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78， 四川省广元市朝天区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题
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这是一份78， 四川省广元市朝天区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题，共12页。试卷主要包含了本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷，共四部分等内容，欢迎下载使用。
（试卷总分：150分 检测时间：120 分钟）
说明：
1.全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题），共四部分。
3.考生必须在答题卡上答题，写在试卷上无效。选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂答案，非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨迹签字笔答题。
4.考试结束，答题卡统一收回，试卷考生自己保留。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题共100分）
第一部分 听力测试（共2节；30分）
第一节：（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读有关小题：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
1. What did Jack d last weekend?
A. B. C.
2. Wh is Nick’s sister?
A. B. C.
3. What’s Dave’s dream?
A. B. C.
4. What des Jill’s sister like?
A. B. C.
5. What des the rbt lk like?
A. B. C.
第二节：（共15题，每小题1.5分，共22.5分）您看到的资料都源自我们平台，家威杏 MXSJ663 免费下载听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读各小题：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. What will Jane be in ten years?
A. A writer.B. A player.C. A driver.
7. Where will Jane live in ten years?
A. In Chengdu.B. In Beijing.C. In Shanghai.
听第7段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. What is Mlly studying fr?
A. A math test.B. An English test.C. A histry test.
9. Is the by gd at math?
A. Yes, he is.B. N, he isn’t.C. Yes, he isn’t.
10. When is Mlly ging t the by’s hme?
A. Next week.B. This Friday.C. This Saturday.
听第8段对话，回答第11至12小题。
11. What des Tina think f playing sccer?
A. It’s the easiest.B. It’s the mst bring.C. It’s the mst relaxing.
12. What des Tina want t d tnight?
A. T take a walk.B. T play sccer.C. T g t a party.
听第9段对话，回答第13至15小题。
13. What des Kelly want t d this Saturday?
A. G camping.B. Climb the muntains.C. G t the cinema.
14. When is Andy ging t have English lessns?
A. On Sunday mrning.B. On Saturday afternn.C. On Saturday mrning.
15. Wh is ill in hspital?
A. Andy’s father.B. Andy’s grandfather.C. Kelly’s grandmther.
听下面一段独白，回答第16至20小题。
16. Why was Tny unhappy?
A. He failed his exam.B. He had bad grades.C. He had few friends.
17. First, what shuld Tny d?
A. Friendly.B. Mre active.C. Mre utging.
18. What shuld say when yu meet thers?
A. Gdbye.B. Hell.C. Nice day.
19. Hw many pieces f advice des Snia give Tny?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.
20. What will make peple think Tny is smart and great?
A. Ding sprts.B. Studying hard.C. Being very friendly.
第二部分 基础知识运用（共2节；30分）
第一节：单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从下列各小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入题中空缺处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
21.—Mark, yu did a gd jb in China’s Gt Talent.
— ________.
A. Thank yuB. Yu’re welcmeC. That’s all rightD. N prblem
22.—I dn’t have ________ t buy this car. It’s s expensive.
—But it’s really nice. I’ll buy ne when I am ________.
A. enugh mney; enugh richB. enugh mney; rich enugh
C. mney enugh; pr enughD. mney enugh; enugh pr
23.—When did yu g t bed last night?
—I didn’t g t bed ________ I finish reading the nvel.
A. sB. thughC. untilD. because
24. It’s dangerus fr us ________ t much infrmatin abut urselves n the Internet.
A. t useB. t putC. t giveD. t get
25. I think ________ cars we use, ________ pllutin there will be.
A. fewer; lessB. less; fewerC. the less; the fewerD. the fewer; the less
26. I’m waiting fr my friend. If he ________, I will g swimming.
A. desn’t cmeB. wn’t cmeC. will cmeD. dn’t cme
27.—There ________ tw ftball matches n TV if the rain stps tmrrw afternn.
—Really? That’s great.
A. will haveB. are ging t beC. is ging t beD. are ging t have
28. The ld man arrived ________ the village ________ a rainy night.
A. at; nB. n; atC. in; atD. n; in
29.—Can I help yu, Mm?
—I need sme f the bananas. Yu can first ________.
A. cut them upB. cut it upC. cut up themD. cut up it
30.—Culd yu give me ________ n English learning?
—Certainly. First yu shuld ________ English every day.
A. any advice; speakB. many advices; tell
C. sme advice; speakD. a few advice; talk
第二节：完形填空（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
阅读下列短文，然后从后面各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入文中空缺处的最佳选项。并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
(A)
Fifteen-year-ld James Parker is a table tennis player. He can’t walk, but he can mve very fast in his wheelchair (轮椅), and he’s training t g much 31 .
James was in a bad car accident (交通事故) at the age f six. Nw he can’t use his 32 , and he has t use a wheelchair. James “drives” the chair 33 his arms. He plays vide games, 34 he als plays basketball with his brthers.
But his favrite 35 is the table tennis. James practices every day fr an hur after schl. “I want t 36 a gld medal (金牌),” he says. “I’m sure I can d it. And I want ther kids like me t think that they can win, t.”
James’ huse has a special ramp (坡道) s that he can g in and ut f the huse 37 . At Adams High Schl in Champaign, Illinis, James is a (n) 38 student. All the teachers and students like him. He wrks hard, 39 he has t sit at the back f the classrm because f his chair. He desn’t 40 that at all. “I like it back there,” he says.
