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    2023-2024学年宁夏银川市唐徕中学高三上学期9月月考英语试题含答案

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    这是一份2023-2024学年宁夏银川市唐徕中学高三上学期9月月考英语试题含答案,文件包含宁夏银川市唐徕中学2023-2024学年高三上学期9月月考英语试题原卷版docx、宁夏银川市唐徕中学2023-2024学年高三上学期9月月考英语试题解析版docx等2份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共45页, 欢迎下载使用。

    高三年级英语试卷
    本试卷共 150 分,考试时间 120 分钟。
    1. 考生务必将自己的姓名、考号用铅笔涂写在答题卡上。
    2. 每小题选出答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其它答案标号。
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
    第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
    听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项, 并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    1. Why des Jeff talk t the wman?
    A. T hand in his hmewrk .
    B. T ask abut his grades.
    C. T ask fr assistance.
    2 What is the man likely t d next?
    A. Eat sme junk fd.
    B. Start a healthy diet.
    C. Buy sme vegetables.
    3. Where are prbably the speakers?
    A. In a bkstre. B. In a canteen. C. In a classrm.
    4. Hw des the man sund?
    A. Anxius. B. Dubtful. C. Excited.
    5. Wh might the wman be?
    A. A dctr. B. An athlete. C. A nurse.
    第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,共 22.5 分)
    听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第 6 段材料,回答第 6 至 7 题。
    6. What d the speakers have in cmmn?
    A. They bth like music.
    B. They bth enjy reading.
    C They bth lve varius sprts.
    7.What sprt des the wman like?
    A Bwling. B. Swimming. C. Skatebarding.
    听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
    8. What is the man dissatisfied with abut the apartment?
    A. Its lcatin. B. Its facilities. C. Its price.
    9. Hw many bedrms are there in the apartment?
    A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
    10. What is the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
    A. Husband and wife.
    B. Huse wner and renter.
    C. Real estate agent and client.
    听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
    11. What des the man think f the restaurant?
    A. It’s quite new. B. It’s pretty ppular. C. It’s just s-s.
    12. What day is it tday?
    A. Tuesday. B. Wednesday. C. Thursday.
    13. Hw did the man decide what t rder?
    A. By referring t thers’ dishes.
    B. By reading the menu carefully.
    C. By fllwing the waiter’s advice.
    听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 16 题。
    14. Wh is prbably the man?
    A. A designer. B. A salespersn. C. The wman’s friend.
    15. What did the wman d yesterday?
    A. She brke tw flr lamps.
    B. She decrated her living rm.
    C. She lked at sme furniture.
    16. What was the riginal price f the black leather suite?
    A. $ 2,000. B. $ 1,000. C. $ 500.
    17. What is the wman ging t d next?
    A. Test the furniture.
    B. Lk at sme ther gds.
    C. Pay fr the suite.
    听第 10 段材料,回答第 18 至 20 题。
    18. Wh can benefit frm side sleeping accrding t Michael J. Breus?
    A. Thse wh have neck prblems.
    B. Thse wh have high bld pressure.
    C. Thse wh have bad circulatin.
    19. What did Chris Winter say abut back sleeping?
    A. It culd transfer pressure pints. B. It might wrsen knee pain.
    C. It culd help relieve shulder pain.
    20. What did Michael J. Breus think culd be a bad result f stmach sleeping?
    A. Muscle pain. B. Indigestin. C. Heartburn.
    第二部分: 阅读理解 (共两节, 满分 40 分)
    第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C 和 D)中,选出最佳选项。
    A
    The mst cmmn frms f live stream marketing
    Online Marketplaces
    Online marketplaces like Taba and Jingdng allw users t buy and sell prducts withut ever leaving their hmes. But the additin f live vide streaming is prving vital t keep buyers interested. Why? By adding live streaming t the platfrm, these marketplaces can deliver the clsest pssible experience t “being there” fr nline buyers. Real-time interactivity ffers the urgency f a real marketplace, urging immediate actin and imprving cmmunity participatin.
    Live Auctins (拍卖)
    Live streaming pens up the auctin items t thse unable t physically attend, reaches participants with varying interests and ensures that each item sells at its prper valuatin. Online auctins are big business, and real-time vide delivery is critical. Whether auctining ff pets r fine art, any delay in a live stream culd prevent bids (出价) frm being recrded prperly. Several millisecnds can translate t billins f dllars.
