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安徽省池州市青阳县2023-2024学年九年级上册期末英语模拟试题(附答案)
展开第一部分 听力(共四大题; 满分20分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共 5 小题; 每小题 1 分, 满分5 分)
你将听到五段对话, 每段对话后有一个小题, 请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项, 每段对话读两遍。
1. What des Peter want t be?
A. B. C.
2. What's the matter with Tny?
A. B. C.
3. Where did the wman meet Tm?
A. At a bus stp B. At schl C. In a library
4. Hw lng is the museum pen every day?
A. Fr six hurs B. Fr seven hurs C. Fr eight hurs
5. What's the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Waiter and custmer B. Mther and sn C. Teacher and student
II. 长对话理解(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
你将听到两段对话, 每段对话后有几个小题, 请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项, 每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话, 回答第6、7题
6. Hw many peple will cme t the dinner?
A. six B. eight C. ten
7. What time is the Sunday dinner?
A. 5:30 B. 6:00 C. 6:30
听下面一段对话, 回答第 8 至 10题
8. Wh did Bb fight with yesterday?
A. His classmate B. His cusin C. His neighbr
9. What des the wman ask Bb t d at first?
A. T call Jack up B. T write Jack a letter C. T buy Jack a gift
10. When is Jack's birthday?
A. Next Mnday B. Next Friday C. Next Saturday
III. 短文理解(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文, 短文后有五个小题, 请根据短文内容, 在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项, 短文读两遍。
11. Hw des the girl feel if her mther asks her t d smething by herself?
A. She gets happy. B. She gets sad. C. She gets angry.
12. Wh did the cleaning fr the girl that day?
A. The girl herself. B. Her friends. C. Her mther.
13. Whm des the girl see a dentist with?
A. Nbdy. B. Her classmate. C. Her father.
14. What's the girl like?
A. Friendly and sunny. B. Lazy and crazy. C. Clever and hard-wrking.
15. What d yu think f her mther?
A. She is strict with the girl. B. She is very busy. C. She is hard-wrking.
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5 小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文, 请根据短文内容, 写出下面表格中所缺的单词, 每空仅填一词, 短文读两遍。
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两大题; 满分30分)
V. 单项选择(共10小题; 每小题1分, 满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21. —Mrs. White, must I return the bk tmrrw?
—N, yu__________. Yu can keep it fr ne week.
A. can't B. mustn't C. needn't D. shuldn't
22. —Which f these tw scarves will yu take?
—I'll take__________ s that I can change smetimes.
A. bth B. either C. neither D. all
23. —Nt nly the yung but als the ld__________ getting interested in WeChat.
—I agree with yu. They can cmmunicate mre freely.
A. are B. be C. is D. am
24. —Hw abut playing basketball after schl?
—Sunds great. That's__________ what I wuld like t d.
A. exactly B. wisely C. suddenly D. friendly
25. The by lives a happy life, we ften hear him__________ frm time t time.
—Laughing can make us__________.
A. laugh; relax B. t laugh; relaxed C. t laugh; t relax D. laugh; relaxed
26. —Hw will peple help the children in pr areas?
—Many peple are willing t__________ their mney t the children in pr areas.
A. help ut B. give away C. sell ut D. keep away
27. —What d yu think f Rbert Green?
—He is a__________ man wh likes telling jkes. We all like him.
A. silent B. humrus C. helpful D. serius
28. Bad luck! I lcked the ffice__________. I had t call thers t send the key t me.
A. by mistake B. in ttal C. n purpse D. in silence
29. —Mike, why d yu cme here s late? The cncern__________ since half an hur ag?
—What a pity! N wnder all the singers have left.
A. has ended B. has been ver C. has started D. has been n
30. —Mm, will my grandparents cme at Sping Festival?
—__________. It's time fr us t get tgether.
A. Never mind. B. Nt at all C. It desn't matter. D. I hpe s.
VI. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
阅读下列短文, 从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
One day after schl, I went t the teacher's ffice, but nbdy was there. As I was abut t leave, I nticed a piece f paper n the flr. I 31 and saw the wrds "FINAL-TERM EXAMINATION" at the tp. I put the paper int my schlbag 32 and ran ut f the rm.