31. A. fartherB. clserC. fasterD. mre slwly
32. A. handsB. legsC. armsD. ears
33. A. frmB. frC. withD. under
34. A. andB. butC. rD. s
35. A. placeB. sprtC. subjectD. gift
36. A. giveB. keepC. winD. chse
37. A. seriuslyB. quietlyC. happilyD. easily
38. A. lazyB. nisyC. imprtantD. ppular
39. A. ifB. althughC. becauseD. when
40. A. feelB. wrryC. mindD. stand
(B)
The village super league (联盟), r “Cun Cha” is a sccer game amng different villages in Rngjiang, Guizhu. It makes sccer mre 41 than befre. Many peple came t Guizhu t watch it and mre than 5,000,000 peple watched it 42 the Internet. All the players cme frm different ethnic (民族的) grups such as Mia, Dng and Ya. Althugh they are different, they fight fr their cmmn lve— 43
Like “Cun Cha”, anther village sprts event called “CunBA” in Guizhu is als ppular. 44 yu are a basketball lver, yu can’t miss it. This year, ver 200 grups 45 in “CunBA”. After a lng-time fight, the 46 came ut n March 27th. Bth “Cun Cha” and “CunBA” have a lng histry dating back t 1940s. At that time, life was hard. The villagers 47 had special places t d sprts. Hwever, difficulties didn’t stp 48 . They kept ding sprts.
Nw, cmpared with spending time ging nline, mre and mre peple 49 t d sprts. The 50 f a survey shw that ding sprts truly makes a difference t peple’s health. S, start ding sprts befre it’s t late.
41. A. seriusB. famusC. usefulD. kind
42. A. fB. inC. withD. n
43. A. table tennisB. basketballC. Ping-p ng ballD. ftball
44. A. AlthughB. BecauseC. IfD. As
45. A. finishedB. sharedC. cmpetedD. shwed
46. A. winnerB. perfrmerC. reprterD. peple
47. A. alwaysB. hardlyC. smetimesD. ften
48. A. n neB. smeneC. anyneD. sme
49. A. seemB. lkC. dislikeD. like
50. A. resultsB. gradesC. PintsD. shws
第三部分 阅读理解（共2节；40分）
第一节：阅读选择（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
(A)
With the help f apps (应用程序), we can use ur mbile phnes t d many things. Here are parts f the mst ppular apps.
51. Ctrip is a useful app fr ______.
A. rdering mealsB. bking ticketsC. drawing picturesD. learning English
52. What can we knw abut frm Ximalaya Reading?
A. B. C. D.
53. Mr. and Mrs. White use Baby Bus t help their tw-year-ld sn practice ________.
A. speakingB. walkingC. runningD. swimming
54. What can we even find by the Meituan app?
A. Fairy tales.B. Plan e tickets.C. English sngs.D. Wnderful KTVs.
55. T remember English wrds in a fun way, students can chse ________.
A. CtripB. Baby BusC. Shanbay WrdD. Meituan
(B)
We celebrated the China Hanfu Day frm April 28th t May 13th,2018 in Xi’an. There were catwalk (猫步) shws and traditinal music cncerts. That day peple wre traditinal Chinese clthing. Hanfu fans frm all ver the cuntry gathered there t take phts and put them nline fr a Hanfu pht cmpetitin.
China Hanfu Day is n the third day f the third mnth f the Chinese lunar calendar. In ld China,this day was als knwn as Shangsi Festival. Its purpse is t encurage yung Chinese t be prud f traditinal clthing, as well as Chinese culture.
Han peple lived in China befre the Qing dynasty. Hanfu is their traditinal clthing. It has a histry f abut 3,000 years and it als changes. Hwever, sme f its main characteristics (特点) remain. Fr example, there are tw parts that verlap (交叠) n the frnt. Peple call it “Jia Ling”. On the ther hand, peple usually use ribbns (系带) instead f buttns (扣子). It is the main characteristic f Hanfu, t.
China is becming a leading cuntry in the wrld, and the Chinese peple feel mre cnfident abut its traditinal culture than ever befre. Wearing traditinal clthing might be an interesting way f shwing hw we feel abut this.
56. Hw lng did the Hanfu Festival last?
A.14 days.B.15 days.C.16 days.D.17 days.
57. In ld China, peple als called Hanfu Day______.
A. Shangsi FestivalB. Spring FestivalC. Mid-autumn FestivalD. Lantern Festival
58. What is the main idea f the third paragraph?
A. It tells the histry and main characteristics f Hanfu.
B. It tells hw t design traditinal Hanfu clthing.
C. It tells the differences between Hanfu and ther traditinal clthing.
D. It tells the main materials f traditinal Hanfu clthing.
59. What kind f clthing is mentined(谈及) in the passage?
A. B. C. D.
60. Hanfu fans culd d many things except ______ during the first China Hanfu Day in Xi’an.
A. enjying hikingB. eating jiazi
C. living in the htel fr freeD. trying n traditinal Hanfu clthing fr free
(C)
Welcme t yur future life!
Yu get up in the mrning and lk int the mirrr. Yu lk yung. In 2035, many peple can live t be abut 150 years ld. S at the age f 40, yu’re nt ld at all. And yur parents lk the same age as yu!
Yu say t yur shirt, “Turn red.” It changes frm blue t red. In 2035, “smart clthes” can change the clr and style as yu like. Yu walk int the kitchen. Yu pick up the milk, but yu hear the vice, “Yu shuldn’t drink that!” Yur fridge remembers the infrmatin abut the milk. It knws that the milk is nt fresh. In 2035, every husehld appliance (家用电器) is like yur secretary (秘书).
