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    江苏省扬州市江都区实验初级中学2020-2021学年七年级上学期第一次质量检测英语试题(有答案)

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    江苏省扬州市江都区实验初级中学2020-2021学年七年级上学期第一次质量检测英语试题(有答案)

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    这是一份江苏省扬州市江都区实验初级中学2020-2021学年七年级上学期第一次质量检测英语试题(有答案),共13页。试卷主要包含了听力,单项选择,完形填空,阅读理解,词汇运用,任务型阅读,缺词填空,书面表达等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    第一部分 选择题 (80分)
    一、听力 (本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    第一部分听对话回答问题
    本部分共有10道小题, 每小题你将听到一段对话, 每段对话听两遍。在听每段对话前, 你将有5秒钟的时间阅读题目;听完后, 你还有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。
    1. What des Jim d at 7:30 tday?
    A. B. C.

    2. What is in the tree?
    A. B. C.

    3. What sprt des Tmmy like best?
    A. B. C.
    .
    4. What is Kitty’s English teacher like?
    A. B. C.
    5. Hw many lessns des Daniel have every day?
    A. 4 lessns.B. 3 lessns.C. 7 lessns.
    6. Hw lng des Amy practise vlleyball every day?
    A. an hurB. half an hurC. ne and a half hurs
    7. Whse shirt is this?
    A. Jim’s. B. Sandy’s. C. Simn’s.
    8. What des Cindy like?
    A. Playing cmputer games. B. Running. C. Watching TV.
    9. Hw des Mrs Green usually g t wrk?
    A. By bus B. By bike C. On ft.
    10. Hw des Jhn celebrate his birthday?
    A. He has a party at hme.
    B. He ges t the park with his friends.
    C. He ges t watch a film with his friends.
    第二部分 听对话和短文回答问题
    这一部分你将听到一段对话和两篇短文, 各听两遍。听每段对话或短文前, 你将有时间阅读相关小题, 每小题5秒钟;听完后, 每小题你还有5秒钟的时间选出你认为最合适的备选答案。
    听下面一段对话,回答第11—12小题。
    11. Bb plays ping-png with _______ after schl.
    A. Bill B. his classmates C. friends
    12. _____ can play ftball, _______ nly watches vlleyball n TV
    A. Bill, Bb B. Bb, Bill C. Bill, Bill’s classmate
    听一篇短文, 回答13-15题。请根据短文内容, 选择正确答案, 完成信息记录表。
    13. A. ChinaB. AmericaC. England
    14. A. bedrmB. living rmC. dining rm
    15. A. listening t musicB. readingC. playing cmputer games
    听一篇短文, 回答第16-20题。
    16. Wh ges t wrk in the mrning?
    A. My mther.B. My brthers. C. My father.
    17. What des my mther d in the afternn?
    A. She visits her friends. B. She reads bks. C. She watches TV.
    18. Hw d we g hme frm schl?
    A. By bus.B. By car. C. On ft.
    19. When can we watch TV?
    A. On Sunday afternn.B. Every day. C. At the weekend.
    20. Hw many peple are there in my family?
    A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.
    二、单项选择(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,计 15 分)
    21. Peter lves playing _____ basketball , s he will buy ___basketball first.
    A. a ;a B. / ;/ C. the ;a D. / ; a
    22. —Why d yu like summer best? It’s very ht.
    —Dn’t yu think it’s great t enjy ice cream _______a ht summer afternn?
    A. inB. nC. atD. f
    23. —Tm, why d yu like s much?
    —Because I like different clrs.
    A. reading B. writing C. drawing D. singing
    24. — d yu g t the park?
    —Three times a week.
    A. Hw lng B. When C. Hw many D. Hw ften
    25. — yur name Millie?
    —Yes, .
    A. Are, 1 am B. Is, it is C. Is,I am D. Are, it is
    26. — Mary happy tday?
    —1 dn't think s. She lk happy this mrning.
    A. Is, isn't B. Is, desn't C. Des, desn't D. Des, isn't
    27. —What can I buy fr my mther _____Mther’s Day?