After I came back hme, I tk ut the paper quickly. It was the exam paper f my 33 subject, Histry. I felt excited. I started t wrk n the answer. I had 34 answered any questins s seriusly befre!
On the day f the Histry exam, I went int the classrm cnfidently. I dreamt f 35 the highest mark in the whle grade and culd nt help smiling. "I've let the teacher dwn fr s many times, this time I will give everyne a big 36 " I thught.
Hwever, when I gt the paper, t my surprise, all the questins were 37 . I felt nervus. In the end, I almst left the paper undne. After the exam, I ran t the tilet, 38 the paper and carefully read it frm the tp. Oh! It was last year's exam paper!
I 39 ding such a silly thing. I tld my teacher the truth and I prmised t be 40 . Frm then n, I wrked harder than ever befre.
31. A. picked up it B. picked it up C. picked up them D. picked them up
32. A. badly B. secretly C. nrmally D. nearly
33. A. mst B. least C. best D. wrst
34. A. ever B. never C. always D. ften
35. A. get B. gets C. getting D. gt
36. A. surprise B. influence C. material D. praise
37. A. right B. wrng C. same D. different
38. A. tk ut B. tk away C. tk back D. tk dwn
39. A. agreed B. preferred C. regretted D. decided
40. A. plite B. implite C. hnest D. dishnest
B
I'm s trubled these days. We are taught that using vilence(暴力)is nt a gd 41 t slve prblems. Fr example, last week I thught abut 42 my friend fr winning a beautiful stne while we were playing tgether. After sme thught, I talked with him 43 and we came t an agreement finally.
If tw adults 44 with each ther, and they have a fight in rder t 45 . Is it all right? When tw cuntries disagree, they ften start a war. Why is vilence used nt kay at hme, at schl, r in yur cuntry but kay between 46 ? S many peple have been killed 47 wars, even small children and babies.
A war is a great vilence, like tw peple fighting fr a stne, just 48 bigger. Adults say they are fighting wars t slve prblems and make peace. But can yu really "make peace" 49 s many peple? Adults teach us t be 50 , nt t hurt peple, and nt t kill. Why dn't they act as what they say?
41. A. way B. day C. news D. man
42. A. fighting f B. fighting with C. fighting ver D. fighting t
43. A. instead B. instead f C. thugh D. even thugh
44. A. agree B. disagree C. like D. dislike
45. A. win B. wins C. wn D. winning
46. A. children B. friends C. students D. cuntries
47. A. lead B. lead t C. because D. because f
48. A. many B. much C. mre D. mst
49. A. by helping B. by killing C. by dying D. by dealing
50. A. kind B. clever C. awful D. utging
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题, 满分45分)
VII. 补全对话(共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分。)
据对话内容, 从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 其中有两项为多余选项。
A: Hi, Tm! What did yu d during the Natinal Day hliday?
B: Hi, I just came back frm Hangzhu. 51
A: Ww, that sunds great! 52
B: It was amazing! The cmpetitin was very exciting and the city f Hangzhu was als beautiful.
A: What abut the diving(跳水)cmpetitin? 53
B: Yes, I did. I especially lved the athlete called Quan Hngchan.
A: Quan Hngchan? She's very talented, isn't she?
B: Yes, she is.
A: 54
B: Yes, the fd was delicius! There were s many different kinds f fd t try.
A: That's great! That sunds like a great experience.
B: 55
51. __________ 52. __________ 53. __________ 54. __________ 55. __________
VIII.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分。)
第一节阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
56. Which curse d students have frm 1:30 p.m. t 3:00 p.m.?
A. Traditinal Chinese Art B. Traditinal Chinese Music
C. Traditinal Chinese Bks D. Traditinal Chinese Fd
57. What can students d in the music rm?
①learn abut paper cutting ②learn t play erhu, dizi and pipa
③act ut the stries in grups ④enjy traditinal Chinese music
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ③④ D. ②④
58. What's the purpse f this pster?
A. T invite students t experience Chinese culture and art.
B. T teach students hw t make Chinese fd.
C. T help students learn Chinese music
D. T intrduce traditinal Chinese bks.
B
DNA is the whle "map" f the human bdy. It is smething that all humans have, and it tells the bdy what t d.
