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山东省聊城市东昌府区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题
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这是一份山东省聊城市东昌府区2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题，共9页。
亲爱的同学，请在答题之前，仔细阅读以下说明：
1.试题由选择题与非选择题两部分组成，共10页。选择题80分，非选择题40分，共计120分。
2.将姓名、考场号、座号、考号填写在试题和答题卡指定的位置。
3.试题答案全部涂、写在答题卡上，完全按照答题卡中的“注意事项”答题。
愿你放松心情，放飞思维，充分发挥，争取交一份圆满答卷。
选择题（三大题，共计80分）
一、听力测试（共30小题；每小题1分，满分30分）
第一节听下面10个短对话。每个对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
1. What happened t Tny last night?
A. Tny fell ff his bike.B. Tny hurt his knee.C. Tny brke his leg.
2. Hw des Jess g t schl?
A. By undergrund. .B. By bus.C. By bike.
3. Hw can they help the animals in danger?
A. Put up a ntice.B. Make a reprt.C. Raise sme mney.
4. Hw many babies are brn a year in the wrld?
A. Over 131. 4 millin.B. Over 140 millin.C. Over 250 millin.
5. What is the weather like in New Yrk in winter?
A. Sunny.B. Cludy.C. Snwy.
6. What des Carl think f the film?
A. Interesting.B. Exciting.C. Helpful.
7. Where des the cnversatin prbably （可能地） take place?
A. In a park.B. In a hspital.C. In a schl.
8. What will the wman call fr help?
A. 110.B. 120.C. 911.
9. Why must Mike stp nw?
A. Because he is tired.
B. Because there is an accident.
C. Because the traffic lights are red.
10. Wh wrte the bk?
A. Shakespeare.B. Charles Dickens.C. Mark Twain.
第二节 听下面四段对话。每段对话后各有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。
11. What des Bruce think f ftball?
A. Bring.B. Exciting.C. Relaxing.
12. Where did Bruce watch the ftball match last night?
A. On TV.B. In the gym.C. On the Internet.
13. What time did Bruce get t sleep?
A. At 1：30.B. At 2：30.C. At 3：30.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。
14. Which library is the girl ging?
A. The Twn Library.B. The University Library.
C. The Capital Library.
15. Hw far is it frm here t the library?
A. Abut 15 kilmetres.B. Abut 20 kilmetres.
C. Abut 24 kilmetres.
16. Hw lng will it take the girl t get there by taxi?
A. Abut fifteen minutes.B. Abut twenty minutes.
C. Abut thirty minutes.
17. Hw is the girl prbably ging there at last?
A. By bike.B. By bus.C. By taxi.
听下面一段对话，回答第18至21题。
18. What place did the girl visit in Beijing last year?
A. The Summer Palace and the Great Wall.B. La She Teahuse and Wangfujing Dajie.
C. Tian’anmen Square and Wangfujing Dajie.
19. Wh is La She?
A. A famus singer.B. A famus writer.C. A dctr.
20. What is La She mst famus fr?
A. His clthes.B. His play Teahuse.C. His pet.
21. What des NOT the girl want t d in La She Teahuse?
A. Drink tea.B. See Beijing Opera.C. Watch a mvie.
听下面一段对话，回答第22至25题。
22. Where are they talking prbably?
A. On the rad.B. In the library.C. On the phne.
23. Where was Lucy befre?
A. In Nanjing.B. In Shanghai.C. In Beijing.
24. What’s the biggest prblem in Beijing?
A. Pllutin.B. Ppulatin.C. Water.
25. What des Lucy think f the rads in Beijing during the rush hur?
A. Always crwded.B. Beautiful.C. Clean.
第三节 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
26. What was Alice’s sister ding?
A. Reading a bk.B. Playing with ants.C. Running after a rabbit.
27. What clur were the rabbit’s eyes?
A. White.B. Pink.C. Black.
28. Where was the rabbit’s watch befre he tk it ut?
A. In its bag.B. On its arm.C. In its pcket.
29. What did Alice run acrss after the rabbit?
A. The field.B. The frest.C. The playgrund.
30. Where did Alice land?
A. On her bed.B. On leaves.C. In the river.
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
I ften hear sme students say English is difficult, s they can’t learn it well. 31 English is very easy fr me. I’m 32 at it. I’m very glad t tell yu 33 abut hw I study English.
