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    这是一份成都七中育才学校2022-2023学年上期期末质量监测七年级英语试卷,共20页。试卷主要包含了选择填空,完形填空等内容,欢迎下载使用。


    注意事项:
    全卷分 A 卷和 B 卷,A 卷满分 100 分,B 卷满分 50 分;考试时间 120 分钟。
    答题前,考生务必先认真核对条形码上的姓名和学号,无误后填写在答卡的相应位置。
    第 I 卷主要为选择题(第 26-30 小题除外),用 2B 铅笔在答题卡上填涂作答。
    保持答题卡面清洁,不得折叠、污染、破损等。
    A 卷(共 100 分)
    第一部分 听力(共 30 分)
    一、听句子,根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。(共 5 小题,每
    小题 1 分;计 5 分)
    A. I’m OK.B. N, I’m Tm.C. Nice t meet yu!
    A. Strawberries.B. Carrts.C. Ice-cream.
    A. Yes, it’s n January 1st.B. N, it’s at three this afternn.
    C. Yes, it’s in the secnd mnth f a year.
    二、听句子,选择与所听句子内容相符的图片,答题卡上只需填涂代表图片的字母。每小题念两遍。(共 5 小题,每小题 1 分;计 5 分)
    ABCDE
    4. A. Fruit.
    B. Purple.
    C. Histry.
    5. A. What abut yu?
    B. Thanks! Yu, t.
    C. Yu’re right.
    6.
    7.
    8.
    9. 10.
    三、听对话,根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每小题念两遍。(共 10 小题,
    每小题 1 分;计 10 分)
    A. Math.
    A. In the bkcase.
    B. Science.
    B. Under the desk.
    C. Gegraphy.
    C. In her schlbag.
    13. A. At 9:00.
    B. At 10:00.
    C. At 12:00.
    14. A. D hmewrk.
    B. Play ping-png.
    C. Watch TV.
    15. A. Yes, it is.
    B. N, it isn’t.
    C. We dn’t knw.
    16. A. Because it’s fun.
    B. Because it’s relaxing.
    C. Because it’s cl.
    17. A. At schl.
    B. In a library.
    C. At a clthes stre.
    18. A. April 14th.
    B. April 15th.
    C. April 16th.
    19. A. Anna.
    B. Mike.
    C. Paul.
    20. A. $24.
    B. $27.
    C. $33.
    四、听短文 , 根据短文内容选择正确答案。短文念两遍。(共5 小题, 每小题 l
    分; 计 5 分)
    Hw ld is Henry's mther?
    A.39B. 40.
    Wh is in a blue T-shirt?
    A. Henry.B. Henry's father.
    Where is the chicken?
    A. On the table.B. Under the sfa.
    What des the writer talk abut in the article?
    句sme fd@Henry's family@Julia's favrite sprt
    C. 42.
    C. Henry's mther.
    C. Under the table.
    A.句@B. @@C. 句@)
    What can we knw frm the passage?
    Henry's sister likes blue.
    Cc's dinner is sme chicken.
    Henry's father is an English teacher in N.2 Middle Schl.
    五、听短文, 根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息。短文念三遍。(共5 小题, 每小题 1 分; 计 5 分)
    第二部分基础知识运用 (共40 分)
    六、选择填空。(共15 小题, 计 20 分)
    A. 从以下各题 A、B、C 三个选项中选择正确答案。(共10 小题, 每小题 l 分计 10 分)
    --This is my blue hat. Is that Gina's black hat? --Yes, it's_. She lves black.
    A. mineB. hersC. his
    _girl in a purple skirt is my cusin Grace.
    A. AnB. AC. The
    Jenny is a tidy girl,_ Linda is nt.
    A. andB. butC. s
    Eating well and sleeping well are _fr us t fight(斗争)with COVID-19.
    Hw t be happy when yu study26
    Have gd living habits.
    Eat27
    Dn't g t bed late.
    Play sprts.
    D sprts fr abut28every day.
    Find sme29things.
    Yu can make fd r read bks.
    Talk with yur family r
    teachers.
    Yu can30yur family r teachers
    30
    A usefulB. healthy
    --is the bk sale?--It's next week.
    A WhereB. When
    --Can we meet_ Friday evening, Jack?--OK.
    C. easy
    C. What
    A nB. inC. at
    --D yu like_? --N, I dn't like them.
    A riceB. breadC. burgers
    --Let's have a party n Children's Day!--
    A Srry, I dn't!B. Sunds fun!C. Thank yu!