Peple have been trying t understand the human bdy fr a lng time. In 1860, Mr. Mendel discvered why we lk similar t ther peple in ur family. It is because f small things called genes(基因)in ur bdy. In 1953, tw scientists, Watsn and Crick, fund ut that thse small parts are real messages. They are written in the DNA with a special language.
In 1961, anther tw scientists fund the first "wrd" that they culd understand in that language. It shws hw DNA tells the cell(细胞)t build its parts. S far, scientists have fund all the wrds in the DNA map, but we d nt understand what they all d. By understanding what just ne "wrd" means, humans can d a lt f things that we culdn't d befre. Fr example, we can help t save peple frm several illnesses and make better medicine t help sick peple. The mre we understand, the mre dctrs will be able t d. S mst peple hpe that this will help dctrs in their wrk greatly.
59. Why d humans lk similar t their parents?
A. Because f small things called genes in ur bdy. B. Because f the DNA map.
C. Because f Watsn and Crick. D. Because f Mr. Mendel's discvery.
60. What did the tw scientists discver in 1961?
A. The DNA map.
B. The small parts called genes.
C. The special language f DNA.
D. The first "wrd" in the DNA language they culd understand.
61. Mst peple hpe that the understanding f DNA can
A. help the cell t build its parts. B. understand every wrd in the DNA map.
C. make medicine fr peple. D. help dctrs in their wrk greatly.
62. In which part f a magazine can yu read the passage?
A. Science B. Sprts C. Culture D. Histry
C
This yung wman in a helicpter(直升机)is Xu Fengcan. She is a famus pilt. Xu was brn in Octber, 1999. She is frm Jinhua, Zhejiang. Her parents are bth teachers. She lves reading and studying. She is als gd at sprts and she has a great talent fr running. As a child, she dreamed f being a pilt, she saw the green unifrms as her chice, and the blue sky her dream.
In 2017, after leaving high schl, Xu jined the army and studied in the Army Aviatin Academy(陆军航空学院). Xu made great effrts n the way t grwing int a real pilt. She nt nly needed t learn flying skills, but als trained t have a strng bdy. Nw, she is famus as the first female pilt fr finishing a sl flight(单人飞行)successfully.
"Finally, I realized my dream f flying, and I'm s prud t be a female pilt," Xu said. Xu's stry has becme a gd example fr us yung peple. Her success shws that with enugh curage and effrts, dreams can cme true.
63. What was Xu Fengcan's dream when she was a child?
A. T be a teacher B. T be a dctr
C. T be a pilt D. T be an athlete
64. What is Xu Fengcan famus fr?
A. Having a great talent fr running. B. Winning a sprts cmpetitin.
C. Having a strng bdy. D. Finishing a sl flight successfully.
65. Frm Xu Fengcan's stry, we can learn that if we want t make ur dream cme true, we shuld have enugh_____________.
A. curage B. effrts C. success D. bth A and B
D
Ging green makes a big difference in ur life. I'm Jessica Wng. Tday I'll tell yu what my family des every day t save the earth. It's reprted that a cmmn family prduces mre than ne tn f rubbish a year.
In rder t prtect the envirnment and save mney, my family has recycled many things. On the ne hand, we cllect used things every day, such as paper, bttles and bxes, and put them int different cases. Then they are sent t a recycling center. Finally, they are treated and can be used again. Recycling will help reduce a lt f waste. On the ther hand, we use ld clthes t make different kinds f bags. I especially like t use ld jeans t make bags. These cute and useful bags are ppular with yung peple. As a result, I pened a small shp and set up a website t sell them nline last mnth.
What's mre, my parents and my brther ften g t wrk by bike. If it rains, they'll take the bus. We're als ging t grw ur wn vegetables, keep hens. Sn, we'll be able t have vegetables and eggs fr meals. We are prtecting the envirnment in ur way.