34 , I think an interest in English is very imprtant. When I was in Grade Three, we had a new subject— 35 . It was new t me. I was interested in it. I wrked hard at it. Sn we had an English exam and I gt a very gd mark. Hw 36 I was! After that, I learned English harder. Our English teacher ften teaches us English sngs, and 37 sund nice. Hw interesting English is!
Secnd, I think English is a freign language. I learn it well in the fllwing ways: 38 t the teacher carefully, then repeat what yu heard. Recite the 39 and have a gd vcabulary. Then practise again and again, and never give up. When I have a questin, I ften understand it by 40 ur English teacher.
31. A. AndB. OrC. But
32. A. in differentB. badC. gd
33. A. smethingB. anythingC. nthing
34. A. FirstB. SecndC. Third
35. A. MathsB. EnglishC. Chinese
36. A. sadB. srryC. happy
37. A. theyB. weC. yu
38. A. writeB. listenC. speak
39. A. ideasB. questinsC. wrds
40. A. askingB. answeringC. telling
三、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断其后面所给句子的对错，并在答题卡上将所选的对应选项涂黑。选Right涂A，选Wrng涂B。
Mike the Dg is very friendly. He lves meeting new peple. He has a lt f friends! One f his very gd friends is a blue rbt named Bb. Bb is a nice rbt, but a little clumsy （笨拙的）. A lng time ag, maybe even befre yu were brn, Bb saved the wrld! But nw, he lives a pretty quiet life.
Anther great friend f Mike is Happy the Rabbit, r “Hap” fr shrt. Hap is very smart n every subject, especially maths and science. He likes teaching thers wh.at he knws, and he，s always making all kinds f inventins. Sme wrk and sme dn’t, but n matter what, Hap just keeps trying!
An ld friend f Mike is Flwer. Even thugh Flwer and Mike are bth dgs, they’re very different. Mike is full f energy, lves jkes! Flwer, hwever, likes t be mre practical.
She likes ding sensible （合理的） things mre than ding fun and crazy things. But bth she and Mike lve learning and care abut ding what’s right mre than anything, s t them, their differences seem small.
41. Mike the Dg has many friends.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
42. Bb is a green rbt.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
43. Happy the Rabbit desn’t knw maths at all.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
44. Flwer and Mike are bth dgs.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
45. Mike and his friend Flwer are all full f energy.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
第二节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能回答所提问题或能完成所给句子的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Huse fires ften happen. S it is necessary （必要的） t learn smething useful t prtect family frm them. The fllwing pster （海报） in the neighburhd will tell yu hw t d it.
46. Yu shuld test the smke alarm ______.
A. every dayB. every weekC. every mnthD. every year
47. ______ can make the risk f dying in a huse fire smaller.
A. A smke alarmB. A pair f eyeglassesC. A wheelchairD. A telephne
48. Yu have t make sure the fllwing things are next t yur bed EXCEPT yur ______.
A. hearing aidB. wheelchairC. eyeglassesD. cup
49. It will take yu ______ t escape frm a huse fire safely:
A. 2 minutesB. 293 minutesC. ne hurD. half an hur
50. Accrding t the pster, what can save yu frm a huse fire?
A. Stpping the fire frm spreading.
B. Making and fllwing a fire escape plan.
C. Keeping awake between 11 pm and 7 am.
D. Calling 119 fr help as sn as yu are ready t escape.
B
There are abut 56 millin peple in the United Kingdm. This is a big ppulatin fr such a small cuntry. But large parts f the cuntry have few peple. Mst f the ppulatin is crwded int the big cities and industrial （工业的） areas. Abut 90% f the peple live in cities and twns. Only abut 10% live in the cuntryside. Tday very few peple—less than 2% f the ppulatin are farmers and farm wrkers. The United Kingdm cntains 4 parts— England, Sctland, Wales, and Nrthern Ireland.
England has the mst peple. Abut 46 millin live in England. Of these, abut 14 millin live in Lndn and the sutheast. Lndn is nw a city with abut 7 millin peple.
