广东省梅州市大埔县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中英语试题

这是一份广东省梅州市大埔县2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中英语试题，共15页。试卷主要包含了 考生务必保持答题卡的整洁等内容，欢迎下载使用。

说明：
1. 全卷共8页，共76小题，满分为120分，考试用时为90分钟。
2. 答卷前，考生务必用黑色字迹的签字笔或钢笔在答题卡填写自己的姓名、准考证号，并贴上个人条形码。
3. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目选项的答案信息点涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案，答案不能答在试卷上。
4. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应位置上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案：不准使用铅笔和涂改液，不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
5. 考生务必保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束时，将答题卡交回。
听说部分（30分，共25小题）
一、模仿朗读（每题1分，共6分）：请根据朗读句子的内容，选择一个最佳答案。
1. Harry can play the ________ very well.
A. vilinB. pianC. drums
2. The Brwns g t bed at ten ________ every evening.
A. sixteenB. thirtyC. thirteen
3. Catherine’s ________ is ninety-nine years ld.
A. mtherB. grandpaC. grandma
4. It’s a gd habit fr Lily t brush her ________ every mrning and evening.
A. teethB. muthC. hair
5. Lin Xia usually ges t the ________ club n weekends.
A. musicB. artC. dance
6. The schl ________ game is at seven fifty in the evening.
A. ftballB. basketballC. vlleyball
二、信息获取（共两节，每题1.5分，满分15分）
第一节 听选信息（1.5×6=9分）：请根据对话或独白，选择一个最佳答案回答问题。
听第一段对话，回答第1-2（7-8）两个问题。现在你有10秒钟的阅题时间。
7. —Hw des the by g t schl every day?
—The by ges t schl ________.
A. by subwayB. by bikeC. by bus
8. —Hw far is the girl’s hme frm schl?
—It is ________.
A. abut 2 kilmetersB. abut 4 kilmetersC. abut 8 kilmeters
听第二段对话，回答第3-4（9-10）两个问题。现在你有10秒钟的阅题时间。
9. —When is the music festival?
—It is ________.
A. at 7:00 p.m.B. at 7:30 p.m.C. at 8:00 p.m.
10. —What is the third shw?
—The third shw is ________.
A. the guitar shwB. the pian shwC. the dance shw
听第三段对话，回答第5-6（11-12）两个问题。现在你有10秒钟的阅题时间。
11. —What subject is Tina gd at?
—Tina is gd at ________.
A. EnglishB. gegraphyC. histry
12. —Where d the speakers meet?
—They meet ________.
A. in the clubB. at Tina’s hmeC. in the library
第二节 回答问题（1.5×4=6分）：请根据对话或独白，选择一个最佳答案回答问题。
听录音，回答第7-10（13-16）四个问题。现在你有15秒钟的阅题时间。
13. —When des Maggie like t run n schl days?
—On schl days, he likes t run ________.
A. in the mrningB. at nightC. in the afternn
14. —Hw far des Maggie usually run?
—Maggie usually runs ________.
A. 10 kilmetersB. 15 kilmetersC. 20 kilmeters
15. —What time d Maggie and Li Qiang meet n Saturday?
—They usually meet at abut ________.
A. seven twentyB. sevenC. seven thirty
16. —Wh likes playing tennis best?
—________ likes playing tennis best.
A. MichelleB. MaggieC. Li Qiang
三、信息转述及询问（每题1分，共9分）
第一节 信息转述（1×7=7分）：请根据所听到的内容及思维导图中的信息，判断后面转述句子的正（T）误（F）， 录音听两遍。
( ) 17. Jane usually gets up at 8:00.
( ) 18. She likes t eat breakfast first after getting up.
( ) 19. She usually has milk and an egg fr breakfast.
( ) 20. She has lunch at arund I ’clck.
( ) 21. She likes t have hamburgers fr lunch.
( ) 22. She gets hme frm wrk by bus.
( ) 23. She watches TV after dinner.
第二节 询问信息（1×2=2分）：请根据所听到的内容，在两个问题中的横线上各补充一个单词。
24. 你通常几点钟去上班？
What time d yu usually g t _________________?
25. 你晚餐喜欢吃什么？
What d yu like t have fr _________________?
笔试部分（90分，共51小题）
一、语法选择（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，选出一个最佳选项。
Exams (考试) are imprtant t students. But sme schls give 1 students t many exams. Study takes t much f their time and many students 2 much time t sleep and exercise. It is nt gd 3 their health. T make students have a happy and healthy life, China makes sme 4 fr schls. Nw students f grades ne and tw dn’t need 5 written exams. Students f grades three t six nly have ne exam a term.
