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    陕西省安康市石泉县2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题

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    陕西省安康市石泉县2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题

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    这是一份陕西省安康市石泉县2023-2024学年七年级上学期期末考试英语试题,共8页。试卷主要包含了卷面分得分说明, A等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    考生注意:
    1.本试卷共6页,满分120分(含卷面分2分),时间120分钟,请考生在答题卡上作答;
    2.答卷前将装订线内的项目填写清楚;
    3.卷面分(满分2分)得分说明:书写认真,连线规范,卷面整洁,得2分;书写较认真,连线较规范,卷面较整洁,得1分;书写不认真,卷面不整洁,乱涂乱抹,得0分。
    第一部分 (听力 共30分)
    Ⅰ.听选答案(共15 小题, 计20分)
    第一节:听下面10段对话,每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题,从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。(共10小题,计10分)
    ( )1. A. Wd . B. Smith. C. Brwn.
    ( )2. A. Bb. B. Bb's friend. C. Bb's brther.
    ( )3. A. In the desk. B. On the table. C. In his bag.
    ( )4. A. Ninety yuan. B. Frty yuan. C. Fifty yuan.
    ( )5. A. A pen. B. A card. C. A bk.
    ( )6. A. Fish and bread. B. Tfu and chicken. C. Milk and hamburgers.
    ( )7. A. By bike. B. On ft. C. By bus.
    ( )8. A. Snwy and cld. B. Rainy and cl. C. Sunny and warm.
    ( )9. A. Her cusins. B. Her parents. C. Her classmates.
    ( )10. A. Running. B. Playing sccer. C. Playing basketball.
    第二节:听下面两段对话,每段对话后有几道小题,请根据对话的内容,从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共5小题,计 10分)
    听第11段对话, 回答第11、12小题。
    ( )11. What clr is the schlbag?
    A. Pink. B. Black. C. Green.
    ( )12. What's Tm's telephne number?
    A. It's 856-5297. B. It's 837-5283. C. It's 856-2791.
    听第12段对话, 回答第 13 至 15 小题。
    ( )13. What is Lynn's favrite subject?
    A. Music. B. Science. C. Histry.
    ( )14. What des Andy think f Chinese?
    A. It's fun. B. It's relaxing. C. It's useful.
    ( )15. Hw many Chinese lessns des Andy have in a week?
    A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
    Ⅱ.听填信息(共5 小题, 计10分)
    本题你将听到一段独白,读两遍。请根据独白内容,用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。(每空不超过三个单词。)
    16. On September seventh, we have a vlleyball .
    17. We have a schl trip .
    18. The English party and the in Nvember are very nice.
    19. I buy a sweater fr my mther.
    20. My family and I t visit my grandparents.
    第二部分 (笔试 共88分)
    Ⅲ.完形填空(共20 小题, 计 20分)
    第一节:阅读下面短文,按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求,从所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,使短文连贯完整。(共10 小题,计10分)
    Hi, my gd friends. I'm Daisy. I cme 21 the UK. I am a student in Class Tw, Grade Seven. 22 students are there in my class? Let me tell yu. There are thirty-six students. Our teachers 23 very kind t us.
    Nw I'd like 24 yu abut my hme. My hme is nt t big 25 it is very clean and tidy. Lk! This is a picture f 26 bedrm. There is a yellw s fa in it. My bed is beside 27 sfa. I ften 28 a rest there. The 29 is next t my chair, and I usually d my hmewrk n it. And there is a red clck n the desk. What can yu 30 behind the dr? Oh, it's my dg. It usually sleeps there in the afternn.
    I lve my class and my hme.
    ( )21. A. with B. in C. at D. frm
    ( )22. A. What B. Hw many C. When D. Hw ld
    ( )23. A. am B. is C. are D. be
    ( )24. A. tell B. t tell C. need D. t need
    ( )25. A. but B. r C. because D. s
    ( )26. A. I B. my C. she D. her
    ( )27. A. a B. an C. the D./
    ( )28. A. have B. has C. make D. makes
    ( )29. A. bkcases B. bkcase C. desks D. desk
    ( )30. A. take B. drink C. see D. eat
    第二节:阅读下面短文,理解大意,从所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案,使短文连贯完整。(共10小题,计10分)
    Hell! I'm Je, a student in N. 1 Middle Schl. I want t tell yu abut my 31 life..