    —_____buying her a dress?
    A.in; Why nt B. n ;Hw abut C.in; Why dn’t yu D. n ; Why nt
    28. My parents ______ playing vlleyball. We _____ the fans f Chinese Wmen’s Vlleyball team.
    A. bth like; are bth B. bth like; are all C. like all; are allD. all like; bth are
    29. —_______ Candy gd at ________?
    —Certainly. She is a gd swimmer in the schl team.
    A. Is, swimmingB. Des, t swimC. Is, t swimD. Des, swimming
    30. It’s fun ____a ball game after ____yur hmewrk,
    A.t play; ding B. play ; d C.t play; t d D. play; ding
    31. —What are they ___________ ver there?
    —Tday’s news abut China’s Military Parade(中国阅兵仪式)
    A. talking B. talking abut C. talking t D. talking with
    32. — ?
    —He’s very well. Thank yu.
    A. What des the man likeB. Hw des he play the game
    C. Hw is yur fatherD. What is yur father
    33. —Jane, ________ the picture.
    — Oh, it ________ s beautiful.
    A. lk, lksB. lks at, lks C. lk, lks at D. lk at, lks
    34. —What is Jhn’s hbby?
    —He, _____ his father, ______ reading science bks.
    A. likes, like B. is like, likes C. like, likes D. like, is like
    35. —I will g t see the red maples (枫叶) this weekend.
    —_______.
    A. Have a gd timeB. Thank yu C. Sunds great D. It desn’t matter
    三、完形填空 (共15小题; 每小题1分,计15分)
    阅读下列短文,从文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    Mr White lks ut f the windw. There is a 36 at the ther side f the street. The by takes sme bread 37 his bag and begins eating 38 . There is a very thin dg in the street, t. The by says t it, “Cme here, gd dg. I’ll give yu 39 bread.” The dg is 40 and ges t the by, but he 41 it any bread. He kicks(踢) the dg. It 42 away, 43 the by laughs. Then Mr White cmes ut f his huse and says t the by, “Cme here. I will give yu a shilling(先令).” The by is 44 and says “Yes.” The by ges t him, 45 Mr. White des nt give him a shilling. He hits(打)him 46 a stick(棍子). The by 47 and says, “ 48 d yu hit me? I dn’t ask yu fr 49 mney.” “N”, Mr. White 50 , “and the dg did nt ask yu fr any bread, but yu kicked it.”
    36. A. girl B. by C. dg D. man
    37. A. in B. after C. t D. ut f
    38. A. it B. ne C. them D. this
    39. A. a B. ne C. sme D. any
    40. A. afraid B. hungry C. happy D. tired
    41. A. gives B. give C. desn’t give D. nt give
    42. A. climbs B. takes C. takes D. runs
    43. A. and B. but C. fr D. because
    44. A. happy B. afraid C. hungry D. tired
    45. A. and B. s C. but D. f curse
    46. A. by B. use C. fr D. with
    47. A. laughs B. cries C. smiles D. sings
    48. A. Why B. Hw C. What D. Where
    49. A. sme B. any C. n D. nt any
    50. A. speaks B. talks C. tells D. says
    四、阅读理解(共15小题; 每小题2分,计15分)
    阅读下列内容,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    A
    51. Panda Express is the name f ______accrding t this receipt (收据)
    A. a zB. a restaurantC. a bkD. a htel
    52. Hw many items des the buyer get?
    A. OneB. TwC. ThreeD. Fur
    53. What can yu infer (推断) frm this receipt?
    A. Panda Express is in the Beijing Disney Resrt.
    B. The buyer cmes t Panda Express n Octber 5th 2017.
    C. The address f Panda Express is 10 Universal City Plaza.
    D. Lisa is the buyer's name.
    B
    Ftball
    Tw teams play the game. There are eleven player each team. The field must be abut 100 m lng and 73m wide. There are tw gals, 7. 32 m lng and 2. 44 m high. T scre a gal, a player must put the ball int the ther team's gal. They may use their feet, heads r ther parts f the bdy, but they must nt use their hands One player in each team, the galkeeper, may use his hands.
