a better English learner.
根据短文内容，从下列选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
A. Read, listen and watch.
B. Yu’re gd at English.
C. Write it dwn.
D. Study every day.
E. It’s imprtant t find the right way.
F. It’s t difficult fr us.
G. Read, listen and watch.
卷二（60 分）
七、阅读表达 阅读短文，完成后面的任务。（20 分）
A
Wuld yu like t help peple in need? On March 31, 2022, there was an accident (事故) in Guangzhu, Guangdng.
At abut 6:00 pm, a bus left the bus stp. Just at that time, an electric (电动的) bicycle ran int the back f the bus. Unluckily, ne f the biker's hands went under a left wheel (车轮) f it.
A lt f peple saw the accident. They quickly came arund the bus t mve it. As time went by, mre and mre peple jined them. They tried their best t help the man. “Peple kept cming t help. It was all abut saving the persn first,” a man said. The bus was ver 10,000 kg. But thanks t the helpers, the biker gt free very sn. Peple tk him t the hspital quickly.
Later, smene put a vide (视频) f peple wrking tgether t help the electric bike rider n the Internet. Lts f peple acrss the cuntry watched it and they felt happy. They shwed thanks t thse peple. They said, “Many hands make light wrk, as the ld saying ges.”
Frm: http:
1. 回答问题。When and where was the accident?（2 分）
2. 将文中第二段中划线句子译成汉语。（2 分）
3. 从文中找出与“They went t the bus and tried t mve it.”意思相近的句子。（2 分）
4. 根据上下文，写出第三段中划线代词 him 所指代的内容。（2 分）
5. 回答问题。What d yu want t say t thse peple in the vide (视频)?（2 分）
B
Wh is Kimeila Campbell? She is a yung girl frm Jamaica. She is just 14, but she has already launched (发行) her wn magazine. She and her magazine are ppular nw.
Kimeila named her magazine YNTY. It stands fr (代表) “Yu're Never T Yung”. She gives yung peple gd advice (建议) in the magazine. She hpes it can help them becme mre cnfident (自信的). Als, she wants t help them make their dreams cme true.
At the age f tw, Kimeila started reading. When she was six years ld, she mved t Queens. There were sme changes (改变) in her life, but ne thing didn't change—she still wrked hard and tried t be cnfident. At 13, Campbell decided t d smething special. Then after a year, her magazine came ut.
Kimeila is nly 14 years ld, but she is wise (有智慧的) fr her age. She shws that a persn is never t yung t bring abut change. “I want the children in the cuntryside t knw that n matter where they cme frm r hw ld they are, they can d smething,” she said. “Yu dn't have t grw up befre yu can start making a difference.”
6. 将第一段中划线句子译成汉语。（2 分）
7. 回答问题。What des “YNTY” stand fr?（2 分）
8. 根据短文内容完成句子，每空不超过两个词。（2 分）
Kimeila hpes her magazine can help ①___________ becme mre cnfident. She als wants t help them make their dreams ②__________ .
9. 回答问题。What did Campbell decide t d at the age f 13?（2 分）
10. 根据上下文，写出第四段中划线代词 they 所指代的内容。（2 分）
八、综合运用 （25 分）
A. 从方框内选择恰当的单词并用其适当形式填空。每词限用一次。（10 分）
1. The trip t the farm was great! We _____________ the hrses and cws there.
2. My aunt always _____________ us t have dinner tgether n her birthday.
3. Mr. Li _____________ t a new neighbrhd tw mnths ag.
4. —Wh _____________ the cup?
—Srry, I dn’t knw.
5. —Gina isn’t at hme. Where’s she?
—She _____________ by the lake.
B. 根据句意和汉语提示写出单词。（5 分）
1. Kate _____________ (几乎不) eats junk fd.
2. Our teaching building is _____________ (类似的) t yurs.
3. Eric takes the guitar lessns _____________ (两次) a week.
4. Jhn has curly hair and he wears _____________ (眼镜).
5. T keep healthy, we need _____________ (足够的) vegetables and fruit.
C. 阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。（10 分）
Dear Linda,
Hw was yur May Day hliday? I had an enjyable hliday. As yu knw, we had five days ff this year, s 1. ________ (g) n a trip was my family's chice (选择). I was excited frm the 2. ________ (ne) day. My family went t Xi'an. It is nt far 3. ________ my city. And we spent abut three hurs 4. ________ the rad. The trip went 5. ________ (gd) except (除……外) a small accident—I lst my ID card! 6. ________ (Lucky), smene fund it and called the plice. A tall pliceman 7. ________ (take) it t ur htel.
