辽宁省大连市庄河市2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末学业质量监测英语试题

这是一份辽宁省大连市庄河市2022-2023学年八年级上学期期末学业质量监测英语试题，共10页。

本卷听力部分共五大题；笔试部分共七大题，共计84小题，满分120分
第一部分听力 （20分）
Ⅰ.听对话，选图。（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分 ）
听下面四段对话，选择正确的图片，听完每段对话后，你有3秒钟时间作答，每段对话读一遍。
1. What des the by like best?
A. B. C.
2. What time did Alan get t schl tday?
A. B. C.
3. What animals are the speakers watching?
A. B. C.
4. What are the men ding?
A. B. C.
Ⅱ.短对话理解。（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
听下面四段对话，选择正确答案，听完每段对话后，你有5秒钟时间作答和阅读下一题。每段对话读两遍。
5. Where are they talking?
A. In a shpB. In a libraryC. In a hspital
6. Why is the girl in a hurry?
A. She is almst late fr schl
B. There is much traffic.
C. It’ s dangerus here.
7. What was wrng with the girl’ s mther?
A. She was sad.B. She was hurt.C. She was ill.
8. What was the by ding at that time?
A. He was ging shpping.
B. He was ging int the shp.
C. He was standing utside.
Ⅲ.长对话理解（本题共4题，每小题1分，满分4）
听下面一段对话，选择最佳答案，听完对话后你有15秒钟时间作答。本段对话读两遍。
9. When did Betty’s family g shpping in the city center?
A. Last mnthB. Last weekC. Last night
10. Hw did they g there?
A. By air.B. By bus.C. By car.
11. Were there many peple n the way t the city center?
A. Yes, there were.B. N, there weren’t.C. I dn’t knw.
12. What is the ppulatin f Beijing?
A. Abut 11 millin.B. Abut 36 millin.C. Abut 20 millin.
IV.短文理解（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
听下面一段短文，选择正确答案，听完短文后你有15秒钟时间作答。本段短文读两遍。
13. What did Lingling’s teacher give her last year?
A. Sme bks.B. Sme magazines.C. Sme advice.
14. Yu shuld check yur spelling ______________ if yu want t learn English well.
A. with a bkB. with a classmateC. with a dictinary
15. Hw ften shuld yu check yur vcabulary bk and read English bks?
A. Every week.B. Every day.C. Every hur.
16. Accrding t Lingling, what else is gd fr yu t learn English?
A. Listening t English sngs.
B. Watching English mvies.
C. Listening t peple talk in English.
V.听独白判断正误（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
听下面一段独白，判断下面的句子是否符合短文内容，符合的写“T”，不符合的写“F”，听完独白后，你有30秒钟时间作答。本段独白读两遍。
17. Xia Li is the speaker’s best friend.
18. Xia Li has lng hair, tw big eyes and a big muth.
19. Her favurite fd is fish and vegetables.
20. She ften plays cmputer games r ges shpping n the weekends with the speaker
第二部分 笔试（100分）
第Ⅰ卷选择题（共51分）
Ⅰ.单项填空（本题共12小题；每小题1分，满分12分）
从各题所给的选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.划线字母“”发音不同于其他三个的是_________
A. cverB. prblemC. fllwD. slve
22.下列单词中，重读在第二个音节的单词是_________
A. suddenlyB. especiallyC. bring D. pity
23.下列句子读升调的是_________
A. Hw lng did yu stay in La She Teahuse?
B. He lives the farthest frm schl.
C. Nthing is mre enjyable than playing tennis.
D. Can yu knw a lt abut the wrld thrugh reading?
24. Zhuanghe is _________ beautiful city in the nrth f Dalian.
A. aB. theC. anD.\
25. With the “duble reductin”（双减）, students have much _________time t d after-schl activities than befre.
A. manyB. muchC. mreD. mst
26.—Dad, there _________ a ftball game n TV this evening.
—Really? Let’ s watch it tgether.