    Wh_ Tim's telephne number? I want t call him.
    A knwsB. asksC. says
    --Happy birthday t yu, Mary! --
    That’s fr sure.B. Yu’re welcme.C. Thank yu.
    Hw abut sme ranges and pears?
    Hw’s yur first day at schl?
    Math is my favrite subject.
    D yu like chicken salad?
    They are fun and easy.
    补全对话。根据对话内容,从右边方框中选出适当的选项补全对话。(共 5 小题,每小题 2 分;计 10 分)
    A: Hell! I’m Helen. Nice t meet yu!
    B: Hi! My name’s Peter. Nice t meet yu, t!
    A: 41
    B: Really gd. Our teachers are all great.
    A: I like them, t. 42 Hw abut yurs? B: My favrite subjects are science and art.
    43Oh, it’s time fr lunch. Let’s get sme fd t eat.
    A: 44
    B: Yes, I like it very much. And we can have sme fruit then. A: 45
    B: That sunds gd. Let’s g!
    七、完形填空。 阅读下面两篇短文,根据短文内容,从 A、B、C 三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。(共 15 小题;计 20 分。A 篇每小题 2 分,
    计 10 分;B 篇每小题 1 分,计 10 分)
    A
    Hell, everyne. We have a gd friend. Wh is it? Let’s see. It is useful fr us. It 46us t d a lt f things.
    It is n the 47. What time is it? It is eight ’clck. It is n the bus. Here cmes the N. 13 bus!
    It is n a calendar. Tday is September 15. It is Thursday.
    It is in my 48bk. I use it t cunt. One, tw, three…
    It is n the price tag f the supermarket. 49is the milk? It’s 2.9 dllars a bx. Nw, d yu knw wh it is? Yes, it is the 50!
    D yu knw the saying “Yu are what yu eat”? Well, d yu like wh yu are?
    Yu 52dn’t eat breakfast. If peple dn’t have breakfast, they can’t have the energy (能量) fr the 53.
    Yu can have quick(快的) fds like(像) milk if yu dn’t have 54 t have breakfast.
    Dn’t have these bad 51habits!
    46. A. asks
    B. helps
    C. wants
    47. A. clck
    B. plane
    C. desk
    48. A. music
    B. math
    C. histry
    49. A. What clr
    B. What fd
    C. Hw much
    50. A. bk
    B. classmate
    C. number
    B
    Yu are a quick eater. Quick eaters always eat much. And it is 55fr them t be fat.
    Dn’t eat quickly. And eat with n 56r cmputers. It’s nt gd t play n them when yu eat.
    Yu snack(吃点心) t much. It’s 57 t have healthy snacks. 58 when yu snack much, yu dn’t want t eat yur 59 meals. Yu must knw three meals are gd fr yu, nt s much snack.
    Yu can eat tw healthy snacks a day t 60 energy. Yu can eat sme fruit, ygurt r nuts .
    第三部分阅读理解(共 30 分)
    八、阅读下面短文,根据短文内容判断句子正误。正确的写“A”,错误的写“B”。
    (共 5 小题,每小题 2 分;计 10 分)

    A. sprts
    A. nly
    A. mrning
    B. eating
    B. always
    B. afternn
    C. playing
    C. really
    C. evening
    54. A. time
    B. rm
    C. fd
    55. A. difficult
    B. interesting
    C. easy
    56. A. games
    B. phnes
    C. mdels
    57. A. great
    B. bad
    C. fine
    58. A. Because
    B. S
    C. But
    59. A. real
    B. cl
    C. favrite
    60. A. call
    B. get
    C. take
    Students can knw abut science and histry in this schl trip.
    Students need t take sme fd fr lunch.
    Students meet at 8:00 a.m. and cme back at 5:30 p.m.
    The ticket fr the Science Museum is 10 dllars.
    The head teacher writes the secnd ntice n May, 9th.
    九、阅读下面两篇短文,根据短文内容选择正确答案。(共 10 小题,每小题 2 分;
    计 20 分)
    A
    “Je, yu came t ur plice statin(警察局) when yu were tw years ld. Yu are here fr 13 years.” says pliceman Fred. “Tday is yur birthday. Yu are a very ld dg. But yu are the best plice dg in the wrld!”
    “ARF! ARF!” says Je.
    “Yu are welcme,” says Fred. “Nw let’s get yur birthday dinner. Shw me where yu want t eat.”
    They walk n the street. Sme restaurants (餐馆) are n the street and all f them
    have great fd. But Je walks n. At last he stps at a small restaurant.
