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    120,江西省赣州市大余县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末检测英语试题()(1)
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    120,江西省赣州市大余县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末检测英语试题()(1)

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    这是一份120,江西省赣州市大余县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末检测英语试题()(1),共11页。试卷主要包含了 Wh is shrter?等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    说明:1.全卷满分120分,考试时间120分钟。
    2.请将答案写在答题卷上,否则不给分。
    听力部分(20分)
    一、听力测试(20分)
    A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
    ( ) 1. What des Kate want t be when she grws up?
    A. A pianist. B. A pilt. C. An engineer.
    ( ) 2. When will they visit the Palace Museum?
    A. Next Friday. B. Next Saturday. C. Next Sunday.
    ( ) 3. Hw lng shuld the wman ck the beef and carrts?
    A. Fr 20 minutes. B. Fr 30 minutes. C. Fr 40 minutes.
    ( ) 4. Why desn’t Mike g t bed?
    A. Because he’s playing cmputer games.
    B. Because he’s preparing fr a test.
    C. Because he’s watching TV.
    ( ) 5. What des the man mean?
    A. The wman can wear a blue dress.
    B. Wearing a blue dress is t cmmn.
    C. A blue dress is very expensive.
    B)请听下面4段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段材料前你都将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。(每小题1分)
    请听第1段材料,回答6、7小题。
    ( ) 6. Hw des Kate feel nw?
    A. Happy. B. Sad. C. Tired.
    ( ) 7. When is Kate’s birthday?
    A. On April 8th. B. On May 18th. C. On June 18th.
    请听第2段材料,回答第8、9小题。
    ( ) 8. What des Jack want t be?
    A. A basketball player. B. A teacher. C. A singer.
    ( ) 9. What d we knw abut Rse?
    A. She wants t live in the city.您看到的资料都源自我们平台,家威杏 MXSJ663 免费下载B. She wants t be a teacher.
    C. She likes the city life very much.
    请听第3段材料,回答第10至第12小题。
    ( ) 10. Wh is shrter?
    A. Michael. B. Dennis. C. David.
    ( ) 11. What is their hbby?
    A. Playing the guitar. B. Playing sccer. C. Playing basketball.
    ( ) 12. What can we get frm the cnversatin?
    A. Michael is mre utging.
    B. Michael is quieter.
    C. Michael is mre hard-wrking.
    请听第4段材料,回答13至第15小题。
    ( ) 13. What can we buy in the first hall?
    A. Hamburgers. B. Cakes and desserts. C. Vegetables and fruits.
    ( ) 14. Hw lng is the cffee huse pen every day?
    A. Fr three hurs. B. Fr six hurs. C. Fr nine hurs.
    ( ) 15. What can we learn frm the mnlgue (独白)?
    A. We can have lunch in the cffee huse.
    B. There are fur halls in the market.
    C. We can buy hamburgers in the third hall.
    C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案写在答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
    16. Our earth is becming wrse and wrse because f serius ______.
    17. We need mre land t deal with rubbish, s there wn’t be enugh ______ fr peple.
    18. Next, we shuld keep ______ clean.
    19. If we keep plluting it, it’1l be ______ fr us t enjy s much seafd in the future.
    20. Everyne shuld play a part in ______.
    二、单项填空(8分)
    请阅读下面各小题,从题中所给A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
    ( ) 21. He is a man f rich ______ and we can learn a lt frm him.
    A. health B. experience C. success D. culture
    ( ) 22. Yu’ll have t ______ the bks because they aren’t enugh fr everyne.
    A. sell B. chse C. read D. share
    ( ) 23. It’s ________ fr teenagers t learn hw t d cking because it’s helpful.
    A. impssible B. nrmal C. necessary D. meaningless
    ( ) 24. Everyne shuld knw that we can’t crss the street ______ the traffic turns green.
    A. when B. after C. until D. if
    ( ) 25. —Bb, ______ d yu g t the mvies?
    —Once a mnth.
    A. hw lng B. hw many C. hw much D. hw ften
    ( ) 26. — Miss Huang, will we g t the science museum fr ur schl trip tmrrw?