A. will haveB. is ging t haveC. haveD. will be
27. Can yu give us sme _________ n hw t imprve English writing?
A. chancesB. adviceC. chicesD. infrmatin
28.—D yu plan t buy a new car this year, Mr. Chen?
—N_________ my car is ld, it wrks very well.
A. BecauseB. AlthughC. IfD. Befre
29. I want t see the Beijing Opera, s Lingling ffered _________ me t watch an pera.
A. tkB. takesC. t takeD. taking
30. At the bus stp, yu _________ push yur way nt the bus.
A. can’tB. canC. mustn’tD. must
31.—Laura, hw ften d yu visit yur grandparents?
—Hmm_________.
A. fr an hurB. tw days agC. twice a mnthD. in tw days
32. —I am ging t Hangzhu fr my hliday.
—_________!
A. My pleasureB. Have a gd tripC. All rightD. Thank yu
Ⅱ.完形填空（本题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
阅读下面短文，理解其大意，然后从各题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I was travelling by train ne mrning. Quietly reading, I fund myself suddenly listening t the annuncements （广播 ）. When the trainman makes an annuncement, it is ften quite bring. But this ne was（33）______.
As I lked up frm my paper, I nticed thers als（34）______. Nt nly that, they smiled! Why did peple pay s much attentin t this annuncement?
Here is what the trainman said, “Gd mrning, ladies, gentlemen and children. It’s 7: 35 am and yu’ll be（35）______ t knw that we are right n time. What a lvely mrning it is in Dalian tday! The sun is shining, the temperature is abut 21 degrees, birds are singing, and all’s right with the wrld. Thanks fr taking my train and I hpe t see yu again. Have a great day!”
Ww! D yu ften hear an annuncement like that? I（36）______dn’t. As well as getting everyne smiling, quite a few peple started talking t each ther abut hw gd the message made（37）______feel.
The mment I（38）______the train, I ran int the yung trainman t thank him. He seemed a bit（39）______ at first. I said, “Well, I just wanted t thank yu fr yur lvely message n the way and it gt everyne’s attentin and made them smile. Thank yu s much fr giving us a gd start t the day.” “Oh, I just want everyne t have a gd time n my train.”
Frm this（40）______, I learn that even the simplest thing can make a difference（起作用）.
（ ）33. A. famusB. differentC. difficultD. serius
（ ）34. A. readingB. thinkingC. listeningD. sleeping
（ ）35. A. happyB. bredC. interestedD. angry
（ ）36. A. certainlyB. hardlyC. prbablyD. suddenly
（ ）37. A. nbdyB. everybdyC. smebdyD. anybdy
（ ）38. A. gt ffB. turned ffC. thught fD. fell ff
（ ）39. A. relaxedB. enjyableC. surprisedD. wrried
（ ）40. A. stryB. wayC. experienceD. talk
Ⅲ.阅读理解（一）（本题共13小题，每小题2分，共26分）
A.阅读下列短文，从所给的四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
Passage 1
Yu are travelling in England and tday yu arrive at a small family htel. When yu arrive, yu read this.
41. Where is Sunshine Htel?
A. In England.B. In America.C. In Australia.D. In Russia
42. The sign tells the fllwing infrmatin abut the htel EXCEPT（除……以外）______.
A. addressB. the telephne numberC. the priceD. the rules
43. If Mr. Smith wants t visit yu, she can’ t cme ______.
A. befre 20:00B. after 22:00C. at 8:00 amD. after 14:00
44. Why d yu need the red key?
A. Because it is the key fr yur rm.
B. Because yu can’t get int the htel withut it when yu cme back late.
C. Because the address is n the key.
D. Because the dr man wn’t let yu in unless（除非）yu have the red key.
Passage 2
A farmer had a big farm. He was t busy t take care f it, s he wanted t find a persn t help him. He put a help-wanted advertisement（广告）in the lcal newspaper. A yung man read the advertisement and visited the farmer. He tld the farmer that he wanted t have the jb.