    Influencer Streaming
    Tday’s celebrities aren’t necessarily n the big screen. An increasing number f stars rise t fame via scial media each day. With a large number f faithful fans, influencers can use their persnal brand and the pwer f live streaming t prmte their favrite prducts in an interactive way. Influencer streaming riginated n scial media, but has nw becme cmmnplace acrss e-business sites as well.
    Live Events
    Newswrthy events, such as prduct launches and limited editin drps, increase the ppularity f live stream marketing. Tday, shppable mbile streaming allws fans t purchase items in real time frm the catwalks (T型走秀台) f Luis Vuittn and Victria’s Secret.
    1. Hw des live vide streaming affect nline marketplaces?
    A. It makes gds mre ppular.
    B. It keeps shp wners interested.
    C. It ffers a real experience f ffline shpping.
    D. It makes nline shpping mre like ffline shpping.
    2. What can we knw abut nline auctins?
    A. They bring cnvenience fr peple physically attending.
    B. They make sure that every item can finally be sld nline.
    C. They make it necessary t have high speed Internet access.
    D. They prvide pprtunities f making great frtune vernight.
    3. Which wrks as the easiest way fr Internet celebrities getting int e-business?
    A. Online Marketplaces.B. Influencer Streaming.
    C. Live Auctins.D. Live Events.
    B
    As the lyrics t Taylr Swift’s hit sng “Bad Bld” g: “Cause, baby, nw we gt bad bld. Yu knw it used t be mad lve.” It’s a sng abut falling ut f friendship, but t 14-year-ld Hallie Barnard, wh was brn with a rare bld disrder, the sng hlds a much deeper meaning.
    At just 15 mnths ld, Barnard was diagnsed (诊断) with Diamn Blackfin Anemia, r DBA, and she spent mst f her life in and ut f the hspital. The Swiftie said she relied n the singer t bring her jy.
    The nly way t survive DBA is with a bne marrw transplant (骨髓移植) and Barnard was desperate fr ne. But she knew thusands f ther patients are, t. S, a few years ag, she decided t d smething abut it, creating her wn fundatin: Hallie’s Heres. “It started selfishly as just trying t save my life, but then we realized there were s many ther children ut there that needed a bne marrw transplant,” she said. “S, s far we’ve tested 8,000 peple and fund ver 300 matches.”
    After a 9-year wait, Barnard gt her wn match — thrugh her wn fundatin. But mre bstacles std between her and nrmal life as a kid. The bld disrder led t a cancer diagnsis: stesarcma. She received surgery t cut the cancer ut f her leg at MD Andersn in Hustn.
    The recvery was difficult, but Hallie said she stayed hpeful. “My survival instinct (本能) just kicked in. I was trying t d anything that I culd t survive. S, f curse, it was scary but in my mind, I was just thinking that I wanted t be at my sister’s future weddings. I wanted t play games and run again,” she said.
    Her survival instinct —cmbined with Taylr Swift―helped her thrugh her peratin, where dctrs cut her cancer ut, and reattached her ft and ankle t her upper leg t wrk as a knee.
    4. Why des the authr mentin Taylr Swift’s sng “Bad Bld”?
    A. T stress the pwer f music.
    B. T intrduce the tpic f the text.
    C. T shw Taylr Swift’s ppularity.
    D T state Taylr Swift’s sng is a hit.
    5. What is Hallie Barnard’s riginal mtivatin fr creating Hallie’s Heres?
    A. T raise mney fr her heres.
    B. T treat her rare bld disrder.
    C. T help ther children with DBA.
    D. T have an peratin fr her cancer.
    6. Which f the fllwing can best describe Hallie Barnard?
    A. Strng-minded and selfish.B. Hard-wrking and patient.
    C Kind and ptimistic.D. Outging and helpful.
    7. What’s the best title fr the text?
    A. Bad Bld Inspired a Little Girl
    B. Hallie’s Heres: a Useful Fundatin
    C. Taylr Swift: a Ppular Singer with Teens
    D. A Cancer Survivr Helped Others Find Matches
    C
    A baby brn tday will be thirty-smething in 2050. If all ges well, that baby will still be arund in 2100, and might even be an active citizen f the 22nd century. What shuld we teach that baby t help them survive and flurish in the wrld f 2050 and beynd? What kind f skills will they need in rder t get a jb, understand what is happening arund them, and navigate their tugh life?
