116,河南省驻马店市正阳县2023-2024学年八年级上学期期末英语试题
展开(满分120分。考试时间100分钟)
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
( )1.What makes the wrld smaller?
A. The reprter.B. The language.C. The Internet.
( )2.Why shuld we keep away frm tall furniture when an earthquake happens?
A. Because furniture may fall and hurt us.
B. Because it’s easy fr furniture t burn.
C. Because there are many things in the furniture.
( )3.Hw many kinds f animals are there n the farm?
A. Three.B. Fur. C. Five.
( )4. Wh was cleaning the car?
A. Bill’s father.B. Bill’s mther.C. Bill’s brther.
( )5.What kind f music des the by like nw?
A. Rck music.B. Jazz.C. Cuntry music.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6至第7两个小题。
( )6. Hw ften des Li Hua play basketball?
A. Once a week.B. Twice a week.C. Twice a mnth.
( )7. What des Li Hua d every day?
A. She runs.B. She plays sccer.C. She plays badmintn.
听下面一段对话,回答第8至第9两个小题。
( )8. When is Ben ging t university?
A. In March.B. In June.C. In September.
( )9. What des Ben want t be?
A. A sccer player.
B. A cmputer prgrammer (程序员)
C. A web develper (网站开发者).
听下面一段独白,回答第10至第12三个小题。
( )10. Where is Li Ming’s cmputer made?
A. In America.B. In Japan.C. In China.
( )11.What des Li Ming’s mther use the cmputer t d?
A. T play games.B. T write nvelsC. T draw pictures.
( )12. Wh smetimes watches films n the cmputer?
A. Li Ming’s father and brther.
B. Li Ming’s sister and brther.
C. Li Ming’s father and sister.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第15三个小题。
( )13. Where are Liu Ying and Mike talking?
A. In their schl.B. On the way hme.C. On the way t schl.
( )14.What is Lily like?
A. Tall and utging.B. Quiet and serius.C. Funny and smart.
( )15.What des Lucy like ding?
A. Ging ut.B. Reading bks.C. Playing basketball.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料,然后按要求做题。
A
Interested in basketball? Jin us nw!
Greenland Cmmunity is rganizing(组织) a basketball car np fr children. Jin us if yu want t play this exciting sprt!
I’m sure yu will enjy yurself.
Time: 4: 00p.m.—6: 00p.m.
September 20th-24th, 2023 (Mnday t Friday)
Place: City Sprts Center, 185 New Street.
Cst: $ 10 each.
Special service: Players frm the Natinal Basketball Team will be yur caches fr the 5-day camp.
After the camp, yu can:
*Knw abut the rules f the game.
*Carry the ball when running.
*Pass the ball t thers.
*Thrw the ball thrugh the basket.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )21. The camp is fr children wh .
A. play basketball well B. cme frm Greenland Schl.
C. want t play basketball D. live near City Sprts Center
( )22. The camp will start n .
A. Mnday B. Friday C. September 24th.D. September 25th
( )23. The underlined wrd “caches” means “ ”.
A. students B. teachers C. friends D. drivers
( )24. Children will nt learn t .
A. carry the ball when running B. pass the ball t thers
C. make the game rules D. thrw the ball thrugh the basket
( )25.Which f the fllwing is NOT true accrding t the passage?
A. The camp will start in the afternn.
B. The camp will be n New Street.
C. If children are interested in playing basketball, they can jin the camp.
D. If Jack and his brther want t jin the camp, they shuld pay $10.
B
Reading is a gd hbby fr all kinds f reasns.
First, reading is fun. Yu can always have a gd time if yu like reading. And yu will never feel bred. Reading at hme is especially(尤其,特别) fun when the weather is bad.
Next, yu can read a bk anywhere; in a car, n a plane r even in the bathrm. All yu need is a bk!
Anther gd reasn fr reading is that it is useful. If yu ften read, yu will be gd at reading. And yu will be able t read fast and find it easy.t understand what yu read. Yur reading skill imprves, yu will find yur schlwrk becmes easy. Many schl subjects depend n(依靠) reading, and if yu read mre, yu will learn better. Gd readers will pssibly becme gd writers, t. They always have mre things t write abut.
Sme peple say that reading is ut f date(过时的). This is nt true. I think reading is a wnderful hbby. What ther hbbies culd be mre useful r mre enjyable?
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )26.What des the furth paragraph mainly tell us?
A. Reading is interesting.B. Reading is easy.
C. Reading is useful.D. Reading is unhappy.
( )27. Yu can read faster .
A. when yu read a bk B. if yu are a student
C. if yu read as a hbby D. befre yu read a bk
( )28. What des the last sentence in the last paragraph mainly tell us?
A. Reading bks is gd fr everyne.
B. Hw t read well.
C. Reading is a useful and enjyable hbby.
D. Other hbbies are mre useful and mre enjyable.
( )29. The writer thinks .