    —Yes. But if it ______ tmrrw, we’ll g there next Mnday.
    A. rains B. rained C. will rain D. is raining
    ( ) 27. I didn’t d very well in the exam. Unluckily, my friend Tm did it ______.
    A. wrse B. badly C. better D. well
    ( ) 28.—Can yu g fr a bike ride with me n Saturday afternn?
    —______. I haven’t been utdrs these days. I can’t wait!
    A. Srry, I can’t. B. Sure, I’d lve t. C. Nt at all. D. Frget it.
    三、完形填空(本大题共26小题,每小题1分,共26分)
    A)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。(每小题1分)
    A 10-year-ld by decided t study jud (柔道), althugh he didn’t have his left arm because f a car accident.
    The by began lessns with an ld jud teacher. The by was ding well, 29 he culdn’t understand why, after three mnths, the teacher taught him nly ne 30 .
    “Sir,” the by finally said, “ 31 I be learning mre mves?”
    “This is the nly mve yu’ll ever need t knw,” the teacher 32 . The by didn’t quite understand but 33 in his teacher and kept training.
    A few mnths 34 , the teacher tk the by t his first cmpetitin. The by easily wn his 35 matches. The third match was mre 36 , but after sme time, he used his ne mve t win the 37 .
    In the next and last match, his ppnent (对手) was bigger, 38 and mre experienced. Fr a while, the by seemed t be 39 . But he didn’t give up. Sn, his ppnent made a big mistake. The by 40 used his mve n him. He wn the match and the cmpetitin.
    On the way hme, the by asked his teacher, “Sir, 41 culd I win the cmpetitin with nly ne mve?”
    “Yu wn fr tw 42 ”, the teacher replied. “First, yu’ve learned ne f the mst difficult mves 43 all f jud. And secnd, the nly way t stp that mve is fr yur ppnent t pull yur left arm.”
    ( ) 29. A. and B. r C. but D. s
    ( ) 30. A. thing B. mve C. lessn D. class
    ( ) 31. A. shuldn’t B. shuld C. mustn’t D. must
    ( ) 32. A. said B. asked C. talked D. replied
    ( ) 33. A. put B. cut C. call D. believe
    ( ) 34. A. later B. ag C. befre D. after
    ( ) 35. A. ne B. tw C. three D. fur
    ( ) 36. A. imprtant B. interesting C. difficult D. beautiful
    ( ) 37. A. match B. team C. shw D. peple
    ( ) 38. A. thinner B. strnger C. fatter D. shrter
    ( ) 39. A. lsing B. winning C. teaching D. leaving
    ( ) 40. A. slwly B. quickly C. luckily D. beautifully
    ( ) 41. A. what B. which C. why D. when
    ( ) 42. A. things B. reasns C. matches D. mistakes
    ( ) 43. A. at B. in C. n D. behind
    B)请先阅读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后用方框中所给的词的适当形式填空。并把答案写在答题卡相应位置。每个词限用一次。(每小题1分)
    When thers d bad things and hurt yu, what d yu d? Frgive (原谅) them r stay angry? Cnfucius (孔子), ne f the 44 teachers in ancient China shwed his answer t this questin in The Analects f Cnfucius (《论语》).
    Cnfucius 45 , “if a persn hurt me, I will chse t frgive him.” In his 46 , peple are nt saints (圣人) . Anyne may make 47 . Peple will becme 48 and unhappy 49 they just remember thers’ mistakes. S why nt let the bad things f the past g and lk at the future?
    The stry f Guan Zhng and Duke Huan f Qi (齐桓公) during the Spring and Autumn Perid (770-476BC,春秋时期) is a gd 50 . Guan Zhng nce tried t kill Duke Huan f Qi. But when the duke knew that Guan culd lk after his cuntry, he chse t frgive Guan. S, Guan tried his best t help Duke Huan f Qi. Finally they 51 the cuntry better tgether.