When the farmer asked what he culd d, he said, “I can sleep sundly（酣畅的）when the strm cmes.”
The farmer didn’t understand what he said, but he liked the yung man. He hired（雇用）the yung man at last.
A few days later, a terrible strm came during the middle f the night. The farmer ran t the farm quickly t see if everything was ging well. He fund that the drs and windws were clsed. The farm tls were put int the tlbx. The tractr（拖拉机）was in the garage（车库）. Everything was ging well. At last, he saw the yung man sleeping sundly.
Then the farmer understd the meaning f the yung man’ s wrds. The yung man did his jb well when the sky was clear and he prepared fr the strm befre it came. S, when the strm came, he culd sleep well.
45. Why did the farmer want t find a persn t help him?
A. Because he was s busy that he culdn’t lk after it.
B. Because he was very rich.
C. Because he didn’t want t wrk hard.
D. Because his wife asked him t d s.
46. Hw did the yung man find the jb?
A. By reading the lcal newspaper.B. By walking arund the farm.
C. By asking his friend fr help.D. By reading the advertisements n the wall.
47. Wh did a gd jb befre the strm?
A. The farmer.B. The yung man
C. The farmer’ s wifeD. The yung man’ s father
48. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. We shuld learn t take care f the farm.
B. We shuld sleep well when strms cme.
C. We shuld sleep at hme when strms cme.
D. We shuld prepare everything well t deal with truble successfully.
Passage 3
If yu g int the frest with friends, stay with them. If yu dn’t, yu may get lst. If yu get lst, this is what yu shuld d. Sit dwn and stay where yu are. Dn’t try t find yur friends. Let them find yu. If yu stay in ne place, yur friends can find yu easily. There is anther way t help yur friends r ther peple t find yu. Yu can shut r whistle （吹口哨 ）three times. Stp. Then shut r whistle three times again. Giving any signal（信号） three times is a call fr help.
Keep n shuting r whistling. Always three times tgether. When peple hear yu, they will give yu tw shuts r tw whistles. Giving a signal twice is an answer t call fr help.
When yu need sme water, yu have t lk fr it. Dn’t just walk away, pick ff small branches（树枝）and drp them as yu walk. They can help yu find yur way back easily.
When yu are lst, the mst imprtant thing t d is t stay in ne place.
49. If yu get lst in the frest, yu shuld ______.
A. try t find yur friendsB. stay in ne place and give signals
C. walk arund the frestD. shut as ludly as pssible
50. Which signal is, a call fr help?
A. Shuting here and there.B. Crying twice.
C. Shuting r whistling three times tgether.D. Whistling everywhere in the frest.
51. What d yu have t d when yu leave fr water?
A. Drp branches as yu walk.B. Pick ff branches t build anther huse.
C. Use branches t make a bed.D. Use branches t lk fr water.
52. If smebdy hear yur signals, he will ______.
A. give yu tw shuts r tw whistlesB. shut back
C. give yu three shuts r three whistlesD. wait fr yu
53. The main idea f the passage is ______.
A. hw t travel in the frest
B. hw t spend the night in the frest
C. what yu shuld d if yu want t get sme water
D. what yu shuld d if yu are lst in the frest
IV.情景交际（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
根据对话内容，从所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，使对话内容整。有两项为多余选项。
A: Hi, Jim. Yu lk wrried.54. ______
B: An earthquake happened in my hme twn. I’m wrrying abut my grandparents.
A: 55. ______Was it serius?
B: N, my grandparents are OK, but their huse fell dwn.
A: What abut ther peple there?
B: Many peple lst their huses and they had n places t live.
Let’s d smething t help them.
A: 56. ______
B: Let’s raise sme mney fr them.
A: 57. ______We are still students and we dn’t have mney.
B: Hw abut selling newspapers after schl?
A: Gd idea.58. ______
B: Nt t much. We can search fr smething abut it n the Internet.