A. reading is fun.B. we can read anywhere.
C. reading is useful.D. All f the abve.
( )30. What des the passage mainly tell us?
A. Reading is everybdy’s hbby.
B. Reading is ut f date.
C. Gd readers must be gd writers.
D. Reading is a gd hbby.
C
D yu knw what the hardest part f yur bdy is? Yes, it’s yur teeth. When yu were brn, yu had n teeth. Then, small teeth began t appear ne at a time. Peple call these baby teeth r milk teeth. Milk teeth are nt permanent(永恒的). Usually they begin t fallut when a child is six years ld. Then, permanent teeth begin t appear. These teeth are larger and mre pwerful.
Mst peple have twenty-eight permanent teeth by the time they turn twelve. Fr sme peple, fur mre permanent teeth arrive by their twenty-fifth birthday. These are called wis-dm (智慧) teeth. But they dn’t make yu smart!
Taking care f yur teeth is very imprtant. Yu can d this in many ways. Yu shuld brush yur teeth at least twice every day. Eating healthy fd is als a great way t care fr yur teeth. He r she will als slve any prblems that yur teeth may have.
Yur teeth are very imprtant. Withut them, it wuld be hard t eat, talk and smile, s make sure yu take great care f them.
( )31. The underlined wrd “they” in this passage refers t .
A. milk teeth B. permanent teeth C. wisdm teeth D. pwerful teeth
( )32. When d mst peple have 28 permanent teeth?
A. At 12 years ld.B. At 28 years ld.
C. At 6 years ld.D. At 25 years ld.
( )33. Teeth can’t help yu t .
A. eat B. talk C. smileD. brush
( )34.What can readers knw after reading this passage?
A. It wuld be easy t live withut teeth.
B. Dentists want t help yu keep yur teeth healthy and strng.
C. Milk teeth are permanent.
D. Brushing yur, teeth nce a day is enugh.
( )35. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. Taking Care f Yur Teeth
B. The Hardest Part f the Bdy
C. Ging t See the Dentist
D. Brushing Yur Teeth
D
Five yung peple are talking abut what is imprtant t them in life.
Gina: 36 It’s really imprtant t me. I’m nly 14, but I knw what I want t d when I’m lder. I want t be a dctr. Nw I need t d well in all the subjects.
Tm: Nw staying healthy is imprtant t me. We’d better keep n exercising. I d yga every day. 37 And it makes my bdy feel relaxed.
Kate: I dn’t have any brthers r sisters, but I’m never unhappy because f my friends. 38 We like t g t the library, d sprts and study tgether. We dn’t need a lt f friends as lng as they are gd.
Jhn: It’s easy t say what’s imprtant t me. My answer is sprts. 39 I’m n tw sprts teams, and I practice fur times a week. I needn’t practice n Sundays, and I watch sprts games n the Internet.
Paul: My family are mre imprtant t me than anything. We spend a lt f time tgether and help each ther. When we are unhappy, 40 My cusins ften cme and then all f us sit arund the table. We always have a great time.
根据材料内容,从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项,使文章意思通顺、
A. It’s very gd fr my back.
B. I lve ding many kinds f sprts.
C. we always eat ur dinner tgether.
D. Nw I’m studying my schl wrk (功课) hard
E. I dn’t think anything is mre imprtant t me than them.
内容完整。
36. 37. 38. 39. 40.
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
先通读短文,掌握其大意,然后从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
In China, safety educatin(安全教育) is becming 41 imprtant nw. The last Mnday in March is fr students t learn it at schl. It helps students learn mre abut 42 they shuld d t keep themselves safe. What are the 43 at schl? Take a lk.
Stampedes(踩踏), earthquakes and fires are the main accidents at schl. A stampede al-ways happens in 44 places. When students arund yu begin t push(推), just stand there and try t 45 n t smething. If yu
46 in the crwd, mve t ne side and prtect yur head with yur hands arund.
When earthquakes happen, yu can get 47 a desk quickly and hld n. It will 48 yu frm falling things. If yu are 49 , find a place and away frm buildings, trees and pwer lines(电线).
When there is a 50 , leave the classrm quickly. It’s better t put 51 ver yur muth and nse. In this way, yu 52 breathe(呼吸) in smke. Many peple die in a fire, nt because f the fire but smke. It makes them 53 and they can’t breathe. That’s very dangerus. S when yu want t get ut, yu shuld make
54 clse t the flr. 55 yu can breathe sme fresh air.
