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    2022年山东省东营市东营区中考一模英语试题(word版,无答案)

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    2022年山东省东营市东营区中考一模英语试题(word版,无答案)

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    这是一份2022年山东省东营市东营区中考一模英语试题(word版,无答案),共11页。试卷主要包含了 本试题分第I卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分, 听力填表题为第Ⅱ卷的第四大题, A等内容,欢迎下载使用。


    (总分120分 考试时间120分钟)
    注意事项:
    1. 本试题分第I卷和第Ⅱ卷两部分。第I卷为选择题,65分;第Ⅱ卷为非选择题,55分;共120分。
    2. 答题前请务必将姓名、准考证号和座号填写在试卷和答题卡相应位置上,考试结束后,试卷和答题卡一并收回。
    3. 答题前请务必认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项,试题答案必须填涂或填写在答题卡上相应位置。
    4. 听力填表题为第Ⅱ卷的第四大题。
    第I卷(选择题,共65分)
    一、听力选择(共15小题,计15分;每小题约有8秒钟的答题时间)
    (一)录音中有五个句子,每个句子听两遍,然后从每小题A、B、C中选出能对每个句子做出适当反应的答语。
    1. A. Me,t. B. OK See yu then. C. I'd like t.
    2. A. Cl! B. Sure! C. Why?
    3. A. Gd luck! B. Gd jb! C. Gd idea!
    4. A. It was OK B. A large bwl. C. Yes, please.
    5. A. Have a gd time! B. Wnderful. C. I think s.
    (二)录音中有五组对话,听对话两遍后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。
    6. What des the by want t brrw?
    A. A pencil. B. A ruler. C. A knife.
    7. Hw's the weather?
    A. It's snwy. B. It's cludy. C. It's sunny.
    8. Where is the man frm?
    A. Beijing. B. Shanghai. C. Dngying.
    9. What is Rse ging t d this afternn?
    A. She's ging t write an article. B. She's ging t g fishing. C. She's ging t d husewrk.
    10. Hw des Linda g t schl?
    A. By bike. B. By car. C. By bus.
    (三)录音中有一段对话,听对话两递后,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。(录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间)
    11. What has the wman lst?
    A. A small blue bag. B. A big white bag. C. A big black bag.
    12. Where is the wman's name written?
    A. On the tp f the bag. B. On ne side f the bag. C. On bth sides f the bag
    13. What's the wman's name?
    A. Elsa Hill. B. Lisa Hall. C. Elsa Hall.
    14. What's in the bag?
    A. A watch, a bk and sme papers.
    B. A watch, several bks and sme papers.
    C. A present, a histry bk and sme papers.
    15. What's the wman's phne number?
    A. 7168-3705. B. 7163-8605. C. 7168-3605.
    (注意:请同学们翻到第Ⅱ卷第四大题,继续做听力填表题。)
    二、单项选择(共10小题,计10分)
    从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
    16. China is making ____________t help mre develping cuntries fight against COVID-19.
    A. a decisin B. a mess C. an effrt D. a mistake
    17. —I can't believe it. Tny has invented a tree- planting machine.
    —Really? He is s____________.
    A. shy B. rude C. creative D. friendly
    18. On Nvember 7th, Zhai Zhigang and Wang Yaping finished their extravehicular activities(出舱活动)____________. Wang Yaping has becme China's first female(女性)astrnaut t walk in uter space.
    A. prbably B. actually C. successfully D. especially
    19. —Because f the Duble Reductin Plicy(双减政策), students g hme____________ they finish their hmewrk at schl.
    —Sure. As a parent, I dn't feel s tired as befre.
    A. befre B. while C. since D. after
    20. —It's nt a gd idea t g abrad n vacatin nw.
    —Yes. We'd better wait____________ the COVID-1 is ver acrss the wrld.
    A. if B. but C. until D. unless
    21. —Sme Chinese gvernment fficers have turned int live streamers(网络主播)。
    —Yes. They are trying their best t help lcal farmers t ____________the prduct sales.
    A. imprve B. cmpare C. affrd D. describe
    22. Jack is dishnest. He always____________ sme excuses(借口)fr ding smething wrng.
    A. makes up B. sets up C. takes up D. cut up
    23. —Hey, Amy, have yu heard that the Chinese wmen's ftball team wn the Asian Cup?
    —Really? ____________exciting news!
    A. What an B. Hw C. What D. What a
    24. —Dn't be angry with yur kid when he makes a mistake again, will yu?
    —N, I wn't. I knw that ____________f us is perfect after all.