A: OK, let’s begin.
第Ⅱ卷 非选择题（共49分）
V.词语运用
A.用括号中所给词的适当形式完成下列句子。（本题共6小题，每小题1分，共6分）
59. The by was sad because his bike was ______（break）.
60. Peple in ______（west） cuntries dn’t use chpsticks t eat.
61. Travelling by plane is the fastest and it’s als the ______（expensive）.
62. Dn’ t wrry. It’s ______（nature）fr us t frget new wrds.
63. The exciting stry happened n a ______（snw）mrning.
64. We must d smething t stp the ______（pllute）f the city.
B.用方框内所给词或短语的适当形式完成下面短文。每词或短语限用一次。（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
Peple frm different 65.______f the wrld lve t eat pizza. Pizza is a kind f 66.______fd in Italy, and in different cuntries there are different kinds f pizza nw. In Brazil, yu can have chclate pizza. In Germany, peple may put an egg n tp f it. Peple in India enjy tfu n 67.______pizza. Street cks in Italy 68. ______selling the pizza in the 1800s. Peple liked them 69.______ the y were delicius and easy t carry.
In 1889, the Ryal Palace f Capdimnte asked a 70.______t make pizza. At last, he made three different kinds f pizza and put each f them n a plate. The queen lved the ne with tmates, because it lked like the Italian at kind f pizza became very ppular. Pizza came t the United States in the late 1800s. Peple mved frm Italy t sme parts f America and 72.______their favrite fd. Peple usually cut it int small 73. ______. S that it wuld be 74.______f r them t eat.
Ⅵ.阅读理解（二）（本题共4小题，每小题2分，共8分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，回答下列问题。
Passage 4
Many years ag, tw friends, Mike and Jim, were walking thrugh the desert（沙漠）. After a while, they began t quarrel（争吵）abut small things. Suddenly, Mike hit Jim in the face. Jim was hurt, but he said nthing. He just wrte in the sand: Tday my best friend hit me in the face.
They went n walking, and at last, they fund a river. S they decided t have a swim. Suddenly, Jim gt stuck in the mire（陷在泥里）. At that mment, Mike saved him. After Jim felt better, he wrte n a stne（石头）:Tday my best friend saved my life.
Mike saw this and asked, “After I hurt yu, yu wrte in the sand. After I saved yu, yu wrte n a stne. Why?”
Jim answered, “When smene hurts us, we shuld write it dwn in sand. S winds f frgiveness（宽恕）can blw（吹）it away. But, when smene des smething gd fr us, we must engrave（铭刻）it in stne, then n wind can ever blw it away.”
75. When did the stry happen?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
76. Did Jim say anything when Mike hit him?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
77. Where did Jim write after Mike saved him?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
78. What can yu learn frm this stry?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
VII.写
A.句子翻译（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
79.为什么不把错误记在我们的笔记本上呢?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
80.当我正在做作业的时候，妈妈正在看书
________________________while I was ding my hmewrk.
81.老舍是二十世纪，最伟大的中国作家之一。
________________________f the twentieth century.
82.不要和你的朋友肩并肩骑车。
____________________________________________________________________________________________
83.到达大连的最好方式是什么?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
B.书面表达（15分）
84.动物是人类的朋友，我们应该和动物和谐相处。令人悲哀的是，由于人类的过度砍伐和猎杀，越来越多的动物濒临灭绝。校保护野生动物社团针对这一问题开展征文活动。请你选取一种濒危动物，说明其现状和濒危的原因并发出保护动物的倡议。
内容提示: 1. What animal is in danger? Why?