( )41. A. fewer and fewer B. a little much C. mre and mre D. less and less
( )42. A. hw B. why C. what D. that
( )B. stries C. questinsD. prblems
( )B. crwdedC. dirty D. safe
( ) B. passC. liftD. put
( )46. A. get lst B. becme mad C. fall behindD. fall dwn
( )B. behindC. underD. near
( )48.A. prtectsB. stpC. keepD. make
( )49. A. utdrs B. indrs C. smewhereD. surface
( )50. A. smke B. fireC. trees D. huses
( )51. A. anything wet B. anything C. smething wet D. smething
( )52. A. shuldn’t B. mustn’t C. didn’t D. wn’t
( )53. A. cryB. cugh C. shut D. run
( )54. A. itself B. neself C. myself D. yurself
( )55. A. After B. But C. Or D. Then
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
第一节 阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空,使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词,每词限用一次。
dll than few family make while easy they read pr
On December 18th, 2023, an earthquakes truck Shishan Cuntry in Gansu Prvince. It was a level 6.2 earthquake. Many buildings fell dwn. It was s cld. Many 56 were in terrible truble(困境).
One Sunday, when I was 57 a newspaper, a special picture tuched(触动) me. It suggested everyne shuld give smething helpful t the peple in the earthquake. I thught that this wuld be a gd chance t teach my children t help thse wh were less lucky 58 us. I said t my seven-year-ld twin sns, Brad and Brett, and three-year-ld daughter Meghan, “We have s much, and these 59 peple nw have nthing. We’ll share smething with 60 .”
I filled(装满) a bx with fds and clthes. 61 I was ding this, I encuraged(鼓励) the bys t chse the tys and give away sme f their less favrite things. Meghan watched quietly when the bys tk ut their ld tys and put them tgether. Then she waked away. A 62 minutes later she came back with Lucy, her much-lved 63 .She put Lucy n the ther tys gently(轻轻地). “Oh. Dear.” I said, “yu dn’t have t give Lucy. Yu lve her s much.” Meghan said, “Lucy brings me happiness, Mmmy. Maybe she’ll 64 anther little girl happy, t.”
I lked at Meghan fr alng mment. Hw well she did at such a yung age! After all(毕竟), it’s 65 t give smething that we dn’t want anymre, but hard t give what we cherish(珍爱), isn’t it?
56. 57. 58. 59. 60.
61. 62. 63. 64. 65.
第二节 阅读短文,根据语篇要求填空,使短文通顺,意思完整,每空限填一词。
My favrite animals are pandas. They are the symbl f China. I like them 66 they are clever and cute. It takes lng hurs fr them t eat every day. Their favrite fd is bamb. They like t sleep in trees.
These days, 67 is an interesting pht n the Internet. Lk! The wrkers a real wearing the black 68 white panda clthes. “Why d the wrkers dress up as pandas?” yu may ask. They just want t get n well with the pandas. Sme peple think the wrkers lk s interesting and lvely. Sme think it’s nt easy fr them 69 d their wrk.
In 70 pht, the wrkers are studying a yung panda. They want t learn mre abut pandas s that they can feed them.
66. 67. 68. 69. 70.
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)
根据下面的对话情景,在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子,使对话的意义连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Tina! 71. ?
B: I’m ging t the schl gate t pick up my bag. I bught it nline.
A: Oh, d yu usually buy things nline?
B: Yes. Things nline are cheaper.
A: What else d yu d nline?
B: 72. ,
A: Yeah, it is als a gd way fr us t relax.73. ?
B: I ften use the Internet twice a week.
A: Hw lng d yu use it every time?
B: Less than tw hurs every time.
A: 74. ?
B: I think the Internet makes ur lives easier and mre interesting, but it’s nt always gd fr us. There is als bad infrmatin n the Internet.
A: 75. . S we shuld use it carefully.
六、书面表达(20分)
周末的活动总是丰富多彩的,你的上个周末过得愉快吗?在不同的时间你在做什么?请以My Last Weekend为题写一篇英语小短文介绍一下你上周末的活动。
1.要点:Hw did yu spend yur last weekend?
What were yu ding at different times last weekend?
Hw did yu feel?
2.要求:(1)意思连贯,符合逻辑,词数80-100;
(2)短文中不得出现真实的地名或人名等信息。
My Last Weekend
正阳县2023—2024学年度第一学期期末素质测试
八年级英语参考答案
一、听力理解(20小题,每小题1分,共20分)
1-5CACAB 6-10BACBA 11-15BCABC 16-20CEDAB
二、阅读理解(20小题,每小题2分,共40分)
21-25CABCD 26-30CCCDD
31-35CADBA 36-40DAEBC
三、完形填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
41-45CCABA 46-50DCAAB 11-15CDBDD
四、语篇填空(15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
56.families 57.reading 58.than 59.pr 60.them 61.While 62.few 63.dll 64.make
65.easy 66.because 67.there 68.and 69.t 70.the
五、补全对话(5小题,每小题2分,共10分)答案不唯一,合理即可。
71. What are yu ging t d/Where are yu ging?
72. I als listen t music/I als watch mvies nline...
73. Hw ften d yu use the! Internet?? Hw ften d yu surf the Internet?
74. What d yu think f the Internet?/Hw d yu like the Internet?
75. I agree with yu./Yu are right./I think s.
六、书面表达(20分)
略题号
一
二
三
四
五
六
总分
得分
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