    At present, t many schls acrss the wrld fcus n prviding pupils with a set f predetermined skills, such as writing cmputer cde in C++ and cnversing in Chinese. Yet since we have n idea hw the wrld and the jb market will lk in 2050, we dn’t really knw what particular skills peple will need. We might invest a lt f effrt in teaching kids hw t write in C++ r t speak Chinese, nly t discver sner r later that AI will have been able t cde sftware far better than humans, and that a new translatin app will have enabled yu t cnduct a cnversatin in almst flawless Mandarin, Cantnese r Hakka, even thugh yu nly knw hw t say ni ha.
    S what shuld we be teaching? Many experts argue that schls shuld dwnplay technical skills and emphasize general-purpse life skills: the ability t deal with change, t learn new things, and t preserve yur mental balance in unfamiliar situatins. In rder t keep up with the wrld f 2050, yu will abve all need t reinvent yurself again and again.
    T succeed in such a demanding task, yu will need t wrk very hard n getting t knw yur perating system better—t knw what yu are and what yu want frm life. This is, f curse, the ldest advice in the bk: knw thyself. This advice was never mre urgent than in the mid-21st century, because unlike in the days f Lazi r Scrates, nw yu have serius cmpetitin. Cca-Cla, Amazn and Facebk are all racing t hack yu.
    Right nw, the algrithms (算法) are watching where yu g, what yu buy, and wh yu meet. Sn they will mnitr all yur steps, breaths and heartbeats. They are relying n big data and machine learning t get t knw yu better and better. And nce these algrithms knw yu better than yu knw yurself, they culd cntrl and manipulate (操纵) yu. In the end, authrity will shift t them.
    Of curse, yu might be perfectly happy giving up all authrity t the algrithms and trusting them t make decisins fr yu and fr the rest f the wrld. If, hwever, yu want t maintain sme cntrl ver yur persnal existence and ver the future f life in general, yu have t run faster than the algrithms. T run fast, dn’t take much luggage with yu. Leave all yur illusins (幻想) behind. They are very heavy.
    8. What des the underlined wrd “dwnplay” in paragraph 3 mst prbably mean?
    A. Give t much emphasis n smething.
    B. Make peple think that smething is less imprtant.
    C. Offer yur reasns why smething is right r wrng.
    D. Decide smething in advance s that it des nt happen.
    9. Accrding t the article, ___________ plays a vital rle in children’s bright future.
    A. imaginatinB. adaptabilityC. self-disciplineD. a gd sense f balance
    10. It’s imprtant t knw ur perating system because ___________.
    A. if we dn’t, algrithms will hack all ur devices.
    B. it is an essential skill fr us t succeed in the wrld f 2050.
    C. we need t learn hw algrithms wrk and make full use f them.
    D. we need t utrun algrithms t keep sme cntrl ver ur persnal life.
    11. The article mainly talks abut _________.
    A. the imprtance f knwing yurself
    B. the threats and dangers f technlgy
    C. what kind f skills we might need in the future
    D. sme ptential benefits algrithms wuld bring t humankind
    D
    Turning n the air cnditining can bring sweet relief frm the heat. But yur resulting energy bill? Nt s much. What if yur hme culd stay cl all n its wn? That’s the premise (前提) f Zheng Yi’s new inventin. The assciate prfessr at Nrtheastern University in Bstn has created a sustainable material that can be used t make buildings r ther bjects able t keep cl withut relying n cnventinal cling systems.
    Zheng imagines this material cvering the rfs f huses r ther buildings. The material, which Zheng has named “cling paper”, has light clrs and internal micrstructure with many small hles. It reflects thse warm slar rays away frm the building, and it als absrbs heat inside—heat that is frm electrnics, cking and human bdies.
    Cling paper is, in fact, made f paper. One day, Zheng saw a cntainer full f used printing paper. He thught t himself, “Hw culd we simply transfrm that waste material int sme functinal energy material?” S, with the help f a high-speed blender (搅拌机) frm his kitchen, Zheng made a pulp (浆状物) ut f it and the material that makes up Tefln, a type f plastic. He then made it int waterprf “cing paper” that culd cat hmes. Then, he and his team tested its ability t keep cl: it can reduce temperatures by as much as 6℃. He selected materials that wuld reduce the cst f using the new technlgy t cl hmes.