    A. nne B. neither C. each D. all
    25. It is very____________ fr passengers t use e-tickets when they are taking high-speed trains.
    A. peaceful B. basic C. cnvenient D. natural
    三、阅读理解(共20小题,计40分)
    阅读下列短文,然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
    A
    Sharing Wall
    26. Yu can mst prbably see the sharing wall ___________.
    A. in the reading club B. at hme C. in a cffee shp D. in a tree
    27. Wh thinks a tree is a gd place t read bks?
    A. Anna B. Linda C. David D. Peter
    28. Linda likes reading in a cffee shp because she can ___________.
    A. listen t the singing f birds B. enjy the sunshine r the sund f rain
    C. talk abut gd bks after reading them D. lie n the sfa r sit n the flr
    29. Which f the fllwing is NOT mentined?
    A. Peter thinks he can learn mre by sharing a gd bk.
    B. Anna enjys reading at hme.
    C. David thinks a library is the best place t read bks.
    D. Hme is the warmest place in the wrld.
    30. The passage is mainly abut___________.
    A. where t brrw bks B. hw t share bks
    C. hw t make friends D. where t read bks
    B
    Five years ag, my mther gave birth t a brther fr me when I was 8. I have learned a lt frm getting alng with him.
    After he was brn, I almst became a babysitter(保姆). I had t amuse him after schl. I wuld make faces and sing t him when he was crying. Smetimes I even carried him everywhere in ur yard t make him happy while my parents were busy. What I liked t d best was t feed him when lking after him. Hw cute he was as he tasted his favrite fd! My parents ften praised me happily. "As an elder brther. yu've dne a gd jb in lking after yur yunger brther."
    I have gt happiness frm sharing. When I was yung, I was the nly child in my family. I culd get what I wanted frm my parents and get my parents' whle lve. I was a "Little Emperr”.
    But nw, as lng as I get smething gd, I will share it with him. I remembered the year when he was three, he was interested in Rubik's cubes(魔方). I bught ne fr him with my lucky mney as a birthday present. When he gt the ty, he was s happy that he laughed, hugged me and said, “Brther, I lve yu!"
    Thanks fr spending these years tgether with my family. It has taught me what respnsibility means, what unselfishness(无私)means and what friendship means. Nt nly shuld I lk after myself, but als I shuld pay attentin t my family and my friends.
    31. The underlined wrd “amuse” in the secnd paragraph means___________.
    A. 开他玩笑 B. 令他开心 C. 令他生气 D. 令他讨厌
    32. When lking after his yunger brther,the writer did the fllwing EXCEPT___________.
    A. carrying him t the yard B. making faces and singing t him
    C. feeding him D. telling stries t him
    33. Hw ld was the writer when he bught the birthday present fr his yunger brther?
    A. 3. B. 8. C. 11. D. 13.
    34. Befre his yunger brther was brn, the writer___________.
    A. was a babysitter in his family B. was a "Little Emperr" in his family
    C. cked fr his family D. bught a Rubik's cube fr himself
    35. If yu have a brther r a sister in yur family, yu might learn t be___________ frm the passage.
    A. respnsible B. selfish C. lnely D. puzzled
    C
    Isn't fast fd delicius? Aren't fast fd restaurants cl? answer t these questins is yes. Hwever, fast fd is ne f the wrst parts f mdern life. And studies have shwn that burgers and fried chicken, which we enjy s much, can cause a lt f health prblems.
    In spite f(尽管)this, why are fast fd restaurants s attractive(吸引人的)? The first and mst imprtant reasn is that their service is fast. Their staff(员工)are friendly and very smart-lking in their clean and bright unifrm. What's mre, mst fast fd restaurants are near places that peple always pass by. It is s easy t grab a burger and eat n the way t wrk.
    Fast fd is ften s cnveniently packed that it will nt cause a mess even if yu stand and eat it. Fast fd restaurants are als very clean. A lt f clever ads(广告)have made them the clest places in twn, but nne f them has ever tld and will never tell yu that t much fast fd is nt gd fr yur health.
    Such attractive places are selling junk fd! Isn't it a pity? Is there a way t change the fast fd restaurants int special places where yu get the best pssible, healthy and fresh fd?
    Well, why nt?
    As peple realize the health prblems that fast fd causes, it seems that fast fd restaurants may g ut f date. It may happen sner r later.
    Therefre, instead f resisting(抵制)fast fd restaurants, a better idea may be t persuade(说服)them t change their menu! Fast fd restaurants can be places t g t when yu want t eat smething that will be gd fr yur bdy. If they culd cmbine(结合)healthy fd with their speed f service, delicius tastes and cmfrtable feelings, that will be the next best thing n the earth fr the human beings!