66. Hw much rubbish des a cmmn family prduce a year?
A. mre than ne tn B. less than ne tn
C. mre than ne kilgram D. less than ne kilgram
67. What are the bags made f in Jessica's shp?
A. paper B. bttles C. bxes D. ld clthes
68. Why des the authr's family recycle? Because they want t_________.
A. T prtect the envirnment and save mney.
B. T prduce the rubbish.
C. T make mney by recycling.
D. T make cute and useful bags frm ld clthes.
69. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. They sell many things every day.
B. Jessica thinks that Recycling will help prduce a lt f waste.
C. The bags they made are ppular with yung peple.
D. Jessica's brther ften ges t wrk by car.
E
Nwadays, mre and mre peple have received all kinds f strange calls. If yu are nt careful, yu will fall int a telephne fraud(电信诈骗)and even lse yur life. Over 1,546 millin peple have fallen int telephne frauds in the last three years. The number is increasing. It is reprted that abut 438 millin peple met telephne frauds last year.
What is a telephne fraud? It is a kind f fraud ver the phne. The cheaters manage t cmmunicate with yu n the phne. Then they advise yu t buy smething cheap r ask yu smething abut yur persnal infrmatin. When yu meet such a case, perhaps yu are facing a fraud.
Generally speaking, there are sme typical ways f frauds such as pretending(假装)t be yur family, friends and ther peple yu knw in rder t get yur mney; asking yu fr sme mney t get a prize; sme cheaters may even frce yu t ffer them sme mney t avid being hurt.
Hw can we stay away frm the frauds? First, remember t keep yur persnal infrmatin safe and dn't believe what yu hear easily; Secnd, dn't be thirsty fr the cheap things and think twice befre yu act; Last but nt least, if yu fall int such a fraud, yu must keep calm and call the plice t ask fr help at nce.
70. Hw many peple have fallen int the telephne frauds in the last three years?
A. 1,546 millin B. 546 millin C. 3 millin D. 1,438 millin
71. Accrding t the passage, if yu meet a fraud, yu must_________.
A. let nbdy knw it B. call the plice
C. cheat thers D. believe the fraud
72. Match the title with each paragraph.
a. The understanding f a telephne fraud.
b. Prtect yurself frm the telephne frauds.
c. Be against the telephne frauds
d. Sme typical ways f the telephne frauds.
e. The increasing f the telephne frauds
A. ①-a ②-b ③-c ④-d B. ①-d ②-e ③-c ④-b
C. ①-e ②-a ③-d ④-b D. ①-e ②-c ③-d ④-a
第二节 阅读下面短文, 并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题的字数要求)
F
There is an ld saying: "Take the time t stp and smell the flwers." I think we shuld als take the time t plant flwers.
My grandmther knew just hw t d that. She grew flwers with sil(土壤), water and lve, s her back garden was filled with beautiful flwers. She wuld smile when she saw the sun shine dwn n them. In her frnt garden she planted flwers, t. Yu culd see red, white, and yellw flwers in it. My mm and I used t walk arund the flwers and enjy their smells. Beautiful butterflies flew dwn n them.
Grandma nt nly planted flwers in the gardens but als planted flwers in ur hearts. Her delicius dinners made with lve encuraged us. Her sweet smiles always made us happy. Her hugs and kisses were the sunshine that kept ur wn lve grwing day after day.
Take the time t plant a few flwers yurself tday. Shw yur smiles, kindness and lve. Plant yur wishes, talents and pleasure. Make this wrld brighter and brighter with yur sunshine.
73. What did grandma grw flwers with?(不超过 5 词)
___________________________________________________________________________________
74. What did the writer and her mther use t d in the garden?(不超过 15 词)
___________________________________________________________________________________
75. What des the underlined wrd "sunshine" refer t?(不超过 5 词)
___________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题, 满分 25 分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题; 每小题1分, 共5分。)
76. There is n d_________(疑问)that healthy eating habits are imprtant.
77. Tm likes t play the guitar, but his brther p_________(更喜欢)t play the pian.
78. Jack has been a_________(缺席)six times this mnth.
79. We must stay tgether w_________(无论什么)happens.
80. Tny s__________(得分)twice in the ftball match yesterday.
X. 书面表达(20分)
告诫青年人“艰难困苦, 玉汝于成。强者, 总是从挫折中奋起、永不气馁”。每个人的成长都是一种蜕变的过程, 从幼稚走向成熟, 从逆境走向成功。初中三年你有过逆势前行克服困难和的经历吗? 请以"The harder, The better"为题, 写一篇书面表达讲述你的一次经历和感悟。
要求: 1. 确定主题; 表达内容积极向上;
2. 开头已给出, 字数80—100;
3. 作文中不要出现考生和相关人物的真实校名和姓名。
提示问题: What was the difficulty?