    The cling paper isn’t just green in its ability t reduce yur energy ftprint. The material can be used, expsed t slar radiatin and varying temperatures, and then reduced t a pulp (again) and remade withut lsing any f its cling prperties. “That is incredible!” Zheng says. “We thught there wuld be maybe 10 t 20 percent f lss, but n. It’s just as well as the riginal.”
    12. On what basis is Zheng’s new inventin created?
    A. Relieving the discmfrts f the heat.B. Imprving traditinal cling systems.
    C. Cling the air withut electricity.D. Reducing electricity use and csts.
    13. What des the authr say abut the material in paragraph 2?
    A. It wrks in tw ways.B. It’s cmplexly structured.
    C. It has limited applicatins.D. It’s available in dark clrs.
    14. Where did Zheng get inspiratin fr the cling paper?
    A. Frm Tefln.B. Frm a pulp.C. Frm the blender.D. Frm the wastepaper.
    15. Which aspect f the cling paper is mainly stressed in the last paragraph?
    A. Its practicality.B. Its recyclability.C. Its heat resistance.D. Its user-friendliness.
    第二节 (共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    Hw t Write a Gd Ending t a Stry
    Stries present an event r series f events and have a beginning, middle, and end. ____16____ T write a gd ending fr yur stry, there are at least fur methds t shw the reader why yur stry is imprtant.
    Deciding the End
    ____17____ The middle will include rising tensin and yur characters’ reactins t the cnflict. Mst stry cnflicts will either be persn vs. nature, persn vs. sciety, r persn vs. themselves. Yur final scene shuld reslve this cnflict, whether yur characters get what they want r nt.
    Explaining the Jurney
    Reflect n the significance f all the events. What themes, ideas, r arguments are yu trying t prtray thrugh them? Yu dn’t want t tell yur reader directly, but yu need t shw them. ____18____—where the reader fllws the events flwing in turn—will help yu create an ending that makes sense based n what has happened earlier.
    Using Actin and Images
    Use actin t shw (nt tell) what is imprtant. We knw that stries full f actin, whether written r visual, appeal t all ages. Build yur ending with descriptin and sensry images, fr sensry details cnnect us emtinally t the stry. Highlight a theme. ____19____
    Fllwing Lgic
    Smetimes when we get t excited (r t frustrated) abut a stry we’re writing, we can frget that events and behavirs tend t fllw lgic. ____20____ Mst tpics—if pursued thrugh lgic—will invite yur readers int deeper thinking.
    A. First, identify the parts f yur stry.
    B. Taking a jurney t seek inspiratins
    C. Thinking abut yur stry as a jurney
    D. Yur stry will have a beginning t intrduce characters and setting.
    E. A gd stry ending ften creates a significant impact n the reader.
    F. Actually, a gd ending just recrds what wuld lgically happen in a situatin.
    G. Fcusing n a specific subject thrugh images and actins can help yu create a structure unique t yur stry.
    第三部分 英语知识运用(共二节,满分 45 分)
    第一节 完形填空(共 20 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C 和 D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    I learned abut life frm an ant farm. When I was seven years ld, my family ____21____ an ant farm at hme. First, we put clean sand in a thin glass bx, and then we brught sme ants frm the backyard and placed them int the ____22____ hme.
    Shrtly after the new ____23____ were drpped int the glass structure, they gt t wrk making tunnels. I was amazed that each ne knew ____24____ what t d. After hurs f staring, I realized that the ants had particular given jbs. With my mm’s help, I kept a jurnal f what happened each day and ____25____ the ants. My favrite was the biggest, Cinderella. I drew a picture f her in my jurnal, which I still have.
    On day five a disaster ____26____ the ant farm. While I was bserving the ants, I had put my face s clse t the structure that I accidentally ____27____ it ver. Unfrtunately, my carelessness caused all the tunnels t ____28____. Althugh the ants ____29____ their earthquake, ne by ne they began t die. I was _____30_____ as I watched them give up their tunnel-building t carry the bdies t a crner f the farm. My mther explained that the ants were actually dying f “frustratin”—feeling annyed and disappinted as they culdn’t cntrl the situatin.They simply culd nt _____31_____ the reality that their tunnels had been destryed. Cinderella was the last t die; she did s while carrying a dead ant n her back.