2. What can we d t help them?
要求：（1）中心突出，语义连贯，层次清晰，书写规范；
（2）文中不得出现真实的姓名和校名。
（3）词数在70词左右。
____________________________________________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023上学期八年级英语期末试卷答案
第一部分听力（20分）
I. 听对话，选图。（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
1-4. BCAA
Ⅱ.短对话理解。（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
5-8. CACC
Ⅲ.长对话理解（本题共4题，每小题1分，满分4）
9-12. BCAC
IV. 短文理解（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
13-16. ACBA
V.听独白判断正误（本题共4小题，每小题1分，满分4分）
17-20. TFTF
第二部分 笔试（100分）
第 = 1 \* ROMAN I卷 选择题（共51分）
= 2 \* ROMAN I.单项填空（本题共12小题；每小题1分，满分12分）
21-25.ABDAC 26-30.DBBCC 31-32.CB
= 3 \* ROMAN II.完形填空（本题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
33-37.BCAA 38-40.BACC
= 3 \* ROMAN III.阅读理解（一）（本题共13小题，每小题2分，共26分）
Passage 1 41-44.ACBB Passage 2 45-48.AABD
Passage 3 49-53 BCAAD
IV.情景交际（本题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
54-58DCAEG
第= 2 \* ROMANII卷 非选择题（共49分）
= 5 \* ROMAN V.词语运用
A．用括号中所给词的适当形式完成下列句子。（本题共6小题，每小题1分，共6分）
59. brken 60. western 61. mst expensive 62. natural 63. snwy 64. pllutin
B.用方框内所给词或短语的适当形式完成下面短文。每词或短语限用一次。（ 本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
65. areas 66. traditinal 67.their 68.started 69.because 70.ck 71.Then 72.bught 73.pieces 74.easy
VI．阅读理解（二）（本题共4小题，每小题2分，共8分）
Passage 4
75. Many years ag.
76. N（, he didn’t）.
77. On a stne.
78.When smene hurts us, we shuld frgive it./ when smene des smething gd fr us, we must engrave （铭刻） it.（合理即可）
VII.写
A.句子翻译（本题共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
79. Why nt write dwn the mistakes in ur ntebks? /Why dn’t yu write dwn the mistakes in yur ntebks?
80.Mther was reading bks while I was ding my hmewrk.
81. La She is ne f the greatest Chinese writers f the twentieth century.
82.Dn’t ride side by side with yur friends.
83.What is the best way t get t Dalian?
B.书面表达（共15分）
Animals are ur best friends, they are als an imprtant part f nature, we can’t live withut them. Hwever, mst f them are in danger, such as the pandas. The situatin is becming mre and mre difficult.
It’s hard t believe that there are nly abut 1600 pandas left in the wild and abut 340 pandas in zs and research centers Why is the situatin becming s serius? On the ne hand, pandas dn’t have many babies and baby pandas ften die. On the ther hand, pandas eat bamb, but the bamb frests are getting smaller and smaller in these years. S it’s time fr us t take actins t prtect them. Why nt plant mre bamb t make sure they have enugh fd? What’s mre, it’s als a gd idea fr us t give mney t set enugh natural parks t prtect them in peace. Last but nt least, dn’t pllute the water and leaving them mre frests can als help them a lt.
All in all, I believe that if everyne starts t d smething t prtect the animals, we all will live happier.Welcme t Sunshine Htel!
The best htel fr yur hliday
Enjy yur stay!
Tel: 3643-4775
Address:23 Brwn Street, Mntwn center f the city, next t the train statin Rules:
●Check in（入住）: after 14:00; check ut（退房）: befre 13:00
●Please: N pets
Please: N visitrs in htel rms after 22:00
Please: N smking in the rm
●Children are welcme.
●We clse the frnt dr at 23:00. Please dn’t frget yur keys.
The red key is fr the frnt dr. The yellw key is fr yur rm.
●Swimming pl: pen all summer
●Wi-fi:24-hur service in yur rm
A. What can we d t help them?
B. Be brave and calm.
C. Srry t hear that.
D. What’s wrng with yu?
E. But hw can we d that?
F. It’s dangerus t stand under the buildings.
G. By the way, d yu knw what t d during an earthquake?
because traditin area they start
piece easy buy ck then