河北省秦皇岛市第七中学2022-2023学年七年级下学期期中英语试题
展开卷I
选择题部分(60分)
听力部分
I. 听句子,选出句子中所包含的信息。(共5小题,每题1分,共计5分)
1. A. nice B. next C. new
2. A. pass B. pay C. past
3. A. cut dwn B. cme true C. cme n
4. A. by train B. by bikeC. n ft
5. A. Kate plays the guitar every day.
B. Kate has t play the guitar n weekends.
C. Kate desn't need t practice the guitar every day.
Ⅱ. 听句子,选出该句的最佳答语。(共5小题,每题1分,共计5分)
6. A. They are terrible. B. Dn't talk r eat. C. There are five rules.
7. A. He is swimming. B. He likes reading. C. He is in the living rm.
8. A. Yes, they are. B. Yes, there are. C. Fur chairs.
9. A. Yes, I can. B. I can sing. C. I dn't knw.
10. A. She can drive a car. B. She is kind f shy. C. I want t make friends with her.
III. 听对话和问题,选择正确答案。(共10小题,每题1分,共计10分)
11. What can Rick play?
A. B. C.
12. What animals can they see this weekend?
A. B. C.
13. What is Wendy's family rule?
A. She has t make dinner at hme. B. She has t have dinner at hme.
C. She has t eat vegetables fr dinner.
14. Hw far is it frm the girl's hme t schl?
A. Abut ten kilmeters. B. Abut fifteen kilmeters. C. Abut five kilmeters.
15. Where d they want t g next week?
A. T the z. B. T the supermarket. C. T the library.
IV. 听短文和问题,选择正确答案。
16. Where des Zhang Lan wrk?
A. At a supermarket. B. At a subway statin. C. At a clthes stre.
17. What is Amy ding at 3: 00 p. m. ?
A Drinking tea. B. Talking n the phne. C. Reading an English bk.
18. Hw ld is Linda?
A. 13. B. 12. C. 11.
19. What time des Linda have breakfast tday?
A. At 7: 00 a. m. B. At 8: 00a. m. C. At 7: 30a. m.
20. Where des Linda g in the afternn?
A. T the z. B. T the library. C. T the supermarket.
笔试部分
V. 单项选择(共10小题,每题1分,共计10分)
21. —Can yu play ________ chess?
—N, but I can play ________ pian very well.
A. a; theB. the; /C. /; theD. the; a
22. She wants t be a teacher. Can her ________ cme true?
A. jb B. dream C. teacher D. hbby
23. It is ________ fr us t learn English. Many peple speak it.
A. busy B. imprtantC. difficult D. special
24. —Why is Ms. Green s ________ her students?
—Because she wants them t try their best t learn well.
A. gd at B. afraid f C. strict withD. terrible t
25. Tm's mther ________ plays sprts and she wants t be ________.
A. never, healthy B. usually, cute C. always, healthy D. ften, lazy
26. —________ cat anything in class, Mike.
—Oh, I'm srry.
A. Can't B. Nt C. Desn't D. Dn't
27. —________ d yu usually g t schl?
—By bike.
A. Hw B. What C. Hw ften D. When
28. Lin Hui is studying in England nw. She ________ her parents in China very much.
A. misses B. wants C. dreams D. remembers
29. —Why d yu like dgs?
—________ they are cute and smart.
A And B. S C. Because D. But
30. —Where is Mr. Brwn?
—He ________.
A. ges t wrk B. can drive a car C. is drink tea D. is watching TV
VI. 完形填空(共10个小题,每小题1分,共计10分)
My name is Sebina White. I am a student frm N. 20 Middle Schl. We have sme 31 at schl and at hme. We can't get t. 32 late. We have t finish ur hmewrk. We can't stay ut 33 schl nights. We 34 wear the schl unifrm at schl. Sme students think these rules are 35 , and they dn't like them. But I dn't agree(同意) with them. I think these rules can help 36 a lt. If(如果) we dn't fllw them, 37 can we d well in ur studies? Fr example, ur teachers ask us t clean ur classrm after schl. If we dn't, the classrm can be very 38 . It is bad fr ur health, t. If yur parents ask yu. 39 t bed early and yu dn't listen t them, yu can't get up 40 next mrning. Everyne needs sme rules. D yu think s?