    “Is this where yu want t eat?” asks Fred. But Je desn’t say anything. He walks in the rm. Then he says “ARF! ARF!” t a man at a table!
    “Gd by, Je!” says Fred. Je and Fred lk fr the man fr ten years. “And nw yu find him!”
    Je and Fred take the man t the plice statin. Then Fred says, “OK, Je, yu finish yur wrk. Gd jb! Nw, d yu want that dinner?” “ARF! ARF!” says Je. "Let’s g!” says Fred.
    Tday is Je’s birthday.
    A. 2ndB. 13thC. 15th
    The first “ARF! ARF!” in the passage means (意思是) “ ”.
    A. Yes, sure.B. Thank yu.C. N, I’m nt.
    Why des Je stp at the small restaurant?
    A. He wants t eat there.B. It has great fd.C. He finds a man.
    Wh is the man at the table in the restaurant?
    A. A bad man.B. An ld friend.C. A pliceman.
    Why d Fred and Je g fr a dinner?
    It’s Je’s birthday.
    Je finishes his wrk.
    Je finds a gd restaurant.
    B
    Thanksgiving is n the furth Thursday every Nvember. The day after it is Black Friday. It is a busy shpping day.
    Many stres have a big sale n Black Friday. They pen the stres very early in the mrning and peple can get a big discunt (折扣). They want peple t buy things fr family and friends. Sme things like furniture and clthes are at very gd prices. And sme stres may lse mney n these things.
    There are usually ads fr Black Friday. Lk, here is ne.
    Sme peple are busy and dn’t have time t shp n Black Friday. Sme peple dn’t want t shp in the stres. These years, Cyber Mnday is a day fr them t buy things n the cmputer at hme. It is the Mnday after Black Friday. Peple can buy things with a big discunt, t. S, many peple shp n this day.
    When is Black Friday f 2023?
    Nvember 17th.
    Nvember 24th.
    Nvember 23rd.
    The underlined wrds “lse mney” mean the same as “ ”.
    I lse mney and I can’t find it everywhere.
    N ne buys these vegetables and yu’ll lse mney.
    If yu lse mney at schl, yu can ask the teacher fr help.
    Yu can buy fr $40 at Helen’s Furniture Stre.
    A. a blue bedB. a sfaC. tw big tables
    Hw much are a desk and chair, a small table and a sfa?
    A. 145 dllars.B. 120 dllars.C. 90 dllars.
    Which f the fllwing is right?
    Cyber Mnday is a shpping day, t.
    All the stres have a big sale n Black Friday.
    Thanksgiving, Black Friday and Cyber Mnday are in the same week.
    B 卷(非选择题,共 50 分)
    一、首字母填空。根据句意和首字母提示完成单词。(共 5 小题,每小题 1 分;计 5 分)
    Tm is the t student t find the card in this game. Nine bys and ten girls fund the cards befre him.
    Mrs. Miller likes b fd fr her family in that stre after wrk.
    Students like t use d_ when they meet new wrds in the English newspapers.
    M is the first mnth f spring. It is warm and peple like t g ut with their families.
    My schl f at 6:10 in the afternn. After that, I ften play ping-png with my friends.
    二、完成对话,在对话的空格中填上适当的单词,使对话完整正确。一空一词(含
    缩写词)。(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分;计 10 分)
    A: Hi, Eric. Hw’s yur day?
    B: It’s OK. Yu knw, we have tw 1tday. A: Oh. What are they?
    B: English and 2. I think English is very easy. I’m 3I can d well this time. A: Hw abut the ther ne?
    B: I dn’t knw. Hmm... It’s 4fr me t remember(记住) s many events and the
    dates.
    A: But dn’t yu like Mr. Green’s class? I knw he is a great teacher.
    B: That’s true. He ften tells interesting stries abut the ld days. I like this 5 and Mr. Green’s classes but I dn’t want t remember the events.
    A: I think yu will learn it well.
    B: I hpe s. It’s February nw, and the new 6starts. What d yu want t d?
    A: I will study hard. And I want t play tennis with my cusin 7times(次数) a week. Lk! Here’s my schedule fr the first mnth.
    B: Cl! Tennis my favrite sprt, t. But I nly watch it n TV.
    A: Playing sprts every day is gd fr ur 8. We can’t always sit n the sfa.
    B: Yu’re right. S, when d yu g t play tennis? I am 9n Tuesday afternns and n Sunday mrnings. Maybe I can play tennis with yu.
    A: OK. Yu can 10us and play with us in Jhnsn Tennis Hall near my hme then. And my cusin and I will play it in ur schl n Friday, t.