The next day, we went t Shaanxi Histry Museum first. My father bked (预定) 8. ________ (ticket) n the Internet and we gt there early. There 9. ________ (be) several peple waiting utside. Because f COVID-19, many peple 10. ________ (stay) at hme s the museum was nt s crwded as befre. And it was nt difficult t find smewhere t park ur car. We didn't need t wait all the time during the hliday. It was really great!
Yurs,
Sun Ying
九、书面表达 （15 分）
请以“My best friend and I”为题，写一篇短文介绍你和你的好朋友。内容包括你们之间的异同，可以从外貌、性格、爱好及学习等方面进行对比，并简要谈谈你对交友的看法。
要求：1. 要点齐全，可适当发挥；
2. 词数 70 左右。
My best friend and I
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
2022—2023学年度第一学期期末质量检测
初二英语参考答案及评分标准
1-------5 ACBAC6-----10 ABCAB11----15 CAEBD
16----20 ABBAC21-----25CABCD26----30 CBDBA
31----35ACBDC36----40 DABDB41----45 BADCB
46----50 BCADC51----55 EDGAC
(41-50小题，每小题1.5分；其余每小题1分)
七、A. 1. On March 31, 2022, in Guangzhu, Guangdng.
2. 下午6点左右，一辆公交车驶离车站。
3. They quickly came arund the bus t mve it.
4. the biker / the electric bike rider
5. Many hands make light wrk, as the ld saying ges. / ...
说明：第5小题可以抄本句，也可写原创句，理解文本且表意正确即可得分。
B. 6. 她和她（创办）的杂志很受欢迎。
7. Yu're Never T Yung
8. yung peple；cme true
9. She decided t d smething special.
10. the children in the cuntryside
(评分说明：1-10每小题2分)
八、A. 1. fed 2. invites 3. mved 4. brke 5. is camping
（每小题1分，只选对单词可得0.5分）
B. 1. hardly 2. similar 3. twice 4. glasses 5. enugh
（每小题1分，允许使用无拼写和语法错误的同义词）
C.1. ging 2. first 3. frm 4. n 5. well
6. Luckily 7. tk 8. tickets 9. were 10. stayed
（每小题1分）
九、（15分）
附：中考英语书面表达评分原则供参考：
1．本题满分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡
量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于70或多于120的，从总分中减去1分。
4．评分时，应注意：内容要点全面，词汇和语法应用正确，字数符合要求，语篇上下文
的连贯性好。短文与所给信息应融为一体。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
书面表达评分时分为五个等级：
1.（13-15分）要点齐全，语句通顺完整，语法、拼写无误，书写工整。
2．（10-12分）能写出大部分要点，语句较通顺完整，有个别语法、拼写错误，但不影
响句意理解，书写工整。
3．（7-9分）能写出部分要点，语句基本通顺完整，有少量语法、拼写错误，但尚能达
意，书写较工整。
4．（4-6分）能写出个别要点，语句不够通顺完整，语法、拼写错误较多，只有个别句
子可读，书写不够工整。
5．（0-3分）未能写出基本要点，语法、拼写错误多，不知所云，书写潦草。 It was my 15th birthday last Saturday. Sme f my friends and Alan, my cusin came t celebrate it. Everyne brught me a gift. We had a party. We played games, sang sngs and had a big birthday cake. It was really a wnderful day!
My class were n a schl field trip last weekend. First, we went t the University f Nrth Carlina t learn abut the histry f its basketball team. Many basketball stars were students there! Then we visited a museum. We learned abut hw the plane was invented and tk many pictures there.
I was lucky enugh t g t a cnference (会议) n charity (慈善) last weekend. I was s excited t meet a lt f kind peple there. One f them was a by named Richard. He spke at the cnference abut the charity wrk that he had dne in the past few years.