Abut 5 millin Sctland’s peple live in the middle part. Here are the cities and twns f the industrial area. The muntains in the nrth and the suth have a very small ppulatin.
Fewer than 3 millin peple live in Wales. Like Sctland, mst f the ppulatin live in the industrial area in the suth.
There are nly abut ne and a half millin peple in Nrthern Ireland. And ne-third live in and arund the big industrial city f Belfast.
51. The United Kingdm ______.
A. is a large cuntryB. has many peple
C. has a small ppulatinD. is a small cuntry withut many peple
52. Mst f the peple live ______.
A. in cities and twnsB. in the cuntrysideC. n the farmD. near rivers
53. Abut ______ peple live in Lndn.
A. 46 millinB. 14 millinC. 7 millinD. 5 millin
54. Abut 5 millin Sctland’s peple live in the.
A. suthwestB. sutheastC. nrtheastD. middle part
55. Nrthern Ireland is ______.
A. a part f WalesB. ne part f the United Kingdm
C. a city with a smaller ppulatinD. a small city f the United Kingdm
C
Yang Sngb is 94 years ld nw，but he still wrks as a music teacher in Anhui Prvince.
Yang is frm a small twn f Anhui. He wrked there as a rural （乡村的） music teacher fr abut 40 years. In 1990, he retired. But after he learned sme rural schls were shrt f music teachers, he decided t g n teaching. “I usually have 6 music lessns at a schl and 5 lessns at anther schl every week,” the man said. T make his lessns mre interesting, Yang started t learn t play the pian in 2006 when he was 77 years ld. At the age f 80, Yang felt that he was t ld t teach music. But the children wanted him t stay. “Students wanted me t teach music. S I decided t g n teaching,” Yang said.
He desn’t stp there. Yang als uses sme f his mney t help students in need. Liu Lili is ne f the students he helped. Abut ten years ag, Liu, then a student in Grade 4, had t stp schling because her family didn’t have enugh mney. When Yang heard abut that, he helped the girl. “I try my best t help children in need,” the ld man said.
“I feel happy t teach music,” Yang said. “Fr children in rural schls, music is a way t help them make their dreams （梦想） cme true.”
56. Hw many lessns des Yang Sngb usually have every week?
A. 4.B.5.C. 11D.12
57. At the age f ______, Yang Sngb started t learn t play the pian.
A. 40B. 77C. 80D. 93
58. Liu Lili’s stry tells us that ______.
A. Yang Sngb wrks hard
B. Yang Sngb’s students are excellent
C. Yang Sngb is ppular with students
D. Yang Sngb uses his mney t help students
59. Which f the fllwing is NOT true abut Yang Sngb?
A. Yang was brn in 1930.
B. Yang lves t teach music.
C. Liu Lili is ne f Yang’s students.
D. Yang teaches English at ne schl.
60. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. A Great TeacherB. Lve fr Music
C. Children’s Big DreamD. Rural Schls in China
非选择题（三大题，共计40分）
四、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处按要求填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。每空1个单词。
The US is a very big cuntry. It is abut 3,000 miles frm the east cast t the west cast, s chse 61 (careful) the places t see and the time t g. Bring a map because yu may want t travel arund.
New Yrk and Washingtn DC 62 (be) gd places t visit in May r Octber, but in winter there is a lt f snw.
The best 63 (time) t visit New England is in September. The weather gets 64 (cl) and the green leaves start t turn gld, then brwn. Bring yur camera s yu can take phts f the autumn trees.
Califrnia is 65 （介词） the Pacific cast, and the weather is fine all year rund. Take yur swimming clthes because yu might want t g swimming in the sea，even in December.
In Seattle, in the nrthwest, it is nt very cld but it rains a lt, s bring 66 （冠词） umbrella. In Alaska, the days are lng and warm in summer, 67 （连词） may be cl in the evening. In winter, Alaska can be very very cld. If yu want t visit Alaska, yu had better 68 (g) in summer. D nt frget t bring a warm sweater with yu.
In Texas and the sutheast, it is usually very ht and sunny 69 (cmpare) t ther places. These are 70 (strm) frm time t time in summer and autumn.
S when is the best time t visit the US? Any time yu like!