It’s time t g t wrk. In 2035, cars drive themselves. Just tell yur “smart car” where t g. On the way, yu can call a friend with yur watch. Such “smart technlgy” is all arund yu.
S will all these things cme true? “All these things will cme true, even better.” says a scientist.
I culdn’t agree mre with the scientist. I am lking frward t the new life.
61. Hw d “yu” lk in the mirrr in 2035?
A. Yung.B. Fat.C. Healthy.D. Tired.
62. Where is the “vice” frm?
A. The watch.B. The secretary.C. The milk.D. The fridge.
63. What are the cars in 2035 like?
A. They run in the sky.B. They dn’t need gas.
C. They dn’t need drivers.D. They can talk with humans.
64. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the life in 2035?
A. Peple wn’t get ld.B. Peple dn’t need t wear clthes.
C. Peple dn’t need t have breakfast.D. Peple can call their friends with a watch.
65. What des the writer think f the life in the future?
A. It will be as gd as nw.B. It will be much better than nw.
C. It will be as bad as nw.D. It will be much wrse than nw.
第二节：阅读还原（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
Once, tw birds named Cici and Nick lived in a nest (巢). 66 They always fund excuses fr nt ding any wrk.
On a cld winter day, a strng wind was blwing. 67 By chance (偶然), a hle was made in their nest. The cld wind blew in thrugh the hle and gt away the warmth frm the nest. The birds started feeling cld. Nick thught, “I wnder why Cici is s lazy? Why is she nt repairing the hle?”
On the ther hand, Cici thught that Nick wuld fill the hle. They were depending n each ther. 68 Sn snw started t fall and the wind nearly blew ff the last warm air frm the inside f their nest. The snwflakes (雪花) entered the nest thrugh the hle. The lazy birds started shivering (颤) with cld. 69 In the mrning, the birds were dead in their nest. They had shivered t death but because f laziness they had nt gt up t repair the hle. Life is the same. Sme peple never get success. 70 D yu think s?
第Ⅱ卷 （非选择题共50分）
第四部分 写（共3节；50分）
第一节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的词或根据括号内所给词的正确形式填空，每空一词。并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。
Everyne wants t have healthy teeth. When yu laugh, yu will pen yur muth and shw yur teeth. The healthier yur teeth are, the 71 (happy ) yu will feel.
Why is that? That’s because yur teeth are 72 (imprtance ) in many ways. Take care f them, and they will help t take care f yu. Strng and health y teeth help yu 73 (grw). They als help yu speak 74 (clear).
Yu can take care f yur teeth by ding like these:
Brush yur teeth twice 75 day, after 76 (get) up and befre bedtime. And brush all f yur teeth, nt just the frnt nes. Spend sme time 77 (brush) the teeth alng the sides and in the back. Spend 78 least three minutes each time yu brush.
Be sure yur tthbrush is sft. Ask yur parents t help yu get a new tthbrush every three mnths. Brushing keeps yur teeth in gd health. Yu als need t care what yu eat 79 drink.
D yu want t have whiter and 80 (healthy) teeth? Please brush yur teeth.
第二节：信息提取（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，在下面的表格中填入与文章意思最为符合的单词，每空填一词。并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。
In the mdern wrld, peple have t remember passwrds (密码) fr everything frm their email, t nline banking and internet shpping.
S it’s easy t understand that many f us wuld pick (选择) smething simple and easy fr ur passwrds.
A leaked (泄露的) Yah database (数据库) shwed that the mst ppular passwrds are still “123456”and “passwrd”. Easy nes like “qwerty” and “abc123” are als amng the tp 10, reprted the Daily Mail. Other tp passwrds include “welcme”, “sunshine”and “ninja”. Many mre used simple cmbinatins(组合) f their name, age, r birthday.
These peple are trying t make life easy fr themselves. But they are als making it easy fr hackers (黑客) t break int their accunts, experts warned.
Researchers frm UK’s Lancaster University as well as Peking and Fujian Nrmal universities in China, did a test n passwrds. They tried t guess passwrds based n peple’s different persnal infrmatin.
They guessed passwrds fr mre than 73 percent f rdinary users’ accunts. Hackers culd even break a third f the harder passwrd sin 100 guesses, reprted the Daily Mail.
S hw can yu make yur passwrds safer? Researchers frm Blm berg Business week have sme tips fr yu.
Upper-casing (大写) yur passwrd is a gd start. Adding numbers and/r symbls t yur passwrd can als be f great help. Chse a nine-letter passwrd that includes numbers and/r symbls. This wuld take a hackers cmputer hundreds f years t break! Never use persnal infrmatin as a passwrd. Use different passwrds fr different accunts (账户). Experts suggest that a user shuld change their passwrd every 90 days t keep hackers guessing.
