2022年广东云浮中考英语真题及答案
展开一、听说应用(本大题共30小题,每小题1分,共30分,分为A、B、C、D四部分,E部分为情景对话)略
二、语法选择(本大题共10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
请通读下面短文,掌握其大意,根据语法和上下文连贯的要求,从每小题3个选项中选出一个最佳的答案,并将答题卡对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Wang Yiyi is an excellent Beijing Opera (京剧) artist. She was brn and raised 31 village in Hebei prvince. She lved singing and dancing 32 she was a little girl. She was her music 33 favrite student. One day, the teacher tld her 34 a test. If she passed the test, she culd enter a Beijing Opera schl.
Wang Yiyi passed the test 35 and became a student f that schl. She wrked very 36 ……. Students in the schl 37 t get up at 6:45 a.m. t practice their basic……But she gt up at 6:00 in the mrning. And she was always the last ne t g t bed. Smetimes she was tired that she felt like crying, she wuld find 38 quiet place and cried alud. She 39 herself that she still had a lng way t g and that she shuld keep practicing……
Years went by. Finally, 40 hard wrk paid ff. She gt int a…… her life as a Beijing Opera actress.
31. A. inB. frC.with
32. A.ifB. whenC. because
33. A.teacher B.teachersC.teacher’s
34. A.takeB.t takeC.taking
35. A.successB.successfulC.successfully
36. A.hardB.harder C.the hardest
37. A.askB.askedC.were asked
38. A.a B.anC.the
39. A.tellB.tellsC.tld
40. A.sheB.herC.hers
三、完形填空(本大题有10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
请通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后在每小题所给的四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。并将答题卡对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
Almst every Saturday mrning, Mlly pulls a table int her frnt yard. On the table she lays ut sme 41 in seasn, such as carrts and tmates. They are all frm her garden and free fr her neighbrs t 42 . “It’s just lvely, like yu walk by and get a beautiful gift arund the crner,” said a neighbr.
Mlly started ding this in the summer f 2020. Earlier that year, a fire brke ut in her huse. Mlly’s 43 had a hard time. “Peple in the cmmunity came t 44 . They brught us fd and ften called t make sure we were ding fine. I was deeply 45 ,” Mlly said.
Then the pandemic(疫情) came. Mlly and her family had much time t 46 in their garden. They decided t 47 what they grew in their garden.
N ne knew abut it at first. But 48 , peple gt int the habit f cming arund. They wuld stp by and leave with sme vegetables. Mlly ‘s yard became a 49 place.
One thing Mlly has learned frm this experience is that peple have t wrk tgether when days are 50 . She is glad that lve has spread in this cmmunity.
41. A . fruits B . flwers C . leaves D . vegetables
42. A . lk at B . take away C . give up D . thrw away
43. A . family B . class C . ffice D . team
44. A . cry B . see C . help D . rest
45. A . mved B . interested C . tired D . bred
46. A . play B . wrk C . sleep D . dance
47. A . eat B . sell C . share D . ck
48. A . sadly B . slwly C . badly D . carefully
49. A . clean B . small C . terrible D . ppular
50. A . difficult B . sunny C . shrt D . cl
四、阅读理解(本大题共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
请阅读A、B两篇短文,从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
A
51. What can the smart devices in Paragraph 1d?
A. Farming.B. Business.C. Husewrk.D. Schlwrk.
52. What des Little Q lk like?
A B C D
53. When can a visitr enter the science center?
A. On Mnday mrning,B. On Sunday mrning.
C. On Mnday afternn. D. On Sunday afternn
54. Wh can be allwed t visit the center?
A. A man with a cat. B. An 8-year-ld by alne.
C. A man with his 3-year-ld sn.D. A girl with fd frm utside.
55. Hw can a visitr bk a ticket?
A. By making a phne call.B. By sending an e-mail.
C. By visiting the website.D. By ging t the ticket ffice.
B
Jerry is a wrld-famus muntain climber. He has climbed many high muntains in the wrld. Starting in 2015, he and his friends spent tw years n an adventure(探险)in Suth America, cvering 7,800 miles. He was even named Adventure f the Year by a famus gegraphy magazine in 2018.
Althugh Jerry had achieved great success, he didn't feel fulfilled. He asked himself, “Is it enugh t climb the highest muntains? Am I ding smething helpful? Hw can I turn my adventures int smething that can help the wrld?”