    B: Sunds great. Bye fr nw. A: Bye.
    三、短文填空,从下面方框中选出 10 个单词,并将其正确形式填写在相应位置,
    使短文意思正确通顺(每词限用一次)。(共 10 小题,每小题 1 分;计 10 分) buyeasyhappymtherplayrealsellseeshestretakethree D yu like shpping n Taba? Wang Lin, a 20-year-ld student in Beijing, 1
    likes t shp n Taba. It’s imprtant in Wang Lin’s life. She can always find the
    things 2 n Taba, frm clthes t bks, frm fd t MP3 3 . She can buy many things at their great 4 . The price is s gd and she can save( 节 约 ) much mney. Smetimes she desn’t buy any. She thinks it’s interesting 5 the nice things n Taba.
    But my mther likes t buy things at the real stres. On Saturdays, she ften 6 my sister and me t g shpping. We like t g t Smart best. It’s very big and busy. It has 3 flrs ( 楼 层 ). The clthes are n the 7 flr. It’s my 8 favrite. She ften spends(花时间) Saturday afternns there. I feel OK because I can have sme fd t eat n the first flr and read bks. But my sister is 9 because she likes t play games at hme. S smetimes my mther will call sme f 10 friends and they can g shpping in Smart tgether. And when she cmes back, we ften think she buys the whle stre. Haha!
    四、阅读表达(共 10 小题,计 10 分)
    补全短文根据短文内容,从短文后A- F 选项中选出5 个适当的选项补全短文。
    (共 5 小题,每小题 1 分;计 5 分)
    Welcme t ur Bks! We knw there are names fr seven days in a week. But d yu knw why? 1
    2It says the names f the seven gds(神). 3But it’s difficult t say their
    names. S they get their new names.
    There is als a bk First t Last. It says the first day is Sunday. Because the first day is the day f sun. 4It says sme think the first day is the day f mn.
    Fun things fr Days in Chinese is als a bk abut the seven days. In this bk, Mnday is the first day. 5 It says Mnday is a busy day in Chinese. Frm Tuesday t Thursday, it’s fr death wish. Friday and Saturday are fr gd things. But Sunday is fr depressin(沮丧).
    Have a gd time knwing the interesting things.
    The gds want nice names.
    Sunday is the last day f a week.
    Because the seven days are fr sure frm gds.
    First, here is the bk The Secret(秘密) t Days.
    But we als knw the first day is Mnday frm it.
    Yu can knw interesting things frm sme bks here.
    完成表格阅读下面短文,根据其内容,完成表格中所缺的信息。(共 5 小题,
    每小题 1 分;计 5 分)
    D yu want t be healthy? Nw it’s easy t get fast fd like hamburgers. And it’s relaxing t sit dwn and watch TV, t. But they’re nt healthy. S I make a plan( 计划).
    Day 1 f the week is nt easy fr me. Ice-cream calls me. But I dn’t want t be fat. I nly have sme salad fr dinner. I put sme tmates, sme carrts and sme brccli(西兰花) in it. I play badmintn fr an hur with my friends after schl. It’s very interesting.
    I really want t have sme milk tea in the evening n Day 2. But I knw it’s unhealthy. I make range juice. I have egg and tmat ndles fr dinner. After dinner, I like t g fr a walk(散步) with my parents in the park. And we can talk abut ur day at schl r at wrk when we walk. We can just sit n the chair and watch ld peple d sprts in the park, t.
    On Day 3 and Day 4, I want t eat my favrite hamburgers. But I knw they will make me fat. I have fish, rice and sme pears fr dinner. And I play vlleyball with my cusin happily after we finish ur hmewrk.
    On Day 5 and Day 6, I want t watch my favrite mvie star n TV. But my father asks me t play basketball with him. It’s difficult but I feel excited. And I eat sme beef and sme fruit fr dinner.
    On Day 7, I dn’t want any fast fd. I like the healthy fd. I have chicken and ptat salad fr dinner. I play ping-png with my family after dinner. It’s great.
    五、书面表达(计 15 分)
    假如你是 Alice,你的英国笔友 Mary 给你写信,想了解你的家庭及校园生
    活。请依据下图校历给她回信介绍你的校园活动安排、你喜欢与不喜欢的学科及原因、你喜欢的运动及原因、你在学校的午餐情况,并简单介绍一下你的家人。
    注意: 1. 书信格式;
    须全面反映图文信息;
    行文通顺流畅;
    词数 80 字左右。
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