It was a different week than usual. Last Thursday, my schl band (乐队) went t Atlanta t perfrm in a cmpetitin (比赛). I played the vilin and wn a prize! On Sunday, we went t the Gergia Aquarium and gt t see different kinds f sea life frm all ver the wrld. It was really cl!
mve, camp, feed, break, invite
（时间：100 分钟 满分：120 分）
说明：
1. 本试题分第Ⅰ卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分，共九道大题。第Ⅰ卷为选择题，共 55 小题，共 60 分；第Ⅱ卷为非选择题，共三道大题，共 60 分。
2. 所有题目均在答题卡上作答，在试题上作答无效。
卷一（60 分）
第一部分 听力测试 (20 分)
一、听句子，选择相应的答语。每个句子听一遍。(5 分)
1. A. He has shrt straight hair. B. I’d like sme tea. C. He’s a pliceman.
2. A. Yes, I did. B. I lst my keys. C. It was great.
3. A. Beef ndles. B. Twn Cinema. C. Miss Liu.
4. A. Once a mnth. B. I stayed up late. C. It was cheaper.
5. A. The air was clean. B. I wrk harder. C. I went t Guizhu.
二、听对话和问题，选择正确答案。每组对话听两遍。(5 分)
6. A. The waitress. B. The dctr. C. The singer.
7. A. Her mther. B. Her sister. C. Her friend.
8. A. She’s gd at math. B. She is smart. C. She’s ppular.
9. A. He played the pian. B. He played sccer. C. He played the drum.
10. A. Because she was tired.B. Because it was cld and rainy. C. Because the fd was expensive.
三、听短文，完成下列问题。（10 分）
听第一遍短文，将下列短语按照录音中出现的先后顺序排序。（5 分）
A. feels bred at hme in winter B. learned a lt in gegraphy classes
C. spend her winter vacatin with them D. is tw kilmeters frm the statin
E. take the fd t her grandparents
11. _____ 12. _____ 13. _____ 14. _____15. _____
再听两遍短文，选择正确答案。（5 分）
16. Where d Cindy’s grandparents live?
A. In a muntain village. B. Near the beach. C. In a small city.
17. Hw is the weather in Cindy’s city in winter?
A. It’s very warm. B. It’s cld and dry. C. It’s windy and cl.
18. When did Cindy’s parents take her t the supermarket?
A. On December 5th. B. Last Tuesday. C. A mnth ag.
19. Hw did Cindy feel when she gt n the train?
A. Excited. B. Bred. C. Wrried.
20. Hw lng did the train trip take?
A. Twenty hurs. B. Twelve hurs. C. Eleven hurs and a half.
第二部分 笔试 (40 分)
四、单项选择 选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（10 分）
21. Talent shws give peple _____ way t make their dreams cme true.
A. an B. the C. a D. /
22. Schl buses make it _____ easier fr students t get t schl than befre.
A. much B. t C. quite D. very
23. —I will be very busy tday, Paul.
—Dn’t wrry, Mm. If yu wrk late, I _____ fd nline myself.
A. will reach B. will rder C. reach D. rder
24. _____ the players tried their best, they lst the game.
A. S B. Because C. Thugh D. But
25. Culd yu speak luder s that everyne can hear yu ______?
A. quickly B. happily C. safely D. clearly
26. —What did yu d this Dragn Bat Festival?
—I ______ the bat races n TV and read bks.
A. watch B. am watching C. watched D. watches
27. Are the tw pictures the same? I can’t see any ______.
A. surprise B. difference C. service D. height
28. It’s difficult t decide which ne t ______, because all f the cats are beautiful.
A. wnder B. dislike C. agree D. chse
29. Yu dn’t need a lt f friends ______ they’re gd.
A. as sn as B. as lng as C. all in all D. at least
30. —Wuld yu like t g camping with us tmrrw?
—_____. Catch yu at 8:00 a.m.
A. I’d lve t B. Have a gd time C. Never mind D. Yu’d better nt
五、完形填空 （10 分）
Many ld peple in China exercise in parks, dance in squares r spend time with their grandchildren. But 66-year-ld Zha Wenying frm Zhejiang has a 31 life. She was a teacher and nw she is a Rubik's Cube player.
“After 30 years f 32 in a primary schl, I didn't knw what t d after retiring (退休),” Zha said. “The Rubik's Cube gives me a new 33 .” She learned abut it frm her granddaughter. She said, “She played in the math lessn with the cube and 34 it hme. I was very interested, s I played with her.” At first, she learnt it very 35 . Then she watched the lessns nline and 36 ver fur years learning it by herself.
