2024届山东省东营市东营区四下英语期中考试试题含答案

这是一份2024届山东省东营市东营区四下英语期中考试试题含答案，共7页。试卷主要包含了选出不同类的一项，按要求完成下列句子，连词成句，选词填空, 每词限用一次，将下列问句与相应的答语连起来，根据句子，选择正确的答语等内容，欢迎下载使用。
学校_______ 班级_______ 姓名_______
一、选出不同类的一项(每题2分,共10分)。
1.A. library B. playgrund C. way
2.A. sky B. cap C. shes
3.A. draw B. write C. sleeping
4.A. draw B. paint C. mn
5.A. was B. am C. were
二、选出最恰当的一项，完成下列各小题(每题2分,共20分)。
6.Peter’s mther is ______ in the kitchen. ( )
A. ck B. cks C. cking
7.We have ______ art rm. ______ art rm is next t the library. ( )
A. an; The B. a; The C. the; An
8.What clur ________ yur shrts? ( )
A. am B. is C. are
9.It’s 7 ’clck. It’s time _________ have breakfast. ( )
A. fr B. t C. at
10.between ( )
A. 在……旁边 B. 在……后面 C. 在……中间
11.—______ ( )
—It’s windy.
A. What’s the weather like in Sydney?
B. Where is Sydney?
C. Is it cl in Sydney?
12.Hw’s the weather ______ December? ( )
A. at B. in C. n
13.--- Can I pen the windw? （）
---.
A. Excuse me B. Yes, yu can C. N, I can’t
14.—Can yu write in English? ( )
—Yes, I ______.
A. am B. can C. d
15.—Were yu at hme yesterday? ( )
—_____, I ______.
A. Yes; was B. N; desn’t C. Yes; are
三、按要求完成下列句子(每题2分,共10分)。
16.My sister ______ (have) a skating lessn this afternn.
17.Helen ______ (have / has) fur lessns in the mrning.
18.They __________ (be) ld then.
19.It’s __________ tday.
20.It’s cld and ______ (snw) in Changchun.
四、连词成句(每题2分,共10分)。
21.is, fr, it, class, time, English (.)
22.My, is, sister, cute, little, very (.)
______________________________
23.have, a, rm, cmputer, yu, d (?)
24.yu, water, d, any, have
________________________________________ ?
25.a, He, clever, is, by (.)
__________________________
五、阅读短文，并根据短文内容判断对(T)错(F)。(10分)
Hi! My name is Jhn. I cme frm England. I’m Red Star Primary Schl. It’s very nice. I’m in Class One, Grade Tw. There are twenty classrms in my schl. There’s a big gym, a library, a music rm and a playgrund. There’s nt a hall. The teachers are very kind. I like them. Everyday I get up at 6.30. Then I have breakfast at hme. And I g t schl by bus. I have fur classes in the mrning and three in the afternn. I get hme at 6.30 in the afternn. I play sccer and badmintn after schl. I d my hmewrk at 7.30. Then I g t bed at 9.45. Hw busy and happy I am!
1. Jhn is an English by. （ ）
2. Jhn is in Class One, Grade Tw. （ ）
3. There are eighteen classrms in Jhn’s schl. （ ）
4. There are seven class in a day. （ ）
5. There’s a big library, a music rm and a playgrund in his schl. （ ）
六、选词填空, 每词限用一次。(10分)
1. ________________ nt?
2. It ________________ clean then.
3. Can yu ________________ the call nw?
4. ________________ is a big city.
5. Yaya can ________________ a bike.
6. Wh is that little ________________?
七、将下列问句与相应的答语连起来。 (10分)
1. Wh are they? a. N, she isn’t.
2. Is she Fangfang? b. They are my grandparents.
3. What is it? c. Yes, I will.
4. What will yu d? d. It’s Twer Bridge.
5. Will yu take sme juice? e. I’ll read my bks.
八、根据句子，选择正确的答语。(10分)
1. What's in yur bedrm? （ ）
2. Is there a new cmputer in the study? （ ）
3. Let's help children in need. （ ）
4. This is ur new Chinese teacher. （ ）
5. What subjects d yu like best? （ ）
九、Dngdng正在向大家介绍他的朋友呢。读一读，选择合适的选项把下面的短文补充完整吧。(10分)
Hi, I’m Dngdng. This is my friend, Mingming. He is the USA. He lives in Fangcheng nw. He is in One, Fur. He is gd at . He has red shes. He likes red very much.
参考答案
一、选出不同类的一项(每题2分,共10分)。
1.C
2.A
3.C
4.C
5.B
二、选出最恰当的一项，完成下列各小题(每题2分,共20分)。
6.C
7.A
8.C
9.B
10.C
11.A
12.B
13.B
14.B
15.A
三、按要求完成下列句子(每题2分,共10分)。
16.has
17.has
18.were
19.Tuesday
20.snwy
四、连词成句(每题2分,共10分)。
21.It is time fr English class.
22.My little sister is very cute.
23.
24.D yu have any water
25.He is a clever by.
五、1.T2. T3. F4. T5. F
六、1. Why
2.wasn’t
3. answer
4. Lndn
5. ride
6. girl
七、1-5 badec
八、1. C2. D3. B4. A5. E
九、frm；Class；Grade；dancing；a pair fLndn Why girl wasn’t answer ride
A. Welcme t ur class!
B. Great! Here are sme bks.
C. Cme and see.
D. Yes, there is.
E. Science and art.
Grade frm a pair f Class dancing