    In the mrning, I get up at 6:20. Then I have 32 at 6:40. I ften have bread and milk fr breakfast. I g t schl at 7:00. We usually have mrning readings first. We have many 33 at schl. They are Chinese, English, math, 34 ,P. E., art, and cmputer. We have fur classes in the mrning. My favrite subject is English and I am very gd at it. The classes in the mrning 35 at 11:35. Then we have lunch at schl. Smetimes, 36 teachers eat with us. a
    I have many friends. And I like ging t the library with them. We ften 37 bks there n Tuesdays. I als like 38 ftball with my friends in the afternn. Because it is my favrite 39 .
    I am very happy at schl and I 40 my schl life is great.
    ( )31. A. weekend B. cuntry C. schl D. family
    C
    I'm Victr. I'm in N.2 Middle Schl. In my schl, we have five events(活动) every year.They're the schl trip, the English speech cntest(演讲比赛), the art shw, the basketball game and the Schl Day.
    The schl trip is n the secnd day f March. Students can g n a picnic(野餐). We are very happy. The English speech cn test is n June 25th. It's exciting(令人激动的). The art shw is n September 19th. It is very interesting. The basketball game is n Nvember 12th. I think it's bring.I dn't play basketball. But many students in ur schl like the basketball game. The Schl Day is the mst imprtant day in ur schl. It's n December 13th. Many parents cme t visit ur schl n this big day. Students wear clrful clthes and play games. Everyne has a gd time.
    I think my schl life is great! What abut yu?
    ( )47. When is the schl trip?
    A. It's n June 25th. B. It's n December 13th.
    C. It's n March 2nd. D. It's n Nvember 12th.
    ( )48. Victr think s the is bring.
    A. basketball game B. English speech cntest
    C. art shw D. Schl Day
    ( )49. The underlined phrase“the mst imprtant” means“ ” in Chinese.
    A.最疲惫的 B.最礼貌的 C.最糟糕的 D.最重要的
    ( )50. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
    A. A happy winter hliday. B. Five events in Victr's schl.
    C. The art shw in Victr's city. D. Victr's family and friends.
    第二节:根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(共5小题,计5分)
    Hell, I'm Jessie. I have a happy family.
    I have a sister. Her name is Sarah. She is beautiful. We are twins(双胞胎) and we lk the same.51. We are in the same schl, but we are in different classes.
    Paul is my little brther. He is lvely. He's nine years ld. 52. White is his favrite clr.
    My parents are friendly and nice. My father is a teacher. 53. My mther is a businesswman. She wrks in an ffice.
    54. They have a daughter and tw sns. My aunt and my uncle cme t see us every mnth. My grandfather is a dctr. He wrks in a big hspital. And my grandmther lks after(照顾) us at hme.55.
    That's my family. I lve it very much.
    A. She ften cks delicius fd fr us.
    B. He teaches math in ur schl.
    C. My aunt desn't like vegetables r fruit.
    D. We are thirteen years ld.
    E. My grandparents live with us.
    F. My aunt is talking with her friends n the phne.
    G. He has a white schlbag and a white pen.
    V.完成句子:根据所给汉语意思,用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。(共5小题,计5分)
    56.我需要一双白鞋。
    I a pair f white shes.
    57.英语对迈克来说很难。
    English is very fr Mike.
    58.艾米最喜欢的学科是历史。
    Amy's favrite subject is .
    59.南希周四有一节语文课。
    Nancy has a Chinese lessn .
    60.李雷的笔记本在椅子底下。
    Li Lei's ntebk is .
    Ⅵ.短文填空:用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空,使短文完整正确。 (每个单词限用一次,每空限填一个单词。)(共10 小题,计 10分)
    but many get health we have bad strng tmat keep
    We all want t live healthily. Fd and sprts are very imprtant fr 61. .
    Healthy fd can make yu 62. . It can als make yu happy, t. There are63. kinds f healthy fd. Yu shuld have mre fruit and vegetables, such as bananas, apples, carrts, and 64. . Because they are gd fr yur65. . There is a saying,“An apple a day 66. the dctr away.”We shuld als 67. enugh ( 足 够 的 ) milk, eggs and meat.68. dn’t eat t much chclate. It’s 69. fr yu.