    Vlleyball
    The curt is 18m lng and 9 m wide. The net is 2. 44 m high fr men and 2. 24 m high fr wmen. There are tw teams and there are usually six players in each team. The players try t make the ball hit the grund n the ther side f the net. They may use their hands, fists r arms, but they must nt catch the ball r hld it while playing.
    54. The underlined wrd "galkeeper" means?
    A. 后卫 B. 中锋 C.运动员 D.守门员
    55. Hw many players are there usually in a ftball match?
    A. 6 B. 10 C. 12 D. 22
    56. Each vlleyball team can have _____________ players.
    A. five B. six C. twenty D. eleven
    57. Which f the fllwing is NOT true?
    A. There are eleven players in each ftball team.
    B. The net is 2. 44 m high fr wmen and 2. 24 m high fr men.
    C. In a vlleyball match, players may use their hands, fists r arms.
    D. In the ftball match, players can use their feet, heads r ther parts f the bdy.
    C
    Asia Newsn is a 14-year-ld girl frm the United States. She starts each weekday at 5 am. She is very busy because besides schlwrk, she has sme business t d.
    Asia is the CEO f Super Business Girl, a cmpany that sells hmemade candles. She started the cmpany at the age f 5. Asia's father is a candle salesman. She picked up her father’s skills and began her wn business.
    In 2015, Asia appeared n a famus US talk shw: the Ellen DeGeneres Shw. After that, her sales went up quickly. With the mney she makes, she buys clthes and fd fr children in need. Her gal this year is t make $100, 000 (662, 230 yuan).
    Newsn als started a wrkshp t teach high schl students hw t d business. “If I teach ther children hw t make their wn mney, it will help them in the lng run (从长远来看)”, she tld Time fr Kids.
    58. Why is Asia s busy every day?
    A. Because she always helps thers.
    B. Because she des business.
    C. Because she is nt gd at schlwrk.
    D. Because she helps her father make candles.
    59. Hw lng has Asia had her wn cmpany?
    A. Fr 14 years.B. Fr nine years.
    C. Fr five years.D. Fr 19 years.
    60. What happened t Asia after appearing n a talk shw?
    A. Mre peple bught her candles.
    B. She clsed her cmpany.
    C. She bught lts f clthes and fd fr herself.
    D. She decided t becme a famus persn n TV.
    61. Frm the last paragraph, we knw that .
    A. Asia desn’t like t teach thers hw t d business.
    B. Asia desn’t think students shuld learn t d business.
    C. Asia is better at teaching students than ding business.
    D. Asia thinks it will be gd fr students t learn hw t make mney.
    D.
    Peter Pan is ne f the best-lved children's bks f all time. It was a play at first, as it became very ppular and the writer James Matthew Barrie decided t write a nvel. Barrie was brn in Sctland, and he is the ninth f ten children. He lved reading and playing make-believe games abut pirates(海盗) with his schl friends. When he grew up, he wanted t be a writer, s he mved t Lndn. He wrte nvels and plays fr theatres and articles fr newspapers
    In Lndn, Barrie ften tk his dgs fr a walk in Kensingtn Gardens. One day he met the Llewelyn Davies family there: Gerge, Jhn Michael, Peter and Nichlas. and their mther Sylvia. They became gd friends and Barrie spent a lt f time with the family. He wrte a stry t make the bys happy. The stry f Peter Pan was brn. Bth adults and children lve this bk.
