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内蒙古名校联盟2023-2024学年高一下学期期中联考英语试题(原卷版+解析版)
展开1.答题前,考生务必将自己的姓名考生号、考场号、座位号填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:Hw much is the shirt?
A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
答案是C。
1.Hw much did the wman pay fr the skirt?
A.$48. B.$69. C.$96.
2.What des the man suggest the wman d?
A.Have a rest. B.D sme exercise. C.Get used t the cld weather.
3.When did the wman see a film last time?
A.On Wednesday. B.On Thursday. C.On Friday.
4.Why des Harry make the call?
A.T find the manager. B.T make a reservatin. C.T lk fr his passprt.
5.What are the speakers mainly talking abut?
A.A travel plan. B.An exam result. C.A sprts game.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
6.What is prbably the man?
A.A pilt. B.A dctr. C.A passenger.
7.Where are prbably the speakers?
A.In the hspital. B.On the plane. C.In the drugstre.
听第7段材料,回答第8、9题。
8.What kind f bk des the wman want?
A.A bk n writing. B.A bk n cmputer. C.A bk n travel.
9.Hw will the wman find the bk upstairs?
A.By title. B.By authr. C.By time.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10.When did the speakers g t the mvie theater?
A.Last Sunday. B.Last Saturday. C.Last Friday.
11.What des Tm invite Nancy t d?
A.