    Sprts can als make yu stay healthy. 70. up early and d sme sprts every day. Dn't be lazy(懒惰的). Yu will be healthy and happy.
    Ⅶ.任务型阅读:阅读下面短文,根据短文内容,完成下列各题。(共5 小题,计 10分)
    Hi! I'm Alex. I'm thirteen and I g t Park Schl in Oxfrd, England. My schl is next t my huse. I ften walk t schl at 8:30 with my friends. Classes start at nine 'clck. We have three lessns in the mrning. My favrite subjects are math and gegraphy.
    At eleven 'clck, we have a rest n the playgrund. My friends g t the playgrund and play ftball, but I dn't like ftball. I like reading bks and I have many bks in my desk.
    We have lunch at half past twelve. Then we start classes at 14:00. We have tw lessns in the afternn. Then my classes finish at half past three. After schl, I ften play with my friends in the park. I g back hme at 17:30.
    In the evening, I have dinner with my family. I finish my hmewrk befre 21:00 and g t bed at 21:30.
    71. Hw des Alex ften g t schl?
    He ften t schl.
    72. Hw many lessns des Alex have each schl day?
    He has lessns each schl day.
    73. What are Alex's favrite subjects?
    His favrite subjects are .
    74. When des Alex have lunch?
    He has lunch .
    75. What des Alex ften d after schl?
    He ften in the park.
    Ⅷ.补全对话:根据下面对话中的情境,在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句,使对话恢复完整。(共5 小题,计5分)
    A: Welcme t ur stre. 76. ?
    B:Yes, please. I want t buy my brther a pair f sprts shes fr his birthday.
    A:77. ?
    B: Next Friday.
    A: Oh, it's n January 29th. 78. ?
    B: He is furteen.
    A: We have sme great sprts shes here. What's his favrite clr?
    B: 79. . He has many range things.
    A: Hw abut this pair? They are nice and cheap.
    B: They lk gd. Hw much are they?
    A: They are 50 dllars.
    B: OK. 80. . Here’s the mney.
    .书面表达(共2小题, 计 18分)
    第一节:书写题。 (共1题,计3分)
    请你将下面的句子正确、规范、工整地书写在四线三格内。
    An apple a day keeps the dctr away.
    第二节:书面表达。(共1题,计15分)
    学校正在举办以“My Favrite Schl Day”为主题的英语征文大赛。假如你是 Frank, 请你根据下列提示信息写一篇短文,介绍你最喜欢的上学日。
    提示信息:1. What day is yur favrite schl day?
    2. What d yu d n that day?
    3. Why d yu like that day?
    要求:1.参考提示内容,可适当发挥;
    2.语句通顺,意思连贯,书写工整;
    3.文中不得出现你的任何真实信息(姓名、校名和地名等);
    4.词数:不少于50词(开头已给出,但不计入总词数)。
    My Favrite Schl Day
    Hell, everyne! I'm Frank. I'm very happy t tell yu abut my favrite schl day.
    石泉县2023—2024学年度第一学期期末学业质量监测考试
    七年级英语学科听力
    Ⅰ.听选答案
    第一节:听下面 10段对话,每段对话后有一个问题,读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题,从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。
    1. W: Gd mrning! I'm Amy Brwn. Are yu Jack?
    M: N, I'm nt. My name is Paul Smith.
    Q: What's the by's last name?
    2. W: Bb, d yu like English?
    M: N. But my brther likes it very much.
    Q: Wh likes English?
    3. M: Oh, I can't find my schl ID card!
    W: Lk! Yur schl ID card is in the desk.
    Q: Where is the by's schl ID card?
    4. M: Excuse me. Hw much is this sweater?
    W: It's nly frty yuan.
    Q: Hw much is the sweater?
    5. M: I will make a card fr Linda's birthday. What abut yu, Daisy?
    W: I'm ging t give her a bk fr her birthday.
    Q: What will Daisy give Linda fr her birthday?
    6. M: I like fish and bread. What's yur favrite fd?
    W: I like tfu and chicken best.
    Q: What des the girl like t eat?
    7. W: Hey, Tm. Why d yu walk t schl tday?
    M: Because my brther rides my bike t schl.
    Q: Hw des the by prbably g t schl every day?
    8. M: Kate, hw's the weather in Beijing?
    W: It's sunny and warm.