五、阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据其内容完成后面各项任务。
I saw a car accident when I went t schl yesterday. It was early in the mrning，abut twenty t eight. I was n my way t schl n Zhngshan Rad when I heard the sund f 这 car. Then, 我看到一个小男孩从自行车上摔了下来。 The car driver didn’t stp, and he drve away quickly. The car ran s fast that I culdn’t see it clearly. I nly remembered that it was a red car and dirty.
Then I ran t the by. Luckily, he was nt serius, but he culdn’t walk. He tld me that the car hit him. Then I called 120 and 110. Sn the plice car arrived. I tld the pliceman what I saw. He asked me t describe what the car lked like and the car number. I felt srry because I didn’t see the car number. Then an ambulance （救护车） came and they tk the by t the hspital.
I think the driver shuld stp his car and make sure if the by was OK.
71.将文中划线的汉语句子译成英语。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
72.回答问题：
What did the car lk like?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
73.将文中划线的英语句子译成汉语。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
74.回答问题：
What des the underlined wrd “He” in Paragraph 2 refer t （指代）?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
75.在文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。
I was srry fr nt nticing the car number.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
六、书面表达（满分20分）
假如你是李华，你的英国好友Mike发邮件说他将来中国游玩两个月，询问你关于春节期间在中国生活的注意事项。请你根据下列提示，给他写一封英文邮件，告诉他需要注意哪些事情。
注意：
1.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
2.词数：80词左右。电子邮件的格式、开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
I’m glad t hear that yu will cme t China. I’d like t share sme ways f life in China with yu.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
I’m lking frward t seeing yu in China.
Yurs,
Li Hua
2023—2024学年第一学期期末学业水平检测
八年级英语试题参考答案及评分说明
选择题（三大题，共计80分）
一、听力测试
1—5 BACAC 6—10 CBACB 11—15 BABCB 16-20 ACCBB 21—25CCBBA 26—30ABOAB
二、完形填空
31—35 CCAAB 36-40 CABCA
三、阅读理解
41—45ABBAB 46—50 CADAB 51—55BACDB 56—60 CBDDA
非选择题（三大题，共计40分）
四、语法填空
61. carefully62. are63. time64. cler65. n
66. an67. but68. g69. cmpared70. strms
五、阅读表达
71. I saw a little by fall ff his bike.
72. Red and dirty.
73.幸运的是，他伤的不严重，但是他不能走路了。
74. The pliceman.
75. I felt srry because I didn’t see the car number.
六、书面表达
One pssible versin:
Dear Mike,
I’m glad t hear that yu will cme t China. I’d like t share sme ways f life in China with yu.
First, when yu meet smene fr the first time, yu shuld shake hands and say hell. Then, when yu receive a gift frm a Chinese friend, remember t pen it later. The Spring Festival is cming. On the first day f the Spring Festival, yu mustn’t d any cleaning and yu mustn’t break anything. It’s bad luck. During the Spring Festival mnth, yu must use red paper fr Hngba because red means luck, and yu’d better nt have yur hair cut.
I’m lking frward t seeing yu in China.
Yurs,
Li HuaFire Safety
Cherish （珍爱） lifePrtect family
Put a smke alarm （警报器） in yur huse and test it every mnth.
Half f all huse fire deaths happen between 11 pm and 7 am. The risk f dying in a huse fire is cut in half with wrking smke alarms.
Make sure yur hearing aid，wheelchair （轮椅） r eyeglasses are next t yur bed.
Fire can spread thrugh a huse sn. Yu may have as little as tw minutes t escape safely. Be ready t act at nce.
Create a fire escape plan.
77% f families dn’t have a huse fire escape plan t fllw. That’s ne f the reasns why at least ne child dies and 293 children are injured in a huse fire every day.
Dn’t call 119 until yu are safe utside.
During a fire, the first thing t d is t get ut f the huse as fast as yu can.