31. A. bks B. clthes C. rules D. classmates
32. A. schl B. hme C. hallway D. dining hall
33. A. at B. in C. frD. n
34. A. have t B. has tC. can't D. mustn't
35. A. gd B. bad C. funny D. easy
36. A. me B. yu C. us D. them
37. A. what B. hw C. when D. where
38. A. clean B. beautiful C. dirtyD. scary
39. A. t be B. t g C. beD. g
40. A. in timeB. at a time C. n the time D. n time
VII. 阅读理解(共10个小题,每题2分,共20分)
A
There are many clubs in ur schl.
D yu like playing ping-png? Mr. Wu can teach yu. Cme and jin the ping-png club! Yu can have lessns n Friday and Saturday. Our schl has a ping-png game every year. What abut jining in it next year?
D yu want t dance? Dancing is great. It helps yu lk gd and be healthy. Jin the dancing club and dance fr the schl art festival n May 27th. Yu can have lessns n Mnday and Wednesday. Our beautiful art teachers, Ms. Li and Ms. Wu, will teach yu.
Everyne lves delicius fd. I think yu lve it, t. Hw abut jining the cking club? Here Mrs. Ma can teach yu t develp(养成) healthy eating habits, and make delicius and healthy fd. There are lessns n the weekend. Yu can ask yu mm r dad t take the lessns, t.
41. The underlined wrd “it” refers t(指的是)________.
A. the ping-png ball B. the ping-png club
C. the ping-png game D. the ping-png lessn
42. The dancing lessns are n ________.
A. Friday and Saturday B. Mnday and Wednesday
C. Wednesday and Friday D. Saturday and Sunday
43. If Tm wants t make dinner fr his family, he can jin ________.
A. the dancing club B. the cking club
C. the ping-png club D. the swimming club
44. What can we knw frm the passage?
A. Mr. Wu is gd at playing basketball. B. Ms. Li is a math teacher.
C. There is a schl art festival every year. D. Parents can jin the dancing club.
45. What is the best title(最佳标题) fr the passage?
A. Clubs Are Bring B. Clubs Want Yu
C. My Favrite Clubs D. Clubs Help Us a Lt
B
Sme children are flying kites near the river. They are very high and Peter can see them frm the classrm. After lunch his aunt cmes t see his mther and brings a kite t him. It lks like a bird. He wants t fly it but his mther desn't let him d that.
“It's time t g t schl,” says his mther, “Yu can fly it after dinner.”
The by is unhappy, and says gdbye t his aunt and leaves. Nw he is in the classrm but he desn't listen t Miss Black. He nly thinks hw t fly the kite. Miss Black writes smething n the blackbard and then turns t the class.
“Name(说出……的名字) nine things with milk in them, Peter.” she says.
The by desn't hear her and still sits there. A by in Rw 4 beats(敲打) his back and he knws it. He stands up and Miss Black asks him the questin again. He thinks fr sme time and then says,
“Yes, madam, tea, cffee, cake and. . er. . six cws (牛) .”
46. There is ________ near Peter's schl.
A. a bank B. a river C. a lakeD. a park
47. In the classrm, Peter can see ________.
A. sme children swimming in the park B. his aunt buy a kite fr him
C. sme students reading beside the lake D. sme children flying kites near the river
48. ________ gives Peter a kite.
A. His mther B. His brther C. His aunt D. His teacher
49. Peter's mther tells him t fly the kite ________.
A. at breakfast B. in the classrm
C. after dinner D. in schl
50. In class, Peter nly thinks ________.
A. his teacher's wrds B. what the kite lks like
C. hw t fly the kite D. hw t answer the teacher's questin
卷Ⅱ
非选择题部分(40分)
VIII. 听短文填空(共5小题,每题1分,共计5分)
IX. 任务型阅读
My uncle Ivan is a dctr in a big hspital(医院). He ges t wrk frm Mnday t Friday. He gets up at six frty in the mrning. After twenty minutes, he has breakfast quickly because he starts wrk at seven frty. He needs abut half an hur t get t the hspital.