    Q: What's the weather like in Beijing?
    9. M: Hi, Annie! Did yu g t the z yesterday?
    W: N, I didn't. I went t a farm with my cusins.
    Q: Wh did the girl g t the farm with?
    10. M: The TV shw is bring. Let's play sccer, Mary.
    W: Great! I like playing sccer best. Let's g!
    Q: What sprt des Mary like best?
    第二节:听下面两段对话,每段对话后有几道小题,请根据对话的内容,从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
    听第11段对话, 回答第 11、12 小题。
    M: Excuse me, Wang Mei. Is this yur schlbag?
    W: N. It's Tm's. Green is his favrite clr. I like black.
    M: Okay. What's his telephne number?
    W: It's 856-5297.
    M: Thank yu s much.
    W: Yu're welcme.
    听第12 段对话, 回答第 13 至 15 小题。
    M: What's yur favrite subject, Lynn?
    W: My favrite subject is science.
    M: Why d yu like it?
    W: Because it's really useful. What abut yu, Andy?
    M: I like Chinese best. I think it's fun.
    W: Hw many Chinese lessns d yu have in a week?
    M: I have fur Chinese lessns in a week.
    W: Me t.
    Ⅱ. 听填信息
    本题你将听到一段独白,读两遍。请根据独白内容,用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。(每空不超过三个单词。)
    We have a really great term. D yu lve vlleyball? On September seventh, we have a vlleyball game. It starts at fur in the afternn. It's interesting fr me. We have a schl trip in Octber. It's relaxing fr us. In Nvember,we have an English party and a music festival. They are very nice. The English party is in ur classrm. We all have fun. My mther's birthday is n December ninth. S I buy a blue sweater fr her. She's very happy. My family and I want t visit my grandparents in February. We will have a gd time n the Spring Festival.
    石泉县2023—2024学年度第一学期期末学业质量监测考试
    七年级英语学科试卷参考答案及评分标准
    第一部分 (听力 共 30 分)
    Ⅰ.听选答案(共 15 小题,计 20分:第一节每小题1分,计 10分;第二节每小题2分,计 10分)
    1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. B
    11. C 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B
    Ⅱ.听填信息(共5小题,每小题2分,计 10分)
    16. game 17. in Octber 18. music festival 19. blue 20. want
    第二部分 (笔试 共 88 分)
    Ⅲ.完形填空(共20 小题,每小题1分,计20 分)
    21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. A 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. C
    31. C 32. D 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. D
    Ⅳ.阅读理解(共 15 小题,计 20分:第一节每小题1.5分,计15分;第二节每小题1分,计5分)
    A)41. B 42. D 43. A
    B)44. D 45. C 46. B
    C)47. C 48. A 49. D 50. B
    51. D 52. G 53. B 54. E 55. A
    V.完成句子(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    56. need 57. difficult 58. histry 59. n Thursday 60. under the chair
    Ⅵ.短文填空(共 10 小题,每小题1分,计 10分)
    61.us 62. strng 63. many 64. tmates 65. health
    66. keeps 67. have 68. But 69. bad 70. Get
    Ⅶ.任务型阅读(共5 小题,每小题2分,计 10分)
    71. walks 72. five/5 73. math and gegraphy
    74. at 12:30/at half past twelve 75. plays withe his friends
    Ⅷ.补全对话(共5小题,每小题1分,计5分)
    76. Can I help yu 77. When is his birthday 78. Hw ld is he
    79. His favrite clr is range/Orange 80. I will take them/the shes
    (答案不唯一,符合题意即可)
    . 书面表达(共2小题,计18分)
    第一节:书写题。 (共3 分)
    An apple a day keeps the dctr away.
    第二节:书面表达。(共15 分)
    (略)
    评分标准:
    第一档(13~15分):符合题意要求,表达完整,条理清楚,语句通顺,语言正确无误。
    第二档(9~12分):符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清楚,语句较通顺,语言基本无误。
    第三档(5~8分):基本符合题意要求,表达基本完整,条理较清楚,语句较通顺,语言有部分错误。
    第四档(1~4 分):不符合题意要求,表达不清楚,逻辑关系混乱,语言错误很多。题 号
    I



    V



    IX
    卷面分
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    得 分











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