    But letting the bad things in the past g desn’t mean frgetting 52 . Instead, we shuld learn 53 them s that we dn’t make the same mistakes. Als, learning t frgive thers may let us be 54 .
    四、阅读理解(每小题2分,共46分)
    A)请阅读下面短文,根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    A
    ( ) 55. When can yu make a call t bk a birthday party?
    A. At 8:00 a.m. B. At 11:00 a.m.
    C. At 9:30 p.m. D. At 6:00 a.m.
    ( ) 56. If Mr. Zhang bks a party fr 15 kids, hw much shuld he pay?
    A. ¥300 B. ¥150C. ¥450 D. ¥200
    ( ) 57. Which f the fllwing is true abut the ntice?
    A. Sunshine Family nly pens n weekends.
    B. Yu have tw ways t bk a party.
    C. Bk the birthday party at least 3 weeks befre the party date.
    D. The price nly includes the rm.
    B
    Mrs Brwn lived a lnely life. Her husband passed away tw years ag. And her children wrked in anther cuntry. She just lied n a chair in the yard alne every day. She never smiled. She never talked t anyne in the neighbrhd. In the evening she wuld read a newspaper and g t bed early.
    Her life changed, hwever, ne day when she fund a heart-shaped bx f ckies beside the dr, alng with a piece f paper that said, “Smebdy lves yu.” At first, she culdn’t believe it, but as she read the message, she began t laugh and dance arund. The message pened her heart. She became happy and began t help ut peple in the neighbrhd. As time went by, her kindness, happiness and lve tuched everyne arund her.
    Later, Mrs Brwn fund ut that the heart-shaped bx belnged t smebdy else. It was a mistake. She felt sad and went back t her ld ways. When her neighbrs (邻居) fund ut this, they decided t change her back. They had a surprise party and a lng banner (条幅) that read, “Everybdy Lves Mrs Brwn.” Mrs Brwn cried when she knew that smebdy lved her. Then she laughed, and hugged her friends.
    We all have a little bit f Mrs Brwn in us. At times we all feel unlved and unlvable. Hwever, smebdy des lve us.
    ( ) 58. What changed Mrs Brwn’s life at first?
    A. Reading a fun stry in a newspaper.
    B. Finding a heart-shaped bx f ckies with a piece f message.
    C. Making a piece f heart-shaped chclate.
    D. Seeing her children back frm wrk.
    ( ) 59. Hw did ther peple feel abut Mrs Brwn’s kindness, happiness and lve?
    A. They tried t teach her hw t lve. B. They wanted t change her back.
    C. They were tuched by her. D. They didn’t believe her changes.
    ( ) 60. Why did Mrs Brwn cry when her neighbrs had a party fr her?
    A. Because she learned the ckies was frm her neighbrs.
    B. Because it was her neighbrs wh played tricks n her.
    C. Because she knew that smebdy lved her.
    D. Because she had never been t a party befre.
    ( ) 61. Which f the fllwing best shws the structure f the passage?
    A.B.C.D.
    ( ) 62. What des the underlined wrd “this” in Paragraph 3 refer t?
    A. Mrs Brwn made a mistake.
    B. The heart-shaped bx belnged t smebdy else.
    C. Mrs Brwn felt sad and went back t her ld ways.
    D. The neighbrs decided t change Mrs Brwn back.
    C
    D yu knw there are fur different kinds f health? Mental (精神的) health is ne f them. It’s abut taking care f yur feelings (感受). But hw d yu knw if yu’re in gd mental health? The fllwing are the signs f mental illness.
    ●Feeling t wrried.
    ●Feeling t sad.
    ●Lsing appetite (食欲).
    ●Getting t fat r thin.
    ●Lsing interest in what yu used t like.
    If yu have the signs f mental illness, yu shuld be serius abut them. Here are sme suggestins.
    ▲_______________
    Dn’t think yur sad feelings are just part f students’ life. If yu’re wrried abut smething, ask fr help. Yu can talk t yur parents r teachers.
    ▲Accept yurself.
    N ne is perfect. When yu dn’t feel happy abut yurself, yu can talk t smene abut it.