    36. What des “this” in Paragraph 2 refer t?
    A. Fast fd is delicius. B. Fast fd restaurants are cl.
    C. Peple enjy fast fd. D. Fast fd can cause health prblems.
    37. Fast fd has many advantages EXCEPT that it's___________.
    A. delicius B. fast C. healthy D. cnvenient
    38. Which wrd can replace(替换)the wrd “grab” in Paragraph 2?
    A. mve suddenly B. get quickly C. thrw quickly D. carry carefully
    39. Accrding t the passage,ads abut fast fd___________.
    A. shw yu all the facts B. dn't tell yu the whle truth
    C. make it hard t buy fast fd D. make fast fd restaurants ut f date
    40. The writer suggests___________.
    A. making the service f fast fd faster B. resisting fast fd restaurants
    C. changing tastes f fast fd D. making fast fd gd fr health
    D
    Walking
    If yu want t get healthy r stay healthy, there is ne easy activity fr yu—walking. Yu may think that simply taking a walk is nt enugh t make a big difference. Yu may think that yu need t d smething like running t stay healthy. Well, a new study says that is nt true. It finds ut that walking may be as gd fr us as running.
    Running is a high-impact(高强度的)activity and can be hard n the bdy. S, many peple cannt run. Walking seems t have all f the advantages and nne f the disadvantages f running.
    Dr. Russell Pate is a prfessr f exercise science at the Arnld Schl f Public Health at the University f Suth Carlina. He says, "Walking is ne f the easiest and safest exercises a persn can d. Yu d nt need t learn a lt t get results."
    Walking needs n special skills r equipment. Yu can d it anywhere. It fits easily int yur daily schedule(日程表). Yu can walk at wrk. Yu can walk if yu want t g shpping. Yu can take the stairs(楼梯)instead f the lift.
    Walking is a great exercise fr beginners. If yu are ut f shape r getting back int shape after an illness r accident, walking is perfect. Yu can d a little at a time, r as we like t say, take baby steps.
    41. The new study shws that___________.
    A. running is better than walking B. walking is the best way f exercising
    C. walking and running are nt gd enugh D. walking is as gd as running
    42. Dr. Russell Pate says walking is ne f the easiest and safest exercises because___________.
    A. walking is a high-impact activity and can be easy n the bdy
    B. walking needs n skills
    C. walking needs n special skills r equipment, and we can d it anywhere
    D. walking has mre advantages than running
    43. What des the underlined wrd “equipment" in Paragraph 4 mean in Chinese?
    A. 器材 B. 食宿 C. 机会 D. 阶段
    44. Which ne is TRUE accrding t this passage?
    A. Walking is nt gd fr a beginner.
    B. Walking seems t have all f the advantages f running.
    C. Yu'd better drive when yu want t g shpping.
    D. Walking des harm t all peple after an illness r accident.
    45. What is the writer's purpse f writing this passage?
    A. T tell peple that they shuldn't walk mre.
    B. T tell peple that walking is a waste f time.
    C. T tell peple that they shuld walk mre.
    D. T tell peple that they dn't need t run any mre.
    第Ⅱ卷(非选择题,共55分)
    四、听力填表(共5小题,计5分)
    录音中有一段短文,听短文两遍后,根据所听内容完成下面的表格(每空不多于三个词)。(录音播放前你有30秒钟的读题时间)
    五、动词填空(共10空,计10分)
    阅读下面短文,用括号内所给动词的适当形式填空(必要时可加情态动词或助动词)。
    An ld man went t live with his sn, daughter-in-law(儿媳), and a fur-year-ld grandsn. The ld man was s ld that he brke several bwls while he(51)__________(eat). The daughter-in-law became angry with him, “Listen! Ⅰ(52)__________(nt want)t see that again!" S, after a sht discussin, they served his fd in a wden bwl. What's mre, they even put a small table in the cmer. There, grandfather ate alne while the thers f the family were enjying dinner table.
    Smetimes the fur-year-ld grandsn saw his grandfather having tears in his eyes as he ate alne. The little by felt very srry, "Grandpa(53)__________(be)alne fr nearly a week. I(54)__________(d)smething t help him."
    One evening befre supper, the father nticed his sn(55)__________(play)with sme pieces f wd n the flr. He asked the child sweetly, "What are yu ding?" Just as sweetly, the by answered, "Oh, I(56)__________(make)small bwls fr yu and mum. Yu ask my grandfather t have meals with a wden bwl alne. When yu
    tw are ld enugh, I(57)__________(give)them t yu as gifts." The fur-year-ld sn(58)__________(smile)and went back t wrk.
    The wrds made them(59)__________(feel)ashamed. Thugh n wrd(60)__________(speak), they knew that smething must be dne. That evening the husband tk grandfather's hand and gently led him back t the family table.