What did yu d t vercme the difficulty?
What have yu learned frm it?
The harder, The better
In ur life, we may meet with different kinds f difficulties.
___________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________
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_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
英语试题答案
第一部分 听力(共四大题;满分20分)
1—5 CBACA6—10 CCACC11—15 BAACA
16. seats 17.6:00 18.quiet 19.bring 20.dr
第二部分 语言知识运用(共两大题;满分30分)
Ⅴ. 单项选择(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
21—25 CAAAD 26—30 BBABD
Ⅵ. 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分,满分20分)
31—35 BBDBC 36—40 ADACC
41—45 ABABA 46—50 DDBBA
第三部分 阅读理解(共两大题,满分45分)
Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题; 每小题1分,满分5分。)
51—55 GDECA
Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分。)
56—58 CDA 59—62 ADDA
63—65 CDD 66—69 ADAC 70—72 ABC
73. With sil, water and lve
74. They used t walk arund the flwers and enjy their smells
75. Grandma`s hugs and kisses
第四部分 写(共四大题,满分25分)
Ⅸ. 单词拼写(共5小题; 每小题1分,共5分。)
76. dubt 77. prefers 78. absent 79. whatever 80. scred
Ⅹ. 书面表达(共计20分)
The harder, The better
In ur life, we may meet with different kinds f difficulties. But hw can we deal with them? Here is ne f my wn experiences.
When I first went int the middle schl, I was t shy t cmmunicate with thers. And I was afraid t ask thers questins that I culdn't wrk ut. I turned t my parents fr help and they gave me useful suggestins. They tld me that I needed t be brave t talk t thers and make new friends. I tried my best t fllw their suggestins and finally I did that.
Nw I understand that I need t learn hw t get ver difficulties by myself with cnfidence.
The Sunny Self-Study Centre
Rms
There are twenty self-study rms and each rm has thirty 16 .
Opening hurs
Frm 17 p. m. t 10:00 p. m. every day.
Rules
★Keep 18 in the self-study rms.
★D nt 19 any fd here.
★Clse the 20 if yu are the last t leave.
A: That's fr sure!
B: I'm srry t hear that.
C: Did yu enjy the fd there?
D: What was the Asian Games like?
E: Did yu watch it?
F: Sure, I'd lve t!
G: I watched the Asian Games.
Chinese Culture Time
Cme and jin us fr an exciting event abut Chinese Traditinal Culture at ur schl! We have planned a lt f activities that are perfect fr middle schl students like yu.
Traditinal Chinese Art
Activities:
★learn abut paper cutting
★learn t make clay art pieces
Time: 8:00 a. m.—9:30 a. m.
Place: Art rm
Teacher: Ms. Wang
Traditinal Chinese Music
Activities:
★learn t play erhu, dizi and pipa
★enjy traditinal Chinese music
Time: 10:00 a. m.—11:30 a. m.
Place: Music rm
Teacher: Mrs. Li
Traditinal Chinese Bks
Activities:
★learn abut Jurney t the West and A Dream f Red Mansins
★act ut the stries in grups
Time: 1:30 p. m.—3:00 p. m.
Place: Schl Library
Teacher: Mr. Cheng
Traditinal Chinese Fd
Activities:
★taste traditinal Chinese fd
★learn t make jiazi and zngzi
Time: 3:30 p. m.—5:00 a. m.
Place: Schl Dining
Hall
Teacher: Mr. Liu
Dn't miss this chance t experience the amazing Chinese culture and art. We can't wait t see yu at the event!
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