When watching Super Brain (超级大脑), a 37 n Jiangsu TV, Zha fell in lve with blind flded cube-slving (蒙眼解魔方). Players need t have their 38 cvered (盖住) when slving the cube. The shrter time, the 39 pints. But fr peple in their 60s, it's 40 t learn it. Zha met a lt f difficulties, but she never gave up. Nw she hlds the wrld's fastest recrd (纪录) fr blind flded cube-slving fr peple ver age 60.
31. A. different B. dangerus C. serius D. pr
32. A. dancing B. exercising C. teaching D. cleaning
33. A. size B. start C. laugh D. place
34. A. rde B. psted C. blew D. brught
35. A. differently B. early C. slwly D. ludly
36. A. lst B. tk C. made D. spent
37. A. prgram B. theater C. guide D. heart
38. A. nses B. eyes C. muth D. ears
39. A. cheaper B. shrter C. wrse D. higher
40. A. careful B. difficult C. easy D. lucky
六、阅读理解 （A、B 篇每小题 1.5 分，C 篇每小题 1 分，共 20 分）
A
My name is Marcus. It's the start f ur ne-week schl hliday in Octber — a hliday withut technlgy (科技). We cannt use cmputers, phnes r any ther technlgy. It's part f ur hmewrk — spending the schl hliday withut technlgy and keeping a diary abut it. We need t spend fifteen minutes writing abut ur feelings in ur diary every day and then send ur diary n the Internet. That's the nly time we can use technlgy!
It's nly 4 pm n Saturday and I'm starting t miss my phne. My sister Mia is talking t her friend n the phne and she is laughing at me! My family dn't think I can live withut technlgy. I want t shw them they are nt right. Hw are my classmates ding?
Dan, 15
I find it easy right nw. I play ftball every Saturday, s I dn't usually play n my cmputer.
Alexandra, 16
I'm feeling a little bred! I miss talking t my friends n the phne. I can't believe it's nly the first day!
Sienna, 15
It's easy fr me because I'm staying with my family in Wales fr the hliday. We cme here every Octber. The huse desn't have Wi-Fi, s my phne has n signal here. I'm writing this in a restaurant in the twn. Our hlidays here are always technlgy-free!
41. The hliday at Marcus’ schl is special because __________.
A. students have n hmewrk B. students can’t use cmputers r phnes
C. the schl is still pen D. it’s the lngest ne in the wrld
42. What d students need t write in their dairies?
A. Their feelings. B. Their dreams. C. Their family. D. Their prblems.
43. Which f the fllwing is true?
A. Marcus’ sister desn’t want t use her phne.
B. Marcus’ family think he can live withut technlgy.
C. Marcus desn’t miss his phne at all.
D. Marcus wants t shw his family they are nt right.
44. Which students think it easy t fllw the hliday rules?
A. Dan and Alexandra. B. Alexandra and Sienna.
C. Dan and Sienna. D. Marcus and Mia.
45. What des the underlined (划线) wrd “signal” mean in Chinese?
A. 电池 B. 信号 C. 装饰 D. 损坏
B
Hi, there! Tday we asked sme students abut their last weekend. Here are their answers.
46. When did Rger have a birthday party?
A. Last Friday. B. Last Saturday. C. Last Sunday. D. Last Mnday.
47. Hw many places did Sara visit n the schl field trip?
A. Three. B. Fur. C. Tw. D. Five.
48. Hw was Jenny’s weekend?
A. Exciting. B. Bring. C. Terrible. D. Busy.
49. What did Frank d last Thursday?
A. He met a lt f peple. B. He saw different kinds f sea life.
C. He bught sme gifts. D. He wn a prize.
50. What’s the best title (标题) f the reprt?
A. When did yu g t the park? B. Hw ften d yu exercise?
C. Did yu d anything special last weekend? D. Wh’s gt talent in yur class?
C
D yu think it difficult t learn a freign language well? In fact, it is pssible fr mst f yu. If yu learn it in the right way, yu can learn it well. 51. ________________ Let's take learning English as an example.
52. ________________
Scientists suggest that a language learner shuld learn mre than 300 hurs. As little as 30 minutes a day can help yu imprve yur English ver time.
53. ________________
Study a little grammar, next d a shrt listening exercise, and then perhaps read a passage with the same tpic.
54. ________________
Reading English newspapers and bks, listening t the radi and music, r watching TV can help with yur English writing, listening and prnunciatin. Dn't frget t write dwn new wrds and lk them up in the dictinary.
55. ________________
Take 30 minutes t write dwn what happens during yur day. It is a necessary part f yur learning. Writing exercises are a great way t practice. Day by day, yu can becme a better English learner.