Students like the rules. They make them 6 relaxed. Many parents think the rules are gd, t. Their children nw have 7 time t play sprts and jin sme clubs. There are many ther rules fr China’s schls. Fr example, teachers 8 give hmewrk t children in first grade. Tutring institutins (辅导机构) can’t teach schl subjects. Schls have free after-schl classes 9 students can finish their hmewrk at schl. China wants these rules t d gd t the yung children. What d yu 10 the rules?
1. A. theyB. themC. theirD. theirs
2. A. hasB. haveC. desn’t haveD. dn’t have
3. A. frB. atC. fD. with
4. A. ruleB. rule’sC. rulesD. rules’
5. A. takeB. takesC. takingD. t take
6. A. sundB. feelC. t sundD. t feel
7. A. manyB. t manyC. a ltD. a lt f
8. A. canB. can’tC. have tD. dn’t have t
9. A. rB. butC. andD. because
10. A. think fB. thinking fC. thinkD. thinking
二、完形填空。（本题共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面的短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
Since the lckdwn (封锁) f Wuhan, I’ve mved in (搬家) with my 11 . This is because my 12 is a dctr. Her jb is t incubate patients (给病人插管). When ding this, the virus (病毒) might jump frm the patients t her. It’s very dangerus. Fr my safety (安全), she asked me t stay at my grandparents’huse. We cannt 13 until she beats (打败) the virus.
When my mum is nt here with me, I lk after myself. I always 14 at 8 a.m. Then I begin t study by myself. I als play sprts every day 15 Mum and I ften have vide calls n WeChat (微信). Smetimes I see her wearing heavy prtective suit (防护服). She must be 16 , but she is saving peple. I’m very 17 her!
My grandparents 18 hw t shp nline. Luckily, many vlunteers (志愿者) cme t help us. They send fd and ther gds (物品) t us. 19 day, I wke up at 6 in the mrning. I lked dwn thrugh the windw and saw them 20 big bxes. They wrk s hard!
11. A. grandparentsB. parentsC. uncleD. cusin
12. A. grandmaB. dadC. mumD. grandpa
13. A. talkB. meetC. answerD. prblem
14. A. g shppingB. g t bedC. g t schlD. get up
15. A. at hmeB. utsideC. at schlD. in the garden
16. A. excitedB. tiredC. interestedD. encuraged
17. A. afraid fB. interested inC. prud fD. ashamed f (惭愧)
18. A. d nt knwB. knwC. wnderD. understand
19. A. NextB. EveryC. The lastD. One
20. A. sellingB. carryingC. buyingD. making
三、阅读理解（本大题共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
A
I’m Peter. Tday is Saturday. My father wants t take us t the z. We are very happy. My mther takes sme bread. My sister takes sme fruit. And I take sme milk and water. We leave hme at 9:00 a.m.
After half an hur’s drive, we get t the z. Lts f peple are there. My father buys fur tickets (票) and we walk int the z. First, we take a small bus t the beast area (猛兽区). There, we get n a small train. It takes us arund (带……参观) the area. We see lins, tigers and bears.
After the train ride, we walk dwn the z and see many ther animals, such as pandas, giraffes, elephants and kalas. My father uses his camera t take lts f pictures fr us.
At abut 1:00 p.m., we have lunch at the z. After lunch, we g hme thugh (尽管) I want t g back t see the animals again.
21. What des Peter’s sister take?
A. Sme bread.B. Sme fruit.C. Sme water.D. Sme milk.
22. Hw des Peter g t the z?
A. On ft.B. By bus.C. By train.D. By car.
23. Which f the fllwing animals des Peter see n the train?
A. Pandas.B. Giraffes.C. Tigers.D. Elephants.
24. The underlined wrd “camera” in Paragraph3 means “________” in Chinese.
A. 照相机B. 笔记本C. 打印机D. 绘画板
25. Frm the passage, we can learn that Peter ________.
A. ges t the beast area at lastB. asks his dad t take him t the z
C. gets t the z at 9:30 in the mrningD. sees the animals again in the afternn
B
Many middle schl students dn’t knw hw t spend their free time. When they have hlidays, they always have nthing t d and feel bred.
Sme may play cmputer games all day lng and sme may stay in bed and sleep all day. It’s nt a gd way. Here are sme suggestins. First, if yu dn’t like t stay at hme, yu can g fr a picnic r play sme sprts. In this way, yu can take sme fresh air and keep healthy. Secnd, if yu like t stay at hme, yu may enjy sme light music r read a few nvels. Yu can play sme indr games such as chess, cards and table tennis. What’s mre, yu can als plant sme trees and flwers in yur garden t make yur hme beautiful. At last, it is als a gd way t keep a pet and talk with it. Just develp sme hbbies and yu will feel much happier after a lng hliday.