    But the mst imprtant part is t accept yurself in yur heart. And then yu can try yur best t imprve yurself.
    ▲Tell thers if yu are bullied (被欺负).
    Being bullied is nt yur mistake (错误).If yu are bullied nline r in yur real life, yu shuld tell yur parents, teachers r friends. If pssible, yu can call the plice fr help.
    ( ) 63. Hw many signs f mental illness are mentined (提及到) in the passage?
    A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur. D. Five.
    ( ) 64. What des the underlined wrd “suggestins” mean?
    A. Questins. B. Subjects. C. Advice. D. Places.
    ( ) 65. Which f the fllwing can we fill in the blank in the passage?
    A. Try t slve the prblems by yurself. B. Ask fr help.
    C. Dn’t g t schl alne. D. It’s nrmal t have bad feelings.
    ( ) 66. What des the last paragraph mainly talk abut?
    A. What being bullied means. B. Why yu are ften bullied.
    C. Hw t stay healthy. D. What t d when yu are bullied.
    ( ) 67. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
    A. Mental illness and what t d with it. B. Peple’s different feelings.
    C. Why peple have mental illness. D. Different kinds f health.
    D
    Stp drinking cffee and cla! Let’s drink anther ne f the wrld’s mst ppular drinks—tea n May 21 Internatinal Tea Day. We all knw that China is the birthplace f tea culture. But d yu knw abut the tea cultures f ther cuntries?
    Tea was brught t Japan frm China in the ninth century by a traveling mnk (僧人). The traditin f tea drinking later became an imprtant part f Japanese culture. In Japan, serving tea is an art. Peple use beautiful tea bwls and enjy the peace and calm (宁静) in the tea rm.
    India is ne f the largest tea prducers in the wrld. It als learned the art f tea-drinking frm China centuries ag. Tea is very ppular in India. In fact, Indian peple cnsume abut 70% f the tea prduced in India. “Chai” is the Hindi (印地语) wrd fr tea. Traditinal Indian chai is a kind f black tea. But unlike Chinese black tea. Chai is put tgether with strng spices (香料) like ginger (姜).
    Turkey als has a tea culture. Tea was brught t the cuntry frm China in the nineteenth century. The traditinal Turkish tea cup lks like a flwer. The tea is usually served very ht. Salty r sweet biscuits called “kurabive” are ften served alng with the tea.
    ( ) 68. Where was tea culture brn (发源的)?
    A. In China. B. In Japan. C. In India. D. In Turkey.
    ( ) 69. Hw was tea brught t Japan frm China in 9th century?
    A. By a scientist B. By a farmer C. By a mnk D. By a ck
    ( ) 70. Match the cuntry with the tea traditins.
    a. Japan b. India c. Turkey
    ① Peple drink tea with salty r sweet biscuits.
    ② Peple serve tea as an art in beautiful tea bwls.
    ③ Peple drink tea with strng spices like ginger.
    A. a-①;b-②;c-③ B. a-①;b-③;c-②
    C. a-②;b-①;c-③ D. a-②;b-③;c-①
    ( ) 71. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
    A. Internatinal Tea Day is n May 21.
    B. Japanese began t drink tea befre the ninth century.
    C. India is the largest tea prducer in the wrld.
    D. Turkey has a lnger histry f drinking tea than Japan
    ( ) 72. What is the best title f the passage?
    A. Tea traditins in China. B. Tea cultures arund the wrld.
    C. Ways t make different kinds f tea. D. Rads f tea frm China t the wrld.
    E.根据短文内容,从下列七个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    D yu make a reslutin (决定) n New Year’s Day? Hw t make a gd reslutin? 73
    ★ Plan fr the reslutin
    It is nt enugh t have a gal (目标). Yu need t think ut sme right steps (步骤) fr the reslutin. S make yur plan. 74 And it’ll als tell yu hw t make the gal cme true at last.
    Make a plan is very imprtant.
    ★ 75
    If yu make yur plan later, yu may frget yur reslutin gradually (逐步地). It’s imprtant that yu start making yur plan right nw.