    六、综合填空(共10空,计10分)
    阅读短文,根据短文内容及首字母提示,在空白处填入一个适当的单词。
    Lng lng ag, there was a mnster(怪物), and it was called Nian. It was big and pwerful. It als(61)l__________ like a lin with a hrn(角)n its head
    Every Chinese New Year's Eve, Nian wuld d harm t a village by the sea. It wuld eat its crps(庄稼), animals, and even peple. Everyne lived in fear f Nian, (62)b__________ they didn't knw hw t stp Nian.
    A stranger came t the(63)v__________ ne year. The stranger was lking fr fd. A kind ld wman saw him and ffered him(64)s__________ t eat. Then, she tld him abut Nian.
    The stranger said, "Let me stay in yur huse this evening. I prmise t help yu keep(65)a__________ frm the mnster frever." The ld wman agreed and left. After that, the stranger gt dwn t wrk.
    Sn, night came, and Nian shwed up. It was ging t enter the wman's(66)h__________. Hwever, it saw three red banners(横幅)arund the dr and suddenly stpped.
    All f a sudden, there were(67)l__________ nises everywhere, and there were als lts f tiny fires in the air. Then, the stranger(68)a__________. He was in all red, and he was lighting mre firecrackers(鞭炮).
    That scared Nian, and it ran away. When the villagers returned, they saw that the(69)s__________ wasn't hurt. They asked him t share his secret, and he did.
    The villagers cpied the stranger's actins year after year, and Nian(70)n__________ returned. Tday, peple celebrate Chinese New Year the same way.
    七、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分)
    阅读短文,根据要求完成下面各小题。
    In Australia, primary schl students have much free time. Every day, they begin their lessns at abut 9:00 in the mrning and finish them at 3:00 in the afternn. And Australian pupils have less hmewrk than Chinese students. Usually they nly get their hmewrk n a piece f paper frm the teacher nce a week.
    Having finished their hmewrk at hme, sme children watch TV, sme play games and sme children practice playing sme instruments fr a while. Smetimes children help set the table r d ther husewrk;smetimes they just feed and play with their pets. (73)If an Australian child lves reading, he can spend sme time reading what he likes.
    When weekends cme, what d Australian children d? They are nt busy ding their hmewrk. What they d is helping clean the huse, watching a vide, r ging ut fr a picnic with their friends r families.
    (74)Australian children usually have fur hlidays each year. The first ne, als the lngest ne is the summer vacatin, which lasts abut 6 weeks frm December t January. They have the secnd hliday frm April t May fr abut tw weeks. Australian winter vacatin lasts frm late June t early July fr abut tw weeks. And they can have a furth hliday in September, which lasts tw weeks, t. During the fur hlidays, parents prepare smething funny fr their children t d.
    A. 根据短文内容简要回答问题。
    71. What d Australian children d when weekends cme?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    72. What hlidays d Australian children have?
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    B. 将短文中划线的句子译成汉语。
    73. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    74. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    C. 请给短文拟一个适当的英文标题。
    75. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    八、书面表达(共1题,计20分)
    同学们,在你的学习和生活中,一定经历过对你来说很特殊的日子,请以“A special day”为题,用英语记录下这个特殊的一天。
    1、要点:
    (1)对你来说哪一天是个特殊的日子;
    (2)这一天发生了什么事;
    (3)你的感受和对你的影响。
    2、要求:
    (1)认真审题,把握要点;
    (2)行文连贯,条理清晰;不得出现真实的人名、校名、地名等相关信息;
    (3)词数100左右。题目已给出,不计入总词数。
    A special day
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________
    Dear readers,
    Where d yu usually read bks? Please share yur ideas. Thank yu!
    In a tree. Perhaps it seems a little strange. But fr me, it's really a gd place. Yu can listen t the singing f birds and the green leaves arund make yu peaceful.
    David
    At hme. East r west, hme is the best. Hme is the warmest place in the wrld. Yu can lie n the sfa r just sit n the flr. Quietly, yu can enjy reading bks like talking with gd friends.
    Anna
    In the reading club. After reading a gd bk, maybe yu can't wait t share it with yur friends. It's really amazing t talk abut a gd bk. Everyne has his wn ideas abut the bk. Yu can learn mre by sharing a bk.
    Peter
    In a cffee shp. The taste f cffee smells s nice! On sunny days, yu can enjy the sunshine thrugh the windw. On rainy days, yu can listen t the sund f rain. Als, yu can watch different peple pass by. They may walk int yur bk and becme part f it.
    Linda
    Main idea
    Schl(46)___________.
    Purpse
    Fr students t(47)___________themselves.
    Sme rules
    First, try nt t get hurt while(48)___________.
    Secnd, dn't crwd tgether when ging up and dwn
    Third, be(49)___________and dn't argue r fight
    Wh
    It's imprtant fr(50)___________t remember the safety rules.

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