Passwrd Safety
第三节：书面表达（共25分）
寒假就要到了，你一定想度过一个丰富多彩的寒假生活吧。请从以下几个方面用英语描述你的寒假计划。
提示：1.个人健康（锻炼身体，饮食习惯……）
2.父母关系（分担家务，交流沟通……）
3.学习生活（完成作业，阅读书籍……）
4.……
要求：1.文章必须包含所有要点，可适当发挥；
2.表达流畅，条理清晰，书写规范。
3.字数：80词左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
4.文中不能出现真实的人名和地名。
Winter vacatin is cming sn. I make sme plans fr it t have a meaningful vacatin.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2023年秋期末教学质量检测八年级
英语参考答案
第一部分：听力部分（每空1.5分，共30分）
1-5. CACAB 6-10. ABBBC 11-15.BCACB 16-20.CBBCB
第二部分：基础知识运用（每空1分，共30分）
21-25. ABCCD 26-30.ABAAC 31-35.CBCAB
36-40. CDDBC 41-45.BDDCC 46-50.ABCDA
第三部分：阅读理解（每空2分，共40分）
51-55. BCADC 56-60.CAACD
61-65. ADCDB 66-70.ECABD
第四部分：写
1.语法填空（每空1.5分，共15分）
71.happier 72. imprtant 73.grw 74.clearly 75.a
76.getting 77. brushing 78.at 79.and 80.healthier
2.信息提取：（每空2分，共10分）
81.easy 82. percent 83.persnal 84.different 85.three/3
3.作文（略）（共25分）
2023年秋期末教学质量检测八年级英语试卷
听 力 测 试
第一节：（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读有关小题：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
1. A: Did yu d anything special last weekend, Jack?
B: I went t the muntains with my brther．
2.A: Which girl is yur sister?
B: The ne with a bk in her hands.
3.A: Dave, what d yu think yu will be in ten years?
B: Well, I think I’ll be a pliceman. That’s my dream.
4.A: Des yur sister like Beijing peras r sprts shws?
B: Sprts shws.
5.A: Lk at this rbt, it was made in Japan.
B: It lks like a snake.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，共22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读各小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6至7小题。
A: Jane, I want t be a scientist in the future, hw abut yu?
B: Well, I am gd at writing, s I will be a writer in Beijing.
A: Will yu have a huse there?
B: Yes, I’ll sell my huse in Shanghai and buy a huse in Beijing and I’ll have a rbt t clean it every day.
听第7段对话，回答第8至10小题。
B: What are yu ding Mlly?
G: I am studying fr an English test.
B: We will have a math test next week, right?
G: Yeah, it’s n September eighteenth.
B: I’m wrried abut it. I’m nt gd at math.
G: Dn’t wrry, I can help yu.
B: That’s great. Can yu cme t my hme this Saturday?
G: Sure, I’d lve t.
听第8段对话，回答第11至12小题。
B: Hi, Tina! What are yu ding nw ?
G: Hi, Bill! I am taking a walk with my friend Ann.
B: D yu really enjy taking walks?
G: Sure, I think it’s the easiest way t relax. D yu think s?
B: Maybe. Hwever my best way t relax is playing sccer.
G: But fr girls, it is the mst bring.
B: Everyne has their ideas. By the way, wuld yu like t g t a party with me tnight?
G: Yes, I’d lve t. it’s ne f my favrite activities.
听第9段对话，回答第13至15小题。
G: Are yu free this Saturday, Andy? I want t g camping with yu.
B: Srry, Kelly, this weekend is full fr me.
G: What are yu ging t d?
B: I’m ging t have sme lessns n Saturday.
G: What lessns d yu have?
B: I have English lessns n Saturday mrning and pian lessns in the afternn.
G: Hw abut Sunday?
B: I’m ging t visit my grandfather. He is ill in hspital.
G: I am srry t hear that. I hpe yur grandfather will be well sn.
听下面一段独白，回答第16至20小题。
Dear Tny,
Yu said yu were unhappy because yu had few friends at schl. I hpe my advice will help yu. First, try t be mre active. This can help yu make mre friends. Secnd, be friendly t thers and say hell r gdbye t them when yu meet r leave them. It will make yu mre ppular. Third, study hard and get gd grades. Hard wrk always makes peple think yu are smart and great. Mre peple wuld like t knw yu and be yur friends. Gd luck!
Yurs,
SniaCtrip can help yu when yu feel it is hard t buy the train r plane tickets. Yu can buy tickets at any time if yu have a mbile phne r a cmputer.
Ximalaya Reading has millins f bks such as pems, shrt stries, nvels and even fairy tales (神话故事) fr children t listen.
Fr children under three years ld, Baby Bus is a very gd friend. Kids can learn t speak, understand numbers and draw pictures with the help f this app.
With the app, yu can find cheap fds, wnderful KTVs, ice-cream rms, clthes shps fr girls and even shpping centers.
Many middle schl students are using Shanbay Wrd t learn English. It can help them with English wrds in many ways, such as pictures, English sngs and mvies, games and listening.
A. S they did nt repair the hle.
B. But n ne was active enugh t wrk.
C. There was sme snw fall t.
D. Because their laziness blws ut the chances (机会).
E. They were very lazy.
The reasn t pick simple passwrds
It’s 81 fr peple t remember.
Mst ppular passwrds t use
*123456*passwrd*qwerty *abc123*welcme*sunshine*ninja
The study n passwrds
Researchers frm the UK and China tried t guess passwrds.
*They guessed passwrds fr ver 73 82 f rdinary users’ accunts.
Ways t make passwrds safer
*Upper-case yur passwrd;
*Add numbers and/r symbls t passwrds;
*Chse a nine-letter passwrd which has numbers and/r symbls;
*Dn’t use 83 infrmatin;
*Use 84 passwrds fr different accunts;
*Change the passwrd every 85 mnths.