    The bk tells the stry f three children Wendy, Jhn and Michael Darling, wh live in Lndn with their parents, their nurse, and a dg called Nana. One night when Mr and Mrs Darling g ut, Wendy meet Peter Pan. Peter Pan is a little by wh never grws up. He can fly and he teaches the Darling children t fly and takes them away t an island called Neverland. On Neverland they meet pirates, Indians and mermaids and have lts f adventures(奇遇)
    62. Why did Barrie write the stry?
    A. T make mre mney.
    B. T make the bys in the Llewelyn Davies family happy.
    C. T becme a famus writer.
    D. T teach children hw t fly.
    63. What can we knw abut Peter Pan?
    A. Peter Pan is a little girl wh never grws up
    B. Peter Pan is the child f the Darling family
    C. Peter Pan can fly and teaches the Darling children t fly
    D. Peter Pan takes the pirates t Neverland
    64. Which f the fllwing abut the bk Peter Pan is NOT true?
    A. The bk was a nvel at first and Barrie turned it int a play
    B. Wendy, Jhn and Michael Darling are three children in the bk
    C. There is an island called Neverland in the bk
    D. It is ne f the best-lved children's bks f all time.
    65. Which is the right rder f Barrie's experiences
    He wrte nvels and plays fr theatres and articles fr newspapers.
    He met the Llewelyn Davies family in Kensingtn Gardens.
    He lved playing make-believe games abut pirates with his schl friends.
    He wrte the bk Peter Pan.
    ⑤He mved t Lndn.
    A.①③②④⑤ B.⑤③②④①
    C.③⑤②④① D.③⑤①②④
    第二部分 非选择题 (60分)
    五、词汇运用 (共10小题; 每小题1分,计10分)
    根据句意,用括号中所给汉语提示或单词的适当形式填空,使句意完整,每空一词。
    66. The girl ges t the ________(dance) Club n Mndays.
    67. Linda with her parents usually______ (fly) kites in the park at the weekend.
    68. The flwers are fr these ______. (her)
    69. All the news________(be) gd. The ld man feels very happy.
    70. The funny stries make the child ______( feel) excited.
    71. Wh ________(其他的) did yur mther talk t ?
    72. Playing badmintn is ne f my (业余爱好).
    73. —May I cme in? — Of ______ (当然).Cme in please.
    74. I think (比赛) between Chinese ftball players are very interesting.
    75. She is ______ (的确,确实) happy t meet her best friend in Taishan Park.
    六、任务型阅读 (共10小题; 每小题1分,计10分)
    阅读下列短文,根据短文信息完成文后表格,每空一词。
    Weekends are shrt. They are nly tw days ut f a seven-day week. T make yur weekends lnger, yu need t plan it better. Here are sme ideas.
    *Get up at yur usual time. The biggest mistake (错误) is t think that the weekend is a gd chance
    t get up late. S getting up early can make yu feel the weekends are lnger.
    *Finish hmewrk as early as pssible. Nbdy wants t d hmewrk, but we have t d it. The earlier yu d it at the weekend, the better yu will feel. Yu can d hmewrk frm 7:00 a.m. t 9:00 a.m. n Saturday mrning. After ding yur hmewrk, yu can plan yur weekends well.
    *G ut t enjy weekends. Weekends feel lnger if yu g ut and enjy them. Think abut what yu like t d. Plan a sprts activity, fr example, playing ftball in the park. Yu can als plan t g t a museum, a z r a park.
    七、缺词填空 (共10小题; 每小题1分,计10分)
    根据短文内容及首字母,在下文空格处填入适当的词使短文完整,每空一词。
    One mrning there are sme leaves n the bedrm flr. Mrs Darling is surprised because it's a strange place t f___86___ leaves. W___87___ Wendy sees them, she smiles and says: “ Oh! It's Peter again ! He is a naughty by! He n___88___cleans his feet.”
    This is the f__89__ time that Mrs Darling hears abut Peter
    Wendy tells her mther that Peter Pan cmes int their b__80__ during the night. She desn't wake up but she knws Peter is t__91___.
    “N ne c__92__ cme int the huse withut kncking n the dr ,Wendy," Mrs Darling says.
    “I think Peter cmes in thrugh the windw, "replies Wendy.
    “But the windw is upstairs, my dear! It's t h___93__."
    “But the leaves are near the windw, "'says Wendy.