当你来中国时……
初次见面
握手问好……
收到礼物
稍后再打开……
春节第一天
不要打扫卫生；不要打碎东西……
春节期间
送红包；最好不要剪头发……
……
亲爱的同学，请在答题之前，仔细阅读以下说明：
1.试题由选择题与非选择题两部分组成，共10页。选择题80分，非选择题40分，共计120分。
2.将姓名、考场号、座号、考号填写在试题和答题卡指定的位置。
3.试题答案全部涂、写在答题卡上，完全按照答题卡中的“注意事项”答题。
愿你放松心情，放飞思维，充分发挥，争取交一份圆满答卷。
选择题（三大题，共计80分）
一、听力测试（共30小题；每小题1分，满分30分）
第一节听下面10个短对话。每个对话后面有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每个对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每个对话仅读一遍。
1. What happened t Tny last night?
A. Tny fell ff his bike.B. Tny hurt his knee.C. Tny brke his leg.
2. Hw des Jess g t schl?
A. By undergrund. .B. By bus.C. By bike.
3. Hw can they help the animals in danger?
A. Put up a ntice.B. Make a reprt.C. Raise sme mney.
4. Hw many babies are brn a year in the wrld?
A. Over 131. 4 millin.B. Over 140 millin.C. Over 250 millin.
5. What is the weather like in New Yrk in winter?
A. Sunny.B. Cludy.C. Snwy.
6. What des Carl think f the film?
A. Interesting.B. Exciting.C. Helpful.
7. Where des the cnversatin prbably （可能地） take place?
A. In a park.B. In a hspital.C. In a schl.
8. What will the wman call fr help?
A. 110.B. 120.C. 911.
9. Why must Mike stp nw?
A. Because he is tired.
B. Because there is an accident.
C. Because the traffic lights are red.
10. Wh wrte the bk?
A. Shakespeare.B. Charles Dickens.C. Mark Twain.
第二节 听下面四段对话。每段对话后各有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第11至13题。
11. What des Bruce think f ftball?
A. Bring.B. Exciting.C. Relaxing.
12. Where did Bruce watch the ftball match last night?
A. On TV.B. In the gym.C. On the Internet.
13. What time did Bruce get t sleep?
A. At 1：30.B. At 2：30.C. At 3：30.
听下面一段对话，回答第14至17题。
14. Which library is the girl ging?
A. The Twn Library.B. The University Library.
C. The Capital Library.
15. Hw far is it frm here t the library?
A. Abut 15 kilmetres.B. Abut 20 kilmetres.
C. Abut 24 kilmetres.
16. Hw lng will it take the girl t get there by taxi?
A. Abut fifteen minutes.B. Abut twenty minutes.
C. Abut thirty minutes.
17. Hw is the girl prbably ging there at last?
A. By bike.B. By bus.C. By taxi.
听下面一段对话，回答第18至21题。
18. What place did the girl visit in Beijing last year?
A. The Summer Palace and the Great Wall.B. La She Teahuse and Wangfujing Dajie.
C. Tian’anmen Square and Wangfujing Dajie.
19. Wh is La She?
A. A famus singer.B. A famus writer.C. A dctr.
20. What is La She mst famus fr?
A. His clthes.B. His play Teahuse.C. His pet.
21. What des NOT the girl want t d in La She Teahuse?
A. Drink tea.B. See Beijing Opera.C. Watch a mvie.
听下面一段对话，回答第22至25题。
22. Where are they talking prbably?
A. On the rad.B. In the library.C. On the phne.
23. Where was Lucy befre?
A. In Nanjing.B. In Shanghai.C. In Beijing.
24. What’s the biggest prblem in Beijing?
A. Pllutin.B. Ppulatin.C. Water.
25. What des Lucy think f the rads in Beijing during the rush hur?
A. Always crwded.B. Beautiful.C. Clean.
第三节 听下面一段独白。独白后有5个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听独白前，你有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，每小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。该段独白读两遍。
26. What was Alice’s sister ding?
A. Reading a bk.B. Playing with ants.C. Running after a rabbit.
27. What clur were the rabbit’s eyes?
A. White.B. Pink.C. Black.
28. Where was the rabbit’s watch befre he tk it ut?
A. In its bag.B. On its arm.C. In its pcket.
29. What did Alice run acrss after the rabbit?
A. The field.B. The frest.C. The playgrund.
30. Where did Alice land?
A. On her bed.B. On leaves.C. In the river.
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
I ften hear sme students say English is difficult, s they can’t learn it well. 31 English is very easy fr me. I’m 32 at it. I’m very glad t tell yu 33 abut hw I study English.