（试卷总分：150分 检测时间：120 分钟）
说明：
1.全卷满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
2.本试卷分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题），共四部分。
3.考生必须在答题卡上答题，写在试卷上无效。选择题必须使用2B铅笔填涂答案，非选择题必须使用0.5毫米黑色墨迹签字笔答题。
4.考试结束，答题卡统一收回，试卷考生自己保留。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题共100分）
第一部分 听力测试（共2节；30分）
第一节：（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读有关小题：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
1. What did Jack d last weekend?
A. B. C.
2. Wh is Nick’s sister?
A. B. C.
3. What’s Dave’s dream?
A. B. C.
4. What des Jill’s sister like?
A. B. C.
5. What des the rbt lk like?
A. B. C.
第二节：（共15题，每小题1.5分，共22.5分）您看到的资料都源自我们平台，家威杏 MXSJ663 免费下载听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读各小题：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. What will Jane be in ten years?
A. A writer.B. A player.C. A driver.
7. Where will Jane live in ten years?
A. In Chengdu.B. In Beijing.C. In Shanghai.
听第7段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. What is Mlly studying fr?
A. A math test.B. An English test.C. A histry test.
9. Is the by gd at math?
A. Yes, he is.B. N, he isn’t.C. Yes, he isn’t.
10. When is Mlly ging t the by’s hme?
A. Next week.B. This Friday.C. This Saturday.
听第8段对话，回答第11至12小题。
11. What des Tina think f playing sccer?
A. It’s the easiest.B. It’s the mst bring.C. It’s the mst relaxing.
12. What des Tina want t d tnight?
A. T take a walk.B. T play sccer.C. T g t a party.
听第9段对话，回答第13至15小题。
13. What des Kelly want t d this Saturday?
A. G camping.B. Climb the muntains.C. G t the cinema.
14. When is Andy ging t have English lessns?
A. On Sunday mrning.B. On Saturday afternn.C. On Saturday mrning.
15. Wh is ill in hspital?
A. Andy’s father.B. Andy’s grandfather.C. Kelly’s grandmther.
听下面一段独白，回答第16至20小题。
16. Why was Tny unhappy?
A. He failed his exam.B. He had bad grades.C. He had few friends.
17. First, what shuld Tny d?
A. Friendly.B. Mre active.C. Mre utging.
18. What shuld say when yu meet thers?
A. Gdbye.B. Hell.C. Nice day.
19. Hw many pieces f advice des Snia give Tny?
A. One.B. Tw.C. Three.
20. What will make peple think Tny is smart and great?
A. Ding sprts.B. Studying hard.C. Being very friendly.
第二部分 基础知识运用（共2节；30分）
第一节：单项选择（共10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
从下列各小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能填入题中空缺处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
21.—Mark, yu did a gd jb in China’s Gt Talent.
— ________.
A. Thank yuB. Yu’re welcmeC. That’s all rightD. N prblem
22.—I dn’t have ________ t buy this car. It’s s expensive.
—But it’s really nice. I’ll buy ne when I am ________.
A. enugh mney; enugh richB. enugh mney; rich enugh
C. mney enugh; pr enughD. mney enugh; enugh pr
23.—When did yu g t bed last night?
—I didn’t g t bed ________ I finish reading the nvel.
A. sB. thughC. untilD. because
24. It’s dangerus fr us ________ t much infrmatin abut urselves n the Internet.
A. t useB. t putC. t giveD. t get
25. I think ________ cars we use, ________ pllutin there will be.
A. fewer; lessB. less; fewerC. the less; the fewerD. the fewer; the less
26. I’m waiting fr my friend. If he ________, I will g swimming.
A. desn’t cmeB. wn’t cmeC. will cmeD. dn’t cme
27.—There ________ tw ftball matches n TV if the rain stps tmrrw afternn.
—Really? That’s great.
A. will haveB. are ging t beC. is ging t beD. are ging t have
28. The ld man arrived ________ the village ________ a rainy night.
A. at; nB. n; atC. in; atD. n; in
29.—Can I help yu, Mm?
—I need sme f the bananas. Yu can first ________.
A. cut them upB. cut it upC. cut up themD. cut up it
30.—Culd yu give me ________ n English learning?
—Certainly. First yu shuld ________ English every day.
A. any advice; speakB. many advices; tell
C. sme advice; speakD. a few advice; talk
第二节：完形填空（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
阅读下列短文，然后从后面各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入文中空缺处的最佳选项。并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
(A)
Fifteen-year-ld James Parker is a table tennis player. He can’t walk, but he can mve very fast in his wheelchair (轮椅), and he’s training t g much 31 .
James was in a bad car accident (交通事故) at the age f six. Nw he can’t use his 32 , and he has t use a wheelchair. James “drives” the chair 33 his arms. He plays vide games, 34 he als plays basketball with his brthers.
But his favrite 35 is the table tennis. James practices every day fr an hur after schl. “I want t 36 a gld medal (金牌),” he says. “I’m sure I can d it. And I want ther kids like me t think that they can win, t.”
James’ huse has a special ramp (坡道) s that he can g in and ut f the huse 37 . At Adams High Schl in Champaign, Illinis, James is a (n) 38 student. All the teachers and students like him. He wrks hard, 39 he has t sit at the back f the classrm because f his chair. He desn’t 40 that at all. “I like it back there,” he says.