Jerry learned that scientists need plans, rcks and water samples(样本) frm the places far away t d research. But scientists can’t get there themselves as such places are hard t reach——nly the bravest adventurers can make it. Jerry thught himself culd d smething t help. He then came up with an idea. He set up a team f tp adventures t cllect samples fr scientists. By studying the samples, scientists culd knw mre abut the earth and find ways t prtect it.
Recently Jerry and his adventurer friends have discvered a special plant life f Muntain Qmlangma . The samples they brught back have helped scientists hw plants live in extreme(极端的)cnditin.
Fr Jerry, this kind f adventure is mst satisfying. “Such adventures had made us see life in a different way. Nw, being the best climber isn’t imprtant fr me. What matters is ding smething helpful while climbing the muntains. There is still much mre we can d.” Jerry said t a newspaper.
what is paragraph 1 mainly abut?
Jerry’s friends.B. Jerry's achievements.
C. High muntains. D. A gegraphy magazine.
what des the underline wrd “fulfilled” in paragraph 2 mean?
Satisfied B. lnely C. Patient D. Wrried
why did Jerry set a team f tp adventures?
T make friends. B. T help scientists.
C. T study plants. D. T train scientists.
Jerry’s and his friends adventurers has changed_________.
their hbbies. B. their friendship.
C. their understanding f life. D. their living cnditins.
Which can be the best title fr the passage?
A. Dangerus Muntains Climbing. B. Imprtant Scientific Discveries.
C. Plants Fund n High Muntains. D. Adventures Turned int Smething Greater.
C
配对阅读。左栏是五则短信,右栏是七则回复。请将短信和回复进行匹配,并将答题卡上对应题目所选的选项涂黑。
五、短文填空(本大题共10小题,每小题1. 5分,共15分)
请阅读下面短文,在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词,并将答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Wuld yu like t start yur day with a cup f tea? If the answer is 66 , yu may have the same habit as many peple.
Yu may nt knw 67 ppular tea is. Amng all kinds f drinks, tea is ne f chices. Peple like it because it is 68 fr their health.
Tea is mstly prduced 69 Asian cuntries like China and India. Chinese peple started t drink tea as early as 5,000 years 70 . At that time, peple made tea in a simple way just put fresh tea leaves int ht 71 .
Tea wasn't intrduced int Eurpe until the early 17th century. And nw it has 72 ppular in Eurpe and America. Peple there like t 73 tea with sugar r milk in it. As the ppulatin f tea drinkers gets larger, tea business is getting 74 imprtant than befre.
The first Internatinal Tea Day was n May 21st, 2020. Since then, peple have celebrated 75 every year. The Day makes peple realize the imprtance f tea wrkers
六、读写综合(本大题分为A、B两部分,共25分)
A.回答问题(本题共5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
请阅读下面短文,根据所提供的信息,回答5个问题,要求所写答案语法正确,语义完整切题,并把答案写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
Accrding t Dr. Yang, when is it better t exercise, in the day r at night?
________________________________________
What is Dr. Yang’s research abut?
________________________________________
What des Dr. Yang usually d after he gets up?
________________________________________
Hw ften d students d utdr exercise in many schls?
________________________________________
Wh will sme students invite t jin in their daily runs?
________________________________________
B.书面表达(本题15分)
请根据要求完成短文写作,并将作文写在答题卡对应题目的答题位置上。
假如你叫李明,你所在的跑步俱乐部拟组织一次师生户外跑活动。请你写信给外教布朗先生,邀请他参加此次活动,内容包括:
写信意图和邀请原因:
活动路线和距离
活动注意事项(至少两点)
作文要求:
不能照抄原文:不得在作文中出现真实校名、地点和考生的真实姓名。
语句连贯,词数80词左右。作文的开头和结尾已经给出,不计入总词数,也不必抄写在答题卡上。
Dear Mr. Brwn,
Hw are yu ding? Our running club will g fr a run this Saturday mrning._________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Best regards,
Li Ming
参考答案
31.本题选A
32.本题选B
33.本题选C
34.本题选B
35.本题选B
36.本题选A
37.本题选C
38.本题选A
39.本题选C
40.本题选C
41.本题选D
42.本题选B
43.本题选A
44.本题选C
45.本题选A
46.本题选B
47.本题选C
48.本题选B
49.本题选B
50.本题选A
51.选D
52.选D
53.选D
54.选C
55.选A
56.选B
57.选A
58.选B
59.选C
60.选D
61.选B
62.选A
63.选E
64.选G
65.选B
66.yes
67.hw
68.gd
69.in
70.ag
71.water
72.became(注意has+p.p.)