34 , I think an interest in English is very imprtant. When I was in Grade Three, we had a new subject— 35 . It was new t me. I was interested in it. I wrked hard at it. Sn we had an English exam and I gt a very gd mark. Hw 36 I was! After that, I learned English harder. Our English teacher ften teaches us English sngs, and 37 sund nice. Hw interesting English is!
Secnd, I think English is a freign language. I learn it well in the fllwing ways: 38 t the teacher carefully, then repeat what yu heard. Recite the 39 and have a gd vcabulary. Then practise again and again, and never give up. When I have a questin, I ften understand it by 40 ur English teacher.
31. A. AndB. OrC. But
32. A. in differentB. badC. gd
33. A. smethingB. anythingC. nthing
34. A. FirstB. SecndC. Third
35. A. MathsB. EnglishC. Chinese
36. A. sadB. srryC. happy
37. A. theyB. weC. yu
38. A. writeB. listenC. speak
39. A. ideasB. questinsC. wrds
40. A. askingB. answeringC. telling
三、阅读理解（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面短文，根据短文内容判断其后面所给句子的对错，并在答题卡上将所选的对应选项涂黑。选Right涂A，选Wrng涂B。
Mike the Dg is very friendly. He lves meeting new peple. He has a lt f friends! One f his very gd friends is a blue rbt named Bb. Bb is a nice rbt, but a little clumsy （笨拙的）. A lng time ag, maybe even befre yu were brn, Bb saved the wrld! But nw, he lives a pretty quiet life.
Anther great friend f Mike is Happy the Rabbit, r “Hap” fr shrt. Hap is very smart n every subject, especially maths and science. He likes teaching thers wh.at he knws, and he，s always making all kinds f inventins. Sme wrk and sme dn’t, but n matter what, Hap just keeps trying!
An ld friend f Mike is Flwer. Even thugh Flwer and Mike are bth dgs, they’re very different. Mike is full f energy, lves jkes! Flwer, hwever, likes t be mre practical.
She likes ding sensible （合理的） things mre than ding fun and crazy things. But bth she and Mike lve learning and care abut ding what’s right mre than anything, s t them, their differences seem small.
41. Mike the Dg has many friends.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
42. Bb is a green rbt.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
43. Happy the Rabbit desn’t knw maths at all.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
44. Flwer and Mike are bth dgs.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
45. Mike and his friend Flwer are all full f energy.
A. Right.B. Wrng.
第二节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能回答所提问题或能完成所给句子的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Huse fires ften happen. S it is necessary （必要的） t learn smething useful t prtect family frm them. The fllwing pster （海报） in the neighburhd will tell yu hw t d it.
46. Yu shuld test the smke alarm ______.
A. every dayB. every weekC. every mnthD. every year
47. ______ can make the risk f dying in a huse fire smaller.
A. A smke alarmB. A pair f eyeglassesC. A wheelchairD. A telephne
48. Yu have t make sure the fllwing things are next t yur bed EXCEPT yur ______.
A. hearing aidB. wheelchairC. eyeglassesD. cup
49. It will take yu ______ t escape frm a huse fire safely:
A. 2 minutesB. 293 minutesC. ne hurD. half an hur
50. Accrding t the pster, what can save yu frm a huse fire?
A. Stpping the fire frm spreading.
B. Making and fllwing a fire escape plan.
C. Keeping awake between 11 pm and 7 am.
D. Calling 119 fr help as sn as yu are ready t escape.
B
There are abut 56 millin peple in the United Kingdm. This is a big ppulatin fr such a small cuntry. But large parts f the cuntry have few peple. Mst f the ppulatin is crwded int the big cities and industrial （工业的） areas. Abut 90% f the peple live in cities and twns. Only abut 10% live in the cuntryside. Tday very few peple—less than 2% f the ppulatin are farmers and farm wrkers. The United Kingdm cntains 4 parts— England, Sctland, Wales, and Nrthern Ireland.
England has the mst peple. Abut 46 millin live in England. Of these, abut 14 millin live in Lndn and the sutheast. Lndn is nw a city with abut 7 millin peple.