31. A. fartherB. clserC. fasterD. mre slwly
32. A. handsB. legsC. armsD. ears
33. A. frmB. frC. withD. under
34. A. andB. butC. rD. s
35. A. placeB. sprtC. subjectD. gift
36. A. giveB. keepC. winD. chse
37. A. seriuslyB. quietlyC. happilyD. easily
38. A. lazyB. nisyC. imprtantD. ppular
39. A. ifB. althughC. becauseD. when
40. A. feelB. wrryC. mindD. stand
(B)
The village super league (联盟), r “Cun Cha” is a sccer game amng different villages in Rngjiang, Guizhu. It makes sccer mre 41 than befre. Many peple came t Guizhu t watch it and mre than 5,000,000 peple watched it 42 the Internet. All the players cme frm different ethnic (民族的) grups such as Mia, Dng and Ya. Althugh they are different, they fight fr their cmmn lve— 43
Like “Cun Cha”, anther village sprts event called “CunBA” in Guizhu is als ppular. 44 yu are a basketball lver, yu can’t miss it. This year, ver 200 grups 45 in “CunBA”. After a lng-time fight, the 46 came ut n March 27th. Bth “Cun Cha” and “CunBA” have a lng histry dating back t 1940s. At that time, life was hard. The villagers 47 had special places t d sprts. Hwever, difficulties didn’t stp 48 . They kept ding sprts.
Nw, cmpared with spending time ging nline, mre and mre peple 49 t d sprts. The 50 f a survey shw that ding sprts truly makes a difference t peple’s health. S, start ding sprts befre it’s t late.
41. A. seriusB. famusC. usefulD. kind
42. A. fB. inC. withD. n
43. A. table tennisB. basketballC. Ping-p ng ballD. ftball
44. A. AlthughB. BecauseC. IfD. As
45. A. finishedB. sharedC. cmpetedD. shwed
46. A. winnerB. perfrmerC. reprterD. peple
47. A. alwaysB. hardlyC. smetimesD. ften
48. A. n neB. smeneC. anyneD. sme
49. A. seemB. lkC. dislikeD. like
50. A. resultsB. gradesC. PintsD. shws
第三部分 阅读理解（共2节；40分）
第一节：阅读选择（共15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
(A)
With the help f apps (应用程序), we can use ur mbile phnes t d many things. Here are parts f the mst ppular apps.
51. Ctrip is a useful app fr ______.
A. rdering mealsB. bking ticketsC. drawing picturesD. learning English
52. What can we knw abut frm Ximalaya Reading?
A. B. C. D.
53. Mr. and Mrs. White use Baby Bus t help their tw-year-ld sn practice ________.
A. speakingB. walkingC. runningD. swimming
54. What can we even find by the Meituan app?
A. Fairy tales.B. Plan e tickets.C. English sngs.D. Wnderful KTVs.
55. T remember English wrds in a fun way, students can chse ________.
A. CtripB. Baby BusC. Shanbay WrdD. Meituan
(B)
We celebrated the China Hanfu Day frm April 28th t May 13th,2018 in Xi’an. There were catwalk (猫步) shws and traditinal music cncerts. That day peple wre traditinal Chinese clthing. Hanfu fans frm all ver the cuntry gathered there t take phts and put them nline fr a Hanfu pht cmpetitin.
China Hanfu Day is n the third day f the third mnth f the Chinese lunar calendar. In ld China,this day was als knwn as Shangsi Festival. Its purpse is t encurage yung Chinese t be prud f traditinal clthing, as well as Chinese culture.
Han peple lived in China befre the Qing dynasty. Hanfu is their traditinal clthing. It has a histry f abut 3,000 years and it als changes. Hwever, sme f its main characteristics (特点) remain. Fr example, there are tw parts that verlap (交叠) n the frnt. Peple call it “Jia Ling”. On the ther hand, peple usually use ribbns (系带) instead f buttns (扣子). It is the main characteristic f Hanfu, t.
China is becming a leading cuntry in the wrld, and the Chinese peple feel mre cnfident abut its traditinal culture than ever befre. Wearing traditinal clthing might be an interesting way f shwing hw we feel abut this.
56. Hw lng did the Hanfu Festival last?
A.14 days.B.15 days.C.16 days.D.17 days.
57. In ld China, peple als called Hanfu Day______.
A. Shangsi FestivalB. Spring FestivalC. Mid-autumn FestivalD. Lantern Festival
58. What is the main idea f the third paragraph?
A. It tells the histry and main characteristics f Hanfu.
B. It tells hw t design traditinal Hanfu clthing.
C. It tells the differences between Hanfu and ther traditinal clthing.
D. It tells the main materials f traditinal Hanfu clthing.
59. What kind f clthing is mentined(谈及) in the passage?
A. B. C. D.
60. Hanfu fans culd d many things except ______ during the first China Hanfu Day in Xi’an.
A. enjying hikingB. eating jiazi
C. living in the htel fr freeD. trying n traditinal Hanfu clthing fr free
(C)
Welcme t yur future life!
Yu get up in the mrning and lk int the mirrr. Yu lk yung. In 2035, many peple can live t be abut 150 years ld. S at the age f 40, yu’re nt ld at all. And yur parents lk the same age as yu!
Yu say t yur shirt, “Turn red.” It changes frm blue t red. In 2035, “smart clthes” can change the clr and style as yu like. Yu walk int the kitchen. Yu pick up the milk, but yu hear the vice, “Yu shuldn’t drink that!” Yur fridge remembers the infrmatin abut the milk. It knws that the milk is nt fresh. In 2035, every husehld appliance (家用电器) is like yur secretary (秘书).