    ★ 76
    Yu shuld write yur reslutin and plan in sme places, such as a ntebk r yur diary.
    ★Think “year arund”, nt just New Year’s
    Yu can’t finish anything in ne day. Yu make a reslutin in ne day. 77 It may need a hundred small steps. New Year’s reslutin shuld be a starting pint. Yu must keep a habit fr making yur reslutin cme true gradually.
    五、补全对话。(5分)
    请阅读下面对话,根据对话内容从方框中选择恰当的句子填入空白处,使对话通顺、合理,意思完整。一空一句。(每小题1分)
    A: My brther will cme back frm Lndn this Friday. I want t have a surprise party fr him.
    B: That’s a gd idea. 78
    A: At my hme. Wuld yu like t cme?
    B: 79
    A: Can yu give me sme advice abut the party?
    B: Yeah! 80
    A: Sunds gd. And we can give peple sme gifts if they win.
    B: Yu’re right. 81
    A: And the party will becme mre interesting.
    B: That’s fr sure. 82
    A: Hw abut Friday evening?
    B: OK. See yu n Friday.
    A: See yu.
    六、书面表达(15分)
    阅读理解A)部分C篇讲诉了精神健康以及应对它的措施,除了精神健康,身体的健康也是一样的重要。天气多变,最近有很多人得了流感,影响生活学习。拥有一个健康的体魄才能让自己更好的迎接挑战。请你以“Hw t Keep Healthy”为题目,写一篇文章。
    提示:
    可以从饮食健康、锻炼身体以及良好的生活习惯等方面入手。
    要求:
    1.短文应包括所有的写作要点,条理清楚,行文连贯,可适当发挥;
    2.文中不能出现真实的人名和地名;
    3.词数80—120,短文开头已给出,不计入总数。
    Hw t Keep Healthy
    As we all knw, health is very imprtant. __________________________________________________________
    __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    2023-2024学年度上学期期末检测
    八年级英语试题参考答案及评分意见
    听力材料
    一、听力测试(20分)
    A)请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。(每小题1分)
    1. M: What d yu want t be when yu grw up, Kate?
    W: I want t be an engineer. In fact, it is always my dream.
    2. M: When will yu be free, next Saturday r Sunday?
    W: Next Saturday.
    M: Let’s visit the Palace Museum tgether, OK?
    W: Sure.
    3. W: First add beef and carrts int it. Then hw lng shuld I ck them, Jack?
    M: Fr half an hur.
    4. W: Mike, it’s t late. Yu shuld g t bed nw.
    M: Mm, I’m busy preparing fr a test. It’s imprtant t me.
    W: OK. Yu can g t bed an hur later.
    5. W: I will g t Linda’s birthday party. Can yu give sme advice n the clthes.
    M: Oh, I think a blue dress is OK.
    B)请听下面4段材料。每段材料后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段材料前你都将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段材料读两遍。(每小题1分)
    请听第1段材料,回答6、7小题。
    M: Hi, Kate! Yu lk happy nw. D yu have any gd news?
    W: Yes. Next Saturday is my birthday. My parents will have a birthday party fr me.
    M: Ww! Sunds great.
    W: Can yu cme t my party, Jeff?
    M: What date will it be?
    W: It will be n June 18th.
    请听第2段材料,回答第8、9小题。
    W: Hi, Jack! What’s yur dream jb?
    M: I want t be a singer.
    W: Why?
    M: Because if I becme a singer, maybe I will be famus ne day. Then I will be able t make a lt f mney.
    W: What will yu d if yu are rich?
    M: I’ll help the pr children. What abut yu? What d yu want t be, Rse?
    W: I want t be a teacher in a muntain village, because I think life in the city is t difficult.
    请听第3段材料,回答第10至第12小题。
    W: Hell, Michael. Is that by Dennis?
    M: N, it isn’t. That’s David. Dennis is shrter than David.
    W: But they lk quite similar.
    M: Yes, they are brthers, and they are my best friends. We have the same hbbies.
    W: What are yur hbbies, Michael?
    M: We all enjy playing basketball. We always d it after schl every day.