    And it is t__94__. The leaves are very near the windw. Perhaps Peter Pan cmes t the huse in Wendy's d__95___
    八、书面表达 (计30分)
    翻译句子 (共5小题; 每小题2分,计10分)
    将下列句子译成英语,并将所译的句子写在答题卡标有相应题号的横线上。
    96. 她每天早饭后读英语。
    97. 阅读是件乐事。
    98. 听音乐使我感觉很棒
    99. 在他的空闲时间他经常做什么?
    100. 这个短发女孩不知道如何照顾宠物。
    B. 写作 (计20分)
    101. 本周是学校的Sprts Week,班级要评选运动之星。假设你是Daniel, 来自七年级二班,也想参加评选。请根据提示,写一篇短文,帮Daniel介绍自己的运动情况,省略号部分请自由发挥。
    要求:1. 要求语句通顺,意思连贯,表达清楚,语法正确。
    2. 必须包括所有相关信息,可作适当发挥。
    3. 字数在60词个左右。
    Hell, everyne! My name is Daniel.
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    七年级英语质量检测答案
    第一部分 选择题 (80分)
    一、听力 (本大题共20小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    略。
    二、单项选择(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分,计 15 分)
    21-25 DBCDB 26-30 BBBAA 31-35 BCDCA
    三、完形填空 (共15小题; 每小题1分,计15分)
    36-40 BDACB 41-45 CDAAC 46-50 DBABD
    四、阅读理解(共15小题; 每小题2分,计15分)
    A) 51-53 BBB B) 54-57 DDBB C) 58-61 BBAD D) 62-65 CCAD
    第二部分 非选择题 (60分)
    五、词汇运用 (共10小题; 每小题1分,计10分)
    根据句意,用括号中所给汉语提示或单词的适当形式填空,使句意完整,每空一词。
    66. dancing 67. flies 68. heres 69. is 70. feel
    71. else 72. hbbies 73. curse 74. matches 75. really
    六、任务型阅读 (共10小题; 每小题1分,计10分)
    76. weekends 77. ideas 78. lnger 79. usual 80. get
    81. early 82. ding 83. Plan 84. ftball 85. t
    七、缺词填空 (共10小题; 每小题1分,计10分)
    86. find 87. When 88. never 89. first 90.bedrm
    91. there 92. can 93. high 94. true 95. dreams
    八、书面表达 (计30分)
    A. 翻译句子 (共5小题; 每小题2分,计10分)
    96. She reads English after breakfast every day.
    97. Reading is a pleasure.
    98. Listening t music makes me feel great.
    99. What des he ften d in his free time?
    100. The girl with shrt hair desn't knw hw t take care f her pet.
    B. 写作 (计20分)
    略。
    Kitty
    Frm
    13
    Age
    twelve years ld
    Her favurite rm
    14
    Her likes
    15 and watching TV
    100 Panda Express
    Universal City Plaza
    Welcme T Shanghai Disney Resrt
    Beverage Sft 22 Oz
    2.99
    Cmb Kung Pa Chick
    9.59
    SUB TOTAL
    12.58
    TAX
    1.13
    TOTAL
    13.71
    CASH (现金)
    15.0
    CHANGE
    1.29
    Items Sld
    2
    ◆◆◆ GUEST COPY ◆◆◆
    10/ 05/ 2017 13:14
    0125 001 0013 Lisa
    Hw t spend yur shrt 76.
    Sme 77.
    T make yu feel weekends are 78., yu shuld get up at yur 79. time thugh the weekend is a gd chance t 80. up late.
    The earlier yu d yur hmewrk at the weekend, the better yu will feel. S yu shuld finish it as 81.as pssible. Yu can plan yur weekends well 82. yu d yur hmewrk.
    83.a sprts activity, fr example, playing 84. in the park. Yu can als plan t g t a museum, a z r a park. If s, yu will 85. the weekends are lnger.
    姓名
    Daniel
    外貌
    戴眼镜、强壮
    最喜欢的运动
    足球
    打球时间
    周末
    与谁打球
    同班同学
    偶像
    梅西(Messi),因为他……
    喜欢足球的原因
    ……
    愿望
    ……,希望梦想成真。

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