In the hspital, Ivan wrks hard. He is never late fr wrk. After fur hurs' wrk, Ivan can have lunch. He always has lunch in the hspital. After a shrt rest, he starts wrk at tw 'clck. He finishes his wrk at seven. He is tired but he is still kind t patients(病人) in the hspital.
After wrk, he ges hme. He makes dinner at hme fr his family. He is gd at making chicken salad, and it tastes really great! After dinner, he usually takes a walk with my cusin. They smetimes play sme ball games. He says they are gd exercise. After that, he takes a shwer and then ges t bed.
Ivan says he is busy but he really likes his life.
56题补全句子;57、58题简略回答问题;59题找出并写下第二段的主题句;60题将文中画线句子译成汉语。(共5小题,每题2分,共计10分)
56. My uncle wrks in ____________________.
57. Hw lng des it take Ivan t get t the hspital?
58. Des Ivan have lunch at hme?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
59. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
60. ____________________________________________________________________________________________
X. 词语运用(共10小题,每题1分,共计10分)
There is a big farm 61 (hundred) f kilmeters frm my hme. It's great fr us t drive there. The wrkers lk after the trees 62 (gd). The rad is tidy 63 quiet. It is safe fr the drivers 64 (drive). There are a lt 65 animals. My favrite animal is an elephant. Elephants are 66 (friend)and smart. They can walk fr 67 lng time. They're gd at remembering things and never get 68 (lse). Hwever, sme animals are in great 69 (dangerus). Let's wrk tgether t save animals because they're 70 (we)friends.
Ⅺ. 书面表达(15分)
A)连词成句(共5小题,每小题1分,共5分)
71. is, z, my, there, a, hme, near
_________________________________________________________________.
72. see, first, let's, pandas, the
_________________________________________________________________.
73. yu, wash the dishes, can, me, help
_________________________________________________________________?
74. yur, ding, is, what, brther
_________________________________________________________________?
75. the, tastes, sup, delicius
_________________________________________________________________.
B)写作(10分)
76. 假如Lisa是你的新朋友。请根据下面的提示信息,以“My new friend”为题写一篇英语短文来介绍她。
要求:
1. 表达正确,语句通顺;
2. 短文须包括表格内所有提示信息,可适当发挥;
3. 词数60个左右。
My new friend
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2022-2023七年级下学期期中测试答案
听力
1-5 CCBBA 6-10 BABAB 11-15 CBBCC 16-20 BBBCA
单选
21-25 CBBCC 26-30 DAACD
完型填空
31-35 CADAB 36-40 CBCBD
阅读理解
41-45 CBBCB 46-50 BDCCC
听力二节—听短文填空
51. every day 52. takes 53. funny 54. leaves 55. 8: 30
任务型阅读
56. a big hspital
57. Abut half an hur. / It takes him abut half an hur t get t the hspital.
58. N, he desn't.
59. In the hspital, Ivan wrks hard.
60. 晚饭后,他和我的表/堂哥/弟/姐/妹散步。
词语运用
61. hundreds 62. well 63. and 64. t drive 65. f
66. friendly 67. a 68. lst 69. danger 70. ur
连词成句
71. There is a z near my hme.
72. Let's see the pandas first.
73. Can yu help me wash the dishes?
74. What is yur brther ding?
75. The sup tastes delicius. Infrmatin Sheet
Jhn is always very busy and wrks very lng hurs 51
Jhn's day:
He usually gets up at 7: 00 p. m. Then he 52 a shwer.
He makes breakfast at 7: 30 p. m. That's a 53 time t make breakfast!
He ges t wrk by bus. The bus usually 54 at 9: 15 p. m. He wrks all night.
He gets hme at 7: 00 a. m. and ges t bed at 55 a. m.
国籍
澳大利亚
年龄
12
爱好
听音乐、看电影
最喜欢的食物和动物
中国食物:熊猫
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