It’s time t g t wrk. In 2035, cars drive themselves. Just tell yur “smart car” where t g. On the way, yu can call a friend with yur watch. Such “smart technlgy” is all arund yu.
S will all these things cme true? “All these things will cme true, even better.” says a scientist.
I culdn’t agree mre with the scientist. I am lking frward t the new life.
61. Hw d “yu” lk in the mirrr in 2035?
A. Yung.B. Fat.C. Healthy.D. Tired.
62. Where is the “vice” frm?
A. The watch.B. The secretary.C. The milk.D. The fridge.
63. What are the cars in 2035 like?
A. They run in the sky.B. They dn’t need gas.
C. They dn’t need drivers.D. They can talk with humans.
64. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the life in 2035?
A. Peple wn’t get ld.B. Peple dn’t need t wear clthes.
C. Peple dn’t need t have breakfast.D. Peple can call their friends with a watch.
65. What des the writer think f the life in the future?
A. It will be as gd as nw.B. It will be much better than nw.
C. It will be as bad as nw.D. It will be much wrse than nw.
第二节：阅读还原（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。并在答题卡上将其对应的字母代号涂黑。
Once, tw birds named Cici and Nick lived in a nest (巢). 66 They always fund excuses fr nt ding any wrk.
On a cld winter day, a strng wind was blwing. 67 By chance (偶然), a hle was made in their nest. The cld wind blew in thrugh the hle and gt away the warmth frm the nest. The birds started feeling cld. Nick thught, “I wnder why Cici is s lazy? Why is she nt repairing the hle?”
On the ther hand, Cici thught that Nick wuld fill the hle. They were depending n each ther. 68 Sn snw started t fall and the wind nearly blew ff the last warm air frm the inside f their nest. The snwflakes (雪花) entered the nest thrugh the hle. The lazy birds started shivering (颤) with cld. 69 In the mrning, the birds were dead in their nest. They had shivered t death but because f laziness they had nt gt up t repair the hle. Life is the same. Sme peple never get success. 70 D yu think s?
第Ⅱ卷 （非选择题共50分）
第四部分 写（共3节；50分）
第一节：语法填空（共10小题，每小题1.5分，共15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入适当的词或根据括号内所给词的正确形式填空，每空一词。并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。
Everyne wants t have healthy teeth. When yu laugh, yu will pen yur muth and shw yur teeth. The healthier yur teeth are, the 71 (happy ) yu will feel.
Why is that? That’s because yur teeth are 72 (imprtance ) in many ways. Take care f them, and they will help t take care f yu. Strng and health y teeth help yu 73 (grw). They als help yu speak 74 (clear).
Yu can take care f yur teeth by ding like these:
Brush yur teeth twice 75 day, after 76 (get) up and befre bedtime. And brush all f yur teeth, nt just the frnt nes. Spend sme time 77 (brush) the teeth alng the sides and in the back. Spend 78 least three minutes each time yu brush.
Be sure yur tthbrush is sft. Ask yur parents t help yu get a new tthbrush every three mnths. Brushing keeps yur teeth in gd health. Yu als need t care what yu eat 79 drink.
D yu want t have whiter and 80 (healthy) teeth? Please brush yur teeth.
第二节：信息提取（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，在下面的表格中填入与文章意思最为符合的单词，每空填一词。并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。
In the mdern wrld, peple have t remember passwrds (密码) fr everything frm their email, t nline banking and internet shpping.
S it’s easy t understand that many f us wuld pick (选择) smething simple and easy fr ur passwrds.
A leaked (泄露的) Yah database (数据库) shwed that the mst ppular passwrds are still “123456”and “passwrd”. Easy nes like “qwerty” and “abc123” are als amng the tp 10, reprted the Daily Mail. Other tp passwrds include “welcme”, “sunshine”and “ninja”. Many mre used simple cmbinatins(组合) f their name, age, r birthday.
These peple are trying t make life easy fr themselves. But they are als making it easy fr hackers (黑客) t break int their accunts, experts warned.
Researchers frm UK’s Lancaster University as well as Peking and Fujian Nrmal universities in China, did a test n passwrds. They tried t guess passwrds based n peple’s different persnal infrmatin.
They guessed passwrds fr mre than 73 percent f rdinary users’ accunts. Hackers culd even break a third f the harder passwrd sin 100 guesses, reprted the Daily Mail.
S hw can yu make yur passwrds safer? Researchers frm Blm berg Business week have sme tips fr yu.
Upper-casing (大写) yur passwrd is a gd start. Adding numbers and/r symbls t yur passwrd can als be f great help. Chse a nine-letter passwrd that includes numbers and/r symbls. This wuld take a hackers cmputer hundreds f years t break! Never use persnal infrmatin as a passwrd. Use different passwrds fr different accunts (账户). Experts suggest that a user shuld change their passwrd every 90 days t keep hackers guessing.