26. Hw many suggestins des the writer give if yu want t stay at hme?
A. Five.B. Fur.C. Three.D. Tw.
27. Why d we need t d sprts in ur free time?
A. T keep healthy.B. T make mre friends.
C. T make ur studies better.D. T knw abut the wrld.
28. Which is NOT a gd way t spend ur free time accrding t the writer?
A. Ging fr a picnic.B. Sleeping all day.
C. Playing chess.D. Keeping a pet.
29. What is are imprtant t yu t spend yur free time accrding t the writer?
A. Mney.B. Friends.C. Hbbies.D. Trees.
30. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. What t d when yu stay at hmeB. Hw t develp yur hbby
C. Hw t spend yur free timeD. Hw t keep healthy
C
配对阅读：阅读信息，然后找出最合适的配对（有两个多余项）
四、短文填空（本大题共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
请用适当的词完成下面的短文，并把所缺单词填写在答题卡指定的位置上。每个空只能填写一个形式正确、意义相符的单词。
Hi, I’m Tny. In the mrning, I usually 36 up at eight. Then I brush my 37 and wash my face. I g t schl at eight thirty. I dn’t have much time fr breakfast, s I usually eat very 38 . Fr lunch, I usually eat hamburgers. After schl, I smetimes play basketball fr 39 an hur. When I get hme, I always d 40 hmewrk first. In the evening, I either watch TV 41 play cmputer games.
Mary is my sister. She usually gets up at six thirty. Then she always takes 42 shwer and eats a gd breakfast. At twelve, she eats lts 43 fruit and vegetables fr lunch. She always eats ice-cream after dinner. She knws it’s nt 44 fr her, but it tastes gd! In the evening, she des her hmewrk and usually swims r takes a 45 utdrs. At nine thirty, she ges t bed.
五、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
Dear Wang Dan,
Hw are yu ding? I’m studying in a middle schl in England nw. We have many rules t fllw at schl.
First f all, we can’t arrive late fr class. This is very imprtant. Classes start at nine. We must be n time. We always have t wear the schl unifrm and we must keep them tidy. We can’t have lng hair. We have t keep ur hair shrt. We can’t run in the hallways. We can’t eat in the classrm. We can nly eat in the dining hall. Can we bring ur mbile phnes t the classrm? N, we can’t. We can’t fight. We must be kind t teachers and ther students. We can’t listen t music in the classrm r hallways, but we can listen t music in the music rm. When we’re in the library, we have t be quiet and we can’t take the bks utside.
I think the rules are strict, but I knw they are imprtant. They help us develp (培养) gd habits. D yu have any schl rules? Please write t me!
Yurs,
Nancy
请根据材料内容回答下列各题。
46. Where is Nancy’s middle schl?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
47. When d classes start in Nancy’s schl?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
48. What can’t Nancy bring t the classrm?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
49. Where can Nancy listen t music in schl?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
50. What des Nancy think f the rules?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
51. 假如你是上文中的王丹，请你用英语给Nancy回复一封电子邮件，谈谈你的学校的校规。
内容包括：
1. 必须做的事情（可自由发挥，例如：上午8点前必须到校、上课前必须打扫教室等）；
2. 不许做的事情（例如：在教室里不许戴帽子、在图书馆不许交谈等）；
3. 你的感受。
作文要求：
1. 不能照抄原文；不得在作文中出现学校的真实名称和学生的真实姓名。
2. 语句连贯，词数不少于60。作文的开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Nancy,
There are lts f rules in my schl t. __________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Wang Dan
大埔县2023年春季期中教学质量监测
七年级英语试卷参考答案
听说部分
一、模仿朗读（本题共6分，每小题1分）
1-6 CBCACB
二、信息获取（本题共15分，每小题15分）
7-12 BCBAAC 13-16 BACA
三、信息转述及询问（本题共9分，每小题1分）
第一节 信息转述 17-23 FTFTTFF
第二节 询问信息 24. wk 25. dinner
（实义动词的形式错误或名词的单复数形式错误，扣0.5分，单词首字母大小写错误原则上不扣分）
笔试部分
一、语法选择（本题共10分，每小题1分）
1-5 CDACD 6-10 BDBCA
二、完形填空（本题共10分，每小题1分）
11-15 ACBDA 16-20 BCADB
三、阅读理解（本题共30分，每小题2分）
21-25 BDCAC 26-30 BABCC 31-35 EBGAD
四、短文填空（共10小题，每小题15分，共15分）
（实义动词的形式错误或名词的单复数形式错误，扣0.5分，单词首字母大小写错误原则上不扣分）
36. get37. teeth38. quickly/fast39. half40. my
41. r42. a43. f44. gd/healthy45. walk
五、读写综合（本大题分A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分；可详答或简答：语法正确，语义完整，给满分；答案关键信息不完整，扣1分；关键信息基本完整，但出现无关信息或语法有误，扣0.5分。）