73.“drink”
74.“mre”
75.“it”
76.In the day
77.It’s abut sprts and sleep
78.He usually takes a walk utside
79.Once r twice a day
80.Their teachers
81.参考写作思路:
第一段接原文写写信意图和邀请原因,意图是邀请他来参加这次的活动,原因可以说是“ding exercise makes us healthy”。
第二段写活动路线和距离及注意事项。此处可以把要花的时间写上去。注意事项可以说要自备水(原因可以是俱乐部不提供),还可以写要注意要保证身上没有严重的疾病,最后说我期待收到你的回复。
范文仅供参考:
Dear Mr. Brwn,
Hw are yu ding? Our running club will g fr a run this Saturday mrning. I write this letter in rder t invite yu t jin us because ding exercise makes us healthy.
We will arrive at N. 1 Middle Schl befre 8 a.m. n Friday and finished ur run in Peple's Square. It's abut 5 kilmeters lng. The activity takes 2 hurs t carry ut. I als need t tell yu sme tips. One is that the club wn’t prvide water fr us, s yu have t bring yur wn water, the ther is that yu need t make sure that there isn’t any serius illness in yur bdy. I’m lking frward t yur reply.
Best regards,
Li Ming
Imagine waking up t find a Cup f cffee ready and flr swept. With smart devices(装置) cntrlled by AI. All husewrk can be dne while yu are asleep.
Nw yur kids can try these devices at the small hme, shw in ur cmmunity science center frm August 1st t August 14th. Here in the center we have many fun activities. Children can als try ut cleaning rbt Little Q. It is a cute rbt with a rund head, tw big eyes and tw lng legs. It’s like a big ty, Yur children will lve it.
Opening Hurs: 1:00 p.m.- 9:00 p.m, frm Tuesday t Sunday, clsed n Mnday.
Visitrs: Peple f all ages are welcme. Children under 12 shuld cme alng with their parents. N pets are allwed.
Fd & Drinks: N utside fd r drinks. Visitrs can buy fd and drinks in the center.
Tickets: Please call 769520 t bk a ticket. Kindly nte that Yu CAN’T bk a ticket
n ur website r thrugh e-mail. And it is NOT pssible t buy a ticket at ur ticket ffice as it is clsed.
61. Tara, culd yu buy sme milk at the supermarket when yu are back frm schl this afternn?
62. Alice, I’m afraid I can’t jin the shpping trip tmrrw. My cusin is cming t visit me.
63. Srry, Tny. I missed the train and I’ll be late. If yu get t the restaurant n time, culd yu please rder range juice and salad fr me?
64. Hi, Peter. Has yur leg gt any better? We will have a match next week. Hpe yu can cme and watch it!
65. Tm, the sprts shp n West Street phned. They have repaired yur basketball shes!
A. What a pity! Shall we meet smetime next week? After all, shpping wn’t be fun withut yu.
B. We still have sme in the kitchen. I bught a bttle f milk the day befre yesterday and we haven’t pened it yet.
C. Great! I’ll cllect them n my way t wrk tmrrw mrning. Many thanks.
D. Sure. There is a fruit shp n my way hme. What wuld yu like me t buy? What abut sme bananas?
E. Take yur time. I will be there in a few minutes. What salad wuld yu like, fruit salad r vegetable salad?
F. Yu can take N.27 bus t my huse. Get ff at East Street. There is a shp near the bus stp. I will wait fr yu there.
G. Thanks. It is getting much better nw. My dctr said I culd return t the sprts field next mnth. Anyway, I’ll be there next week.
We all knw ding exercise makes us healthy. But many f us dn’t knw which is better, t exercise in the day r at night. Dr. Yang, a famus sleep dctr, advises peple t d utdr exercise fr at least 30 minutes a day in the daytime.
Dr. Yang has been ding research n sprts and sleep fr years. He finds ut that thse wh exercise in natural light fr half an hur every day have better sleep and mre energy(能量). Dr. Yang himself gets up at 6:30 a.m. Then he usually takes a walk utside. Smetimes, he walks his tw dgs in the park in the afternn with his sunglasses left at hme.
Many schls put Dr. Yang’s findings int practice. They made it a rule that students shuld d utdr exercise nce r twice a day. In sme schls, students even frmed utdr running clubs. After sme time, mst students said they benefited(受益)a lt frm utdr exercise. Nw they sleep better and cncentrate(集中)mre than their studies.
Sme students are nw thinking abut inviting their teachers t jin them in their daily runs.
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