    Althugh much time has passed, I still think f that ant farm. Mm had hped it wuld teach me abut the natural wrld,_____32_____ it taught me much mre._____33_____ the years, I came t realize the ants were a study in the benefits f _____34_____. Wrking tgether, they were able t create a(n)_____35_____ wrld fr themselves. I als learned that they shuld be _____36_____ fr their hard wrk. Day in and day ut, each labred at their task. The ant farm demnstrated that teamwrk and perseverance are indeed tw key_____37_____fr success. But there was an even larger lessn that I did nt _____38_____ until recently: Disaster is a natural part f life, and must be _____39_____. Unlike the ants, humans cannt give up when they face _____40_____. Unlike the ants, we have t realize that if a tunnel cmes dwn, we just have t build anther.
    21. A. createdB. bughtC. ranD. laid
    22. A. emptyB. newC. strangeD. distant
    23. A. guestsB. settlersC. friendsD. members
    24. A. prbablyB. rughlyC. exactlyD. nrmally
    25. A. namedB. trainedC. cmparedD. measured
    26. A. affectedB. struckC. kickedD. beat
    27. A. splitB. tkC. tippedD. handed
    28. A. rush utB. break inC. drp utD. falldwn
    29. A. experiencedB. predictedC. facedD. survived
    30. A. annyedB. astnishedC. mvedD. thrilled
    31. A. reflectB. ignreC. cnfirmD. stand
    32. A. andB. butC. sD. r
    33. A. InB. FrC. FrmD. Over
    34. A. teamwrkB. devtinC. respnsibilityD. rganizatin
    35. A. relaxingB. amusingC. mvingD. amazing
    36. A. supprtedB. inspiredC. admiredD. admitted
    37. A. slutinsB. apprachesC. recipesD. circumstances
    38. A. giveB. realizeC. takeD. adpt
    39. A. acceptedB. sufferedC. escapedD. managed
    40. A. challengesB. barriersC. pressureD. disappintment
    第二节 (共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    T celebrate the 50th anniversary f the Wrld Heritage Cnventin (《世界遗产公约》), Beijing held____41____ event titled “The Next 50 Years: Wrld Heritage Where Challenges and Develpment Cexist”, during which experts discussed hw____42____ (make) the sites mre accessible and sustainable fr future generatins.
    Since jining the Wrld Heritage Cnventin in 1985, the number f wrld heritage sites in China____43____ (grw) t 56, including the Great Wall, the Frbidden City and the Grand Canal,____44____ (allw) the natin t rank secnd in the wrld. And ver the past decade, China has added 15 new wrld heritage sites, six f____45____ have been included in the relevant lists f intangible cultural heritage (非物质文化遗产).
    Chinese experts said that the 56 listed wrld heritage sites reflect the cuntry’s____46____ (abundance) heritage and that China’s cultural heritage achievements ver the past 10 years can be seen in many aspects.
    Fr example, in 2013, the Tianshan Muntains____47____ (list) n the Wrld Heritage List. The beauty f Tianshan lies____48____ its snw-capped muntains and glacier-capped peaks. It is really an utstanding example f a muntain ecsystem with a____49____ (diverse) f landfrm features and ecsystems.
    Experts said that the wrld heritage applicatin is just a means t perfrm better prtectin. We shuld behave mre_____50_____ (respnsible) t cnserve the heritage f all humanity.
    第四部分 写作 (共两节,满分 35 分)
    第一节 短文改错(共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
    51. 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
    增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
    删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉;
    修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
    注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
    2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
    It was Father’s Day. Having been finished my hmewrk, I tgether with my sister went t buy sme vegetables as well as a gift as planned. We were suppsed t giving ur father a big surprise. On ur way hme, we met with Grandpa Li, an ld neighbur withut children. Suddenly, I came up an idea. Then we went t his hme with what we had bught. With his help, we cked a delicius meal. After that we made a phne call t ur parents but tld them that we will have lunch at Grandpa Li’s. Hearing what we had dne, we were very pleased, saying we were really caring. We helped Grandpa Li d a thrugh clean after lunch. Tiredly as we were, we felt we had spent a meaning day. I believe it is a day when will be remembered by me frever in my future life.
    第二节 书面表达 (满分 25 分)
    52. 假设你是李华,你们班在学校的运动会中获得了第一名,请你作为班级代表向校英文网站投稿,主要内容包括:
    1.获奖心情;
    2.成功秘诀;
    3.鼓励同学们积极锻炼。
    注意:
    1.写作词数应为80左右;
    2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
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