根据短文内容，从下列选项中选出能填入文中空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。
A. Read, listen and watch.
B. Yu’re gd at English.
C. Write it dwn.
D. Study every day.
E. It’s imprtant t find the right way.
F. It’s t difficult fr us.
G. Read, listen and watch.
卷二（60 分）
七、阅读表达 阅读短文，完成后面的任务。（20 分）
A
Wuld yu like t help peple in need? On March 31, 2022, there was an accident (事故) in Guangzhu, Guangdng.
At abut 6:00 pm, a bus left the bus stp. Just at that time, an electric (电动的) bicycle ran int the back f the bus. Unluckily, ne f the biker's hands went under a left wheel (车轮) f it.
A lt f peple saw the accident. They quickly came arund the bus t mve it. As time went by, mre and mre peple jined them. They tried their best t help the man. “Peple kept cming t help. It was all abut saving the persn first,” a man said. The bus was ver 10,000 kg. But thanks t the helpers, the biker gt free very sn. Peple tk him t the hspital quickly.
Later, smene put a vide (视频) f peple wrking tgether t help the electric bike rider n the Internet. Lts f peple acrss the cuntry watched it and they felt happy. They shwed thanks t thse peple. They said, “Many hands make light wrk, as the ld saying ges.”
Frm: http:
1. 回答问题。When and where was the accident?（2 分）
2. 将文中第二段中划线句子译成汉语。（2 分）
3. 从文中找出与“They went t the bus and tried t mve it.”意思相近的句子。（2 分）
4. 根据上下文，写出第三段中划线代词 him 所指代的内容。（2 分）
5. 回答问题。What d yu want t say t thse peple in the vide (视频)?（2 分）
B
Wh is Kimeila Campbell? She is a yung girl frm Jamaica. She is just 14, but she has already launched (发行) her wn magazine. She and her magazine are ppular nw.
Kimeila named her magazine YNTY. It stands fr (代表) “Yu're Never T Yung”. She gives yung peple gd advice (建议) in the magazine. She hpes it can help them becme mre cnfident (自信的). Als, she wants t help them make their dreams cme true.
At the age f tw, Kimeila started reading. When she was six years ld, she mved t Queens. There were sme changes (改变) in her life, but ne thing didn't change—she still wrked hard and tried t be cnfident. At 13, Campbell decided t d smething special. Then after a year, her magazine came ut.
Kimeila is nly 14 years ld, but she is wise (有智慧的) fr her age. She shws that a persn is never t yung t bring abut change. “I want the children in the cuntryside t knw that n matter where they cme frm r hw ld they are, they can d smething,” she said. “Yu dn't have t grw up befre yu can start making a difference.”
6. 将第一段中划线句子译成汉语。（2 分）
7. 回答问题。What des “YNTY” stand fr?（2 分）
8. 根据短文内容完成句子，每空不超过两个词。（2 分）
Kimeila hpes her magazine can help ①___________ becme mre cnfident. She als wants t help them make their dreams ②__________ .
9. 回答问题。What did Campbell decide t d at the age f 13?（2 分）
10. 根据上下文，写出第四段中划线代词 they 所指代的内容。（2 分）
八、综合运用 （25 分）
A. 从方框内选择恰当的单词并用其适当形式填空。每词限用一次。（10 分）
1. The trip t the farm was great! We _____________ the hrses and cws there.
2. My aunt always _____________ us t have dinner tgether n her birthday.
3. Mr. Li _____________ t a new neighbrhd tw mnths ag.
4. —Wh _____________ the cup?
—Srry, I dn’t knw.
5. —Gina isn’t at hme. Where’s she?
—She _____________ by the lake.
B. 根据句意和汉语提示写出单词。（5 分）
1. Kate _____________ (几乎不) eats junk fd.
2. Our teaching building is _____________ (类似的) t yurs.
3. Eric takes the guitar lessns _____________ (两次) a week.
4. Jhn has curly hair and he wears _____________ (眼镜).
5. T keep healthy, we need _____________ (足够的) vegetables and fruit.
C. 阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。（10 分）
Dear Linda,
Hw was yur May Day hliday? I had an enjyable hliday. As yu knw, we had five days ff this year, s 1. ________ (g) n a trip was my family's chice (选择). I was excited frm the 2. ________ (ne) day. My family went t Xi'an. It is nt far 3. ________ my city. And we spent abut three hurs 4. ________ the rad. The trip went 5. ________ (gd) except (除……外) a small accident—I lst my ID card! 6. ________ (Lucky), smene fund it and called the plice. A tall pliceman 7. ________ (take) it t ur htel.