Passwrd Safety
第三节：书面表达（共25分）
寒假就要到了，你一定想度过一个丰富多彩的寒假生活吧。请从以下几个方面用英语描述你的寒假计划。
提示：1.个人健康（锻炼身体，饮食习惯……）
2.父母关系（分担家务，交流沟通……）
3.学习生活（完成作业，阅读书籍……）
4.……
要求：1.文章必须包含所有要点，可适当发挥；
2.表达流畅，条理清晰，书写规范。
3.字数：80词左右。开头已给出，不计入总词数。
4.文中不能出现真实的人名和地名。
Winter vacatin is cming sn. I make sme plans fr it t have a meaningful vacatin.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2023年秋期末教学质量检测八年级
英语参考答案
第一部分：听力部分（每空1.5分，共30分）
1-5. CACAB 6-10. ABBBC 11-15.BCACB 16-20.CBBCB
第二部分：基础知识运用（每空1分，共30分）
21-25. ABCCD 26-30.ABAAC 31-35.CBCAB
36-40. CDDBC 41-45.BDDCC 46-50.ABCDA
第三部分：阅读理解（每空2分，共40分）
51-55. BCADC 56-60.CAACD
61-65. ADCDB 66-70.ECABD
第四部分：写
1.语法填空（每空1.5分，共15分）
71.happier 72. imprtant 73.grw 74.clearly 75.a
76.getting 77. brushing 78.at 79.and 80.healthier
2.信息提取：（每空2分，共10分）
81.easy 82. percent 83.persnal 84.different 85.three/3
3.作文（略）（共25分）
2023年秋期末教学质量检测八年级英语试卷
听 力 测 试
第一节：（共5小题，每小题1.5分，共7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C中选出最佳选项。听每段对话前，你有5秒钟的时间阅读有关小题：听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
1. A: Did yu d anything special last weekend, Jack?
B: I went t the muntains with my brther．
2.A: Which girl is yur sister?
B: The ne with a bk in her hands.
3.A: Dave, what d yu think yu will be in ten years?
B: Well, I think I’ll be a pliceman. That’s my dream.
4.A: Des yur sister like Beijing peras r sprts shws?
B: Sprts shws.
5.A: Lk at this rbt, it was made in Japan.
B: It lks like a snake.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，共22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟时间阅读各小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6至7小题。
A: Jane, I want t be a scientist in the future, hw abut yu?
B: Well, I am gd at writing, s I will be a writer in Beijing.
A: Will yu have a huse there?
B: Yes, I’ll sell my huse in Shanghai and buy a huse in Beijing and I’ll have a rbt t clean it every day.
听第7段对话，回答第8至10小题。
B: What are yu ding Mlly?
G: I am studying fr an English test.
B: We will have a math test next week, right?
G: Yeah, it’s n September eighteenth.
B: I’m wrried abut it. I’m nt gd at math.
G: Dn’t wrry, I can help yu.
B: That’s great. Can yu cme t my hme this Saturday?
G: Sure, I’d lve t.
听第8段对话，回答第11至12小题。
B: Hi, Tina! What are yu ding nw ?
G: Hi, Bill! I am taking a walk with my friend Ann.
B: D yu really enjy taking walks?
G: Sure, I think it’s the easiest way t relax. D yu think s?
B: Maybe. Hwever my best way t relax is playing sccer.
G: But fr girls, it is the mst bring.
B: Everyne has their ideas. By the way, wuld yu like t g t a party with me tnight?
G: Yes, I’d lve t. it’s ne f my favrite activities.
听第9段对话，回答第13至15小题。
G: Are yu free this Saturday, Andy? I want t g camping with yu.
B: Srry, Kelly, this weekend is full fr me.
G: What are yu ging t d?
B: I’m ging t have sme lessns n Saturday.
G: What lessns d yu have?
B: I have English lessns n Saturday mrning and pian lessns in the afternn.
G: Hw abut Sunday?
B: I’m ging t visit my grandfather. He is ill in hspital.
G: I am srry t hear that. I hpe yur grandfather will be well sn.
听下面一段独白，回答第16至20小题。
Dear Tny,
Yu said yu were unhappy because yu had few friends at schl. I hpe my advice will help yu. First, try t be mre active. This can help yu make mre friends. Secnd, be friendly t thers and say hell r gdbye t them when yu meet r leave them. It will make yu mre ppular. Third, study hard and get gd grades. Hard wrk always makes peple think yu are smart and great. Mre peple wuld like t knw yu and be yur friends. Gd luck!
Yurs,
SniaCtrip can help yu when yu feel it is hard t buy the train r plane tickets. Yu can buy tickets at any time if yu have a mbile phne r a cmputer.
Ximalaya Reading has millins f bks such as pems, shrt stries, nvels and even fairy tales (神话故事) fr children t listen.
Fr children under three years ld, Baby Bus is a very gd friend. Kids can learn t speak, understand numbers and draw pictures with the help f this app.
With the app, yu can find cheap fds, wnderful KTVs, ice-cream rms, clthes shps fr girls and even shpping centers.
Many middle schl students are using Shanbay Wrd t learn English. It can help them with English wrds in many ways, such as pictures, English sngs and mvies, games and listening.
A. S they did nt repair the hle.
B. But n ne was active enugh t wrk.
C. There was sme snw fall t.
D. Because their laziness blws ut the chances (机会).
E. They were very lazy.
The reasn t pick simple passwrds
It’s 81 fr peple t remember.
Mst ppular passwrds t use
*123456*passwrd*qwerty *abc123*welcme*sunshine*ninja
The study n passwrds
Researchers frm the UK and China tried t guess passwrds.
*They guessed passwrds fr ver 73 82 f rdinary users’ accunts.
Ways t make passwrds safer
*Upper-case yur passwrd;
*Add numbers and/r symbls t passwrds;
*Chse a nine-letter passwrd which has numbers and/r symbls;
*Dn’t use 83 infrmatin;
*Use 84 passwrds fr different accunts;
*Change the passwrd every 85 mnths.
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