    W: D yu have any differences?
    M: Of curse. I’m quieter than Dennis and David.
    请听第4段材料,回答13至第15小题。
    Tday I will shw yu arund the Super Fd Market. There are three halls in the market. In the first hall, we can buy sme kinds f vegetables and fruits. If yu like t eat cakes and desserts, yu can’t miss the secnd hall.
    In this hall yu can find a cffee huse. Yu can have ht breakfast in the cffee huse frm 6 a.m. t 9 a.m. In the third hall yu can find a fast fd restaurant. Yu can buy hamburgers here. Dn’t frget t visit the children’s playrm. It’s next t the fast fd restaurant. It’s really a nice place fr the children.
    C)请听下面一段独白,根据独白内容完成下列句子,每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案写在答题卡的相应
    位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。(每小题1分)
    Our earth is becming wrse and wrse because f serius pllutin, like land pllutin, water pllutin, and air pllutin. What shuld we d t save the earth?
    First, we shuldn’t make much rubbish. We need mre land t deal with rubbish, s there wn’t be enugh space fr peple. The land will als be plluted easily and few plants can grw. Next, we shuld keep the sea clean. Fish will be in great danger living in the plluted water. If we keep plluting it, it’ll be hard fr us t enjy s much seafd r swim happily in the sea in the future. Third, everyne shuld keep air clean. Plluted air is bad fr ur health, s we must wrk ut sme gd plans t reduce air pllutin. T make the earth a better place, we shuld learn t lve ur planet frm nw n. And everyne shuld play a part in saving the earth.
    听力部分答案:
    一、 1—5: CBBBA 6—10: ACCBB 11—15: CBCAC
    16. pllutin 17. space 18. the sea19. hard
    20. saving the earth
    笔试部分答案:
    二、 21—25: BDCCD 26—28: AAB
    三、 A) 29-33 CBADD 34-38ABCAB 39-43ABCBB
    B) 44. greatest 45. said 46.mind 47. mistakes 48. wrried
    49. if 50. example 51. made 52. them 53. frm
    54. happier
    四、 A) 55—57 BAB 58—62 BCCBC 63—67 DCBDA
    68—72 ACDAB 73—77 BDAEG
    五、 78—82 BADGE
    六、
    One Pssible Versin:
    Hw t Keep Healthy
    As we all knw, health is very imprtant. As middle schl students, we shuld have a healthy lifestyle. Here is sme advice.
    First, we shuld d exercise at least ne hur a day, such as running and walking. Secnd, we shuld eat mre healthy fd and less junk fd. Fr example, we can eat mre fruit and vegetables. Third, we shuldn’t spend t much time ging nline. It is bad fr ur eyes. Finally, g t bed early and dn’t stay up t late because enugh sleep is gd fr ur health.
    If we d s, I believe we can keep healthy.example if them mind mistake said
    great frm happier make wrried
    Sunshine Family
    Sunshine Family is the perfect place fr yur child’s special birthday party.
    Opening Time: Friday: CLOSED
    Frm Mnday t Thursday: 9:00~18:00
    Saturday and Sunday: 10:00~17:00
    ▲T bk (预订)a party, please e-mail us at @Sunshinefamily.cm r call us at 666-4528 between 9 a.m. and 6 p. m.
    ▲Bk the birthday party at least three days befre the party date. 10 t 20 children each party.
    ▲¥ 20 each child.
    ▲The price includes the rm, the party hst (主持人) and fd fr every child.
    A. Make yur plan right nw.
    B. Maybe the fllwing can help yu.
    C. Making yur plan isn’t always easy.
    D. A gd plan will tell yu what t d next.
    E. Write dwn yur reslutin and plan.
    F. I ften make plans fr my summer hliday.
    G. It desn’t mean yu must finish it in ne day.
    A. Yes, I’d lve t.
    B. Where will yu have it?
    C. We will have a great time.
    D. I think we can play games.
    E. When will yu have a party?
    F. Hw will we g t the party?
    G. If we d that, mre peple will jin the games.
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