The next day, we went t Shaanxi Histry Museum first. My father bked (预定) 8. ________ (ticket) n the Internet and we gt there early. There 9. ________ (be) several peple waiting utside. Because f COVID-19, many peple 10. ________ (stay) at hme s the museum was nt s crwded as befre. And it was nt difficult t find smewhere t park ur car. We didn't need t wait all the time during the hliday. It was really great!
Yurs,
Sun Ying
九、书面表达 （15 分）
请以“My best friend and I”为题，写一篇短文介绍你和你的好朋友。内容包括你们之间的异同，可以从外貌、性格、爱好及学习等方面进行对比，并简要谈谈你对交友的看法。
要求：1. 要点齐全，可适当发挥；
2. 词数 70 左右。
My best friend and I
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________
2022—2023学年度第一学期期末质量检测
初二英语参考答案及评分标准
1-------5 ACBAC6-----10 ABCAB11----15 CAEBD
16----20 ABBAC21-----25CABCD26----30 CBDBA
31----35ACBDC36----40 DABDB41----45 BADCB
46----50 BCADC51----55 EDGAC
(41-50小题，每小题1.5分；其余每小题1分)
七、A. 1. On March 31, 2022, in Guangzhu, Guangdng.
2. 下午6点左右，一辆公交车驶离车站。
3. They quickly came arund the bus t mve it.
4. the biker / the electric bike rider
5. Many hands make light wrk, as the ld saying ges. / ...
说明：第5小题可以抄本句，也可写原创句，理解文本且表意正确即可得分。
B. 6. 她和她（创办）的杂志很受欢迎。
7. Yu're Never T Yung
8. yung peple；cme true
9. She decided t d smething special.
10. the children in the cuntryside
(评分说明：1-10每小题2分)
八、A. 1. fed 2. invites 3. mved 4. brke 5. is camping
（每小题1分，只选对单词可得0.5分）
B. 1. hardly 2. similar 3. twice 4. glasses 5. enugh
（每小题1分，允许使用无拼写和语法错误的同义词）
C.1. ging 2. first 3. frm 4. n 5. well
6. Luckily 7. tk 8. tickets 9. were 10. stayed
（每小题1分）
九、（15分）
附：中考英语书面表达评分原则供参考：
1．本题满分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡
量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3．词数少于70或多于120的，从总分中减去1分。
4．评分时，应注意：内容要点全面，词汇和语法应用正确，字数符合要求，语篇上下文
的连贯性好。短文与所给信息应融为一体。
5．拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
书面表达评分时分为五个等级：
1.（13-15分）要点齐全，语句通顺完整，语法、拼写无误，书写工整。
2．（10-12分）能写出大部分要点，语句较通顺完整，有个别语法、拼写错误，但不影
响句意理解，书写工整。
3．（7-9分）能写出部分要点，语句基本通顺完整，有少量语法、拼写错误，但尚能达
意，书写较工整。
4．（4-6分）能写出个别要点，语句不够通顺完整，语法、拼写错误较多，只有个别句
子可读，书写不够工整。
5．（0-3分）未能写出基本要点，语法、拼写错误多，不知所云，书写潦草。 It was my 15th birthday last Saturday. Sme f my friends and Alan, my cusin came t celebrate it. Everyne brught me a gift. We had a party. We played games, sang sngs and had a big birthday cake. It was really a wnderful day!
My class were n a schl field trip last weekend. First, we went t the University f Nrth Carlina t learn abut the histry f its basketball team. Many basketball stars were students there! Then we visited a museum. We learned abut hw the plane was invented and tk many pictures there.
I was lucky enugh t g t a cnference (会议) n charity (慈善) last weekend. I was s excited t meet a lt f kind peple there. One f them was a by named Richard. He spke at the cnference abut the charity wrk that he had dne in the past few years.
It was a different week than usual. Last Thursday, my schl band (乐队) went t Atlanta t perfrm in a cmpetitin (比赛). I played the vilin and wn a prize! On Sunday, we went t the Gergia Aquarium and gt t see different kinds f sea life frm all ver the wrld. It was really cl!
mve, camp, feed, break, invite
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