Abut 5 millin Sctland’s peple live in the middle part. Here are the cities and twns f the industrial area. The muntains in the nrth and the suth have a very small ppulatin.
Fewer than 3 millin peple live in Wales. Like Sctland, mst f the ppulatin live in the industrial area in the suth.
There are nly abut ne and a half millin peple in Nrthern Ireland. And ne-third live in and arund the big industrial city f Belfast.
51. The United Kingdm ______.
A. is a large cuntryB. has many peple
C. has a small ppulatinD. is a small cuntry withut many peple
52. Mst f the peple live ______.
A. in cities and twnsB. in the cuntrysideC. n the farmD. near rivers
53. Abut ______ peple live in Lndn.
A. 46 millinB. 14 millinC. 7 millinD. 5 millin
54. Abut 5 millin Sctland’s peple live in the.
A. suthwestB. sutheastC. nrtheastD. middle part
55. Nrthern Ireland is ______.
A. a part f WalesB. ne part f the United Kingdm
C. a city with a smaller ppulatinD. a small city f the United Kingdm
C
Yang Sngb is 94 years ld nw，but he still wrks as a music teacher in Anhui Prvince.
Yang is frm a small twn f Anhui. He wrked there as a rural （乡村的） music teacher fr abut 40 years. In 1990, he retired. But after he learned sme rural schls were shrt f music teachers, he decided t g n teaching. “I usually have 6 music lessns at a schl and 5 lessns at anther schl every week,” the man said. T make his lessns mre interesting, Yang started t learn t play the pian in 2006 when he was 77 years ld. At the age f 80, Yang felt that he was t ld t teach music. But the children wanted him t stay. “Students wanted me t teach music. S I decided t g n teaching,” Yang said.
He desn’t stp there. Yang als uses sme f his mney t help students in need. Liu Lili is ne f the students he helped. Abut ten years ag, Liu, then a student in Grade 4, had t stp schling because her family didn’t have enugh mney. When Yang heard abut that, he helped the girl. “I try my best t help children in need,” the ld man said.
“I feel happy t teach music,” Yang said. “Fr children in rural schls, music is a way t help them make their dreams （梦想） cme true.”
56. Hw many lessns des Yang Sngb usually have every week?
A. 4.B.5.C. 11D.12
57. At the age f ______, Yang Sngb started t learn t play the pian.
A. 40B. 77C. 80D. 93
58. Liu Lili’s stry tells us that ______.
A. Yang Sngb wrks hard
B. Yang Sngb’s students are excellent
C. Yang Sngb is ppular with students
D. Yang Sngb uses his mney t help students
59. Which f the fllwing is NOT true abut Yang Sngb?
A. Yang was brn in 1930.
B. Yang lves t teach music.
C. Liu Lili is ne f Yang’s students.
D. Yang teaches English at ne schl.
60. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. A Great TeacherB. Lve fr Music
C. Children’s Big DreamD. Rural Schls in China
非选择题（三大题，共计40分）
四、语法填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处按要求填入适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。每空1个单词。
The US is a very big cuntry. It is abut 3,000 miles frm the east cast t the west cast, s chse 61 (careful) the places t see and the time t g. Bring a map because yu may want t travel arund.
New Yrk and Washingtn DC 62 (be) gd places t visit in May r Octber, but in winter there is a lt f snw.
The best 63 (time) t visit New England is in September. The weather gets 64 (cl) and the green leaves start t turn gld, then brwn. Bring yur camera s yu can take phts f the autumn trees.
Califrnia is 65 （介词） the Pacific cast, and the weather is fine all year rund. Take yur swimming clthes because yu might want t g swimming in the sea，even in December.
In Seattle, in the nrthwest, it is nt very cld but it rains a lt, s bring 66 （冠词） umbrella. In Alaska, the days are lng and warm in summer, 67 （连词） may be cl in the evening. In winter, Alaska can be very very cld. If yu want t visit Alaska, yu had better 68 (g) in summer. D nt frget t bring a warm sweater with yu.
In Texas and the sutheast, it is usually very ht and sunny 69 (cmpare) t ther places. These are 70 (strm) frm time t time in summer and autumn.