46. It’s in England. / Nancy’s middle schl is in England. / In England.
47. Classes start at nine / 9 in Nancy’s schl. / At nine / 9.
48. She can’t bring her mbile phne t the classrm. /Mbile phne.
49. She can listen t music in the music rm in schl. / In the music rm.
50. They are strict but imprtant.
B. 书面表达（One pssible versin:）
Dear Nancy,
There are lts f rules in my schl t. We must get t schl befre eight in the mrning. We have t clean the classrm befre class. We als have t wear the schl unifrm at schl. We can’t bring music players t schl. We can’t wear a hat in class. We can’t eat in the classrm r run in the hallways, either.
Schls are smetimes strict, but I knw they make rules t help us. We must fllw them
Yurs,
Wang Dan
听说材料
一、模仿朗读
1. Harry can play the drums very well
2. The Brwns g t bed at ten thirty every evening.
3. Catherine’s grandma is ninety-nine years ld.
4. It’s a gd habit fr Lily t brush her teeth every mrning and evening.
5. Lin Xia usually ges t the dance club n weekends.
6. The schl basketball game is at seven fifty in the evening.
二、信息获取
第一节 听选信息
第一段
W: It takes me t lng t g t schl by bus, s I usually take the subway.
M: I dn’t take the bus either. I g t schl by bike every day.
W: Well. I knw yu live nt far frm schl. Abut 2 kilmeters?
M: N. it’s abut 4 kilmeters, and yu?
W: My hme is abut 8 kilmeters frm schl.
第二段
M: Anne, is the music festival at seven ’clck in the evening?
W: N. it’s at half past seven. And I have a pian shw this evening.
M: Really? That’s great. What time is yur shw?
W: At abut eight ’clck, after the guitar shw. Ah… yes, mine is the furth.
M: S what is the first shw?
W: Carl’s dance shw.
第三段
M: Tina. English is difficult fr me.
W: I’m gd at English. I can help yu with it.
M: Great! Are yu free n the weekend?
W: I’m free n Sunday.
M: OK! Where can we meet?
W: Is the library far frm yur hme?
M: N. I can walk there in 10 minutes.
W: Gd. Let’s meet in the library.
第二节 回答问题
Hi, my name is Maggie. Fr sprts, I like running best. On schl days, I like t run at night. I usually run 10 kilmeters, and it takes abut ne hur. I usually run with Li Qiang n Saturday mrning. Li Qiang is my best friend. We usually meet at abut seven thirty. After running I get hme at abut nine ’clck. I always g t the sprts center with my cusin Michelle n Sunday. Tennis is her favrite sprt. We meet there at abut fur fifteen in the afternn. Usually we play tennis fr ne hur. What’s yur favrite sprt?
三、信息转述及询问
I’m Jane. I get up at 8:30, usually. I like t eat breakfast first after getting up. I usually have milk and bread fr breakfast. I have lunch at arund I ’clck. I like t have hamburgers fr lunch. I finish wrk at 6 ’clck. I get hme frm wrk n ft. I eat dinner at 8 ’clck. I take a walk after dinner.
31. Mike’s hme is abut 10 kilmeters frm schl. He usually takes the schl bus t schl
32. Peter lives near his schl. It’s just abut ne kilmeter. S he ges t schl n ft.
33. Jane rides her bike t schl n weekdays. Her hme is abut 5 kilmeters frm schl.
34. Tm’s hme is near a subway statin. And he usually takes the subway t schl.
35. Lisa lives far away frm her schl. She ges t schl in her mther’s car in the mrning.
A. I usually leave my hme at abut seven thirty and walk t the subway statin. It takes abut 20 minutes t get t schl by subway. I’m never late fr schl.
B. I dn’t have t get up t early in the mrning because my hme isn’t far frm schl. I walk t schl with my friend. It takes abut 15 minutes.
C. I live n an island (岛). I g t schl by bat with my brther. It takes abut 30 minutes. When it rains, I can’t g t schl. S I dn’t like rainy days.
D. My mm drives me t schl. I dn’t enjy the car ride because there’s ften a traffic jam (交通堵塞) n my way t schl. . Smetimes I’m late fr schl because f it.
E. I usually leave my hme at abut eight and walk t the bus stp. The schl bus usually cmes at abut ten past eight. I like the bus ride because I can talk t my classmates
F. I usually take the N. 36 bus t schl. It takes abut 30 minutes t get t schl. I dn’t enjy the bus ride because there are lts f peple n the bus.
G. I have a new bike. It’s red and it’s frm my father. I ride my bike t schl and it takes abut 25 minutes. I think it’s gd exercise.