S when is the best time t visit the US? Any time yu like!
五、阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据其内容完成后面各项任务。
I saw a car accident when I went t schl yesterday. It was early in the mrning，abut twenty t eight. I was n my way t schl n Zhngshan Rad when I heard the sund f 这 car. Then, 我看到一个小男孩从自行车上摔了下来。 The car driver didn’t stp, and he drve away quickly. The car ran s fast that I culdn’t see it clearly. I nly remembered that it was a red car and dirty.
Then I ran t the by. Luckily, he was nt serius, but he culdn’t walk. He tld me that the car hit him. Then I called 120 and 110. Sn the plice car arrived. I tld the pliceman what I saw. He asked me t describe what the car lked like and the car number. I felt srry because I didn’t see the car number. Then an ambulance （救护车） came and they tk the by t the hspital.
I think the driver shuld stp his car and make sure if the by was OK.
71.将文中划线的汉语句子译成英语。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
72.回答问题：
What did the car lk like?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
73.将文中划线的英语句子译成汉语。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
74.回答问题：
What des the underlined wrd “He” in Paragraph 2 refer t （指代）?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
75.在文中找出与下面所给句子意思相近的句子。
I was srry fr nt nticing the car number.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
六、书面表达（满分20分）
假如你是李华，你的英国好友Mike发邮件说他将来中国游玩两个月，询问你关于春节期间在中国生活的注意事项。请你根据下列提示，给他写一封英文邮件，告诉他需要注意哪些事情。
注意：
1.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
2.词数：80词左右。电子邮件的格式、开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
I’m glad t hear that yu will cme t China. I’d like t share sme ways f life in China with yu.
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
I’m lking frward t seeing yu in China.
Yurs,
Li Hua
2023—2024学年第一学期期末学业水平检测
八年级英语试题参考答案及评分说明
选择题（三大题，共计80分）
一、听力测试
1—5 BACAC 6—10 CBACB 11—15 BABCB 16-20 ACCBB 21—25CCBBA 26—30ABOAB
二、完形填空
31—35 CCAAB 36-40 CABCA
三、阅读理解
41—45ABBAB 46—50 CADAB 51—55BACDB 56—60 CBDDA
非选择题（三大题，共计40分）
四、语法填空
61. carefully62. are63. time64. cler65. n
66. an67. but68. g69. cmpared70. strms
五、阅读表达
71. I saw a little by fall ff his bike.
72. Red and dirty.
73.幸运的是，他伤的不严重，但是他不能走路了。
74. The pliceman.
75. I felt srry because I didn’t see the car number.
六、书面表达
One pssible versin:
Dear Mike,
I’m glad t hear that yu will cme t China. I’d like t share sme ways f life in China with yu.
First, when yu meet smene fr the first time, yu shuld shake hands and say hell. Then, when yu receive a gift frm a Chinese friend, remember t pen it later. The Spring Festival is cming. On the first day f the Spring Festival, yu mustn’t d any cleaning and yu mustn’t break anything. It’s bad luck. During the Spring Festival mnth, yu must use red paper fr Hngba because red means luck, and yu’d better nt have yur hair cut.
I’m lking frward t seeing yu in China.
Yurs,
Li HuaFire Safety
Cherish （珍爱） lifePrtect family
Put a smke alarm （警报器） in yur huse and test it every mnth.
Half f all huse fire deaths happen between 11 pm and 7 am. The risk f dying in a huse fire is cut in half with wrking smke alarms.
Make sure yur hearing aid，wheelchair （轮椅） r eyeglasses are next t yur bed.
Fire can spread thrugh a huse sn. Yu may have as little as tw minutes t escape safely. Be ready t act at nce.
Create a fire escape plan.
77% f families dn’t have a huse fire escape plan t fllw. That’s ne f the reasns why at least ne child dies and 293 children are injured in a huse fire every day.
Dn’t call 119 until yu are safe utside.
During a fire, the first thing t d is t get ut f the huse as fast as yu can.
当你来中国时……
初次见面
握手问好……
收到礼物
稍后再打开……
春节第一天
不要打扫卫生；不要打碎东西……
春节期间
送红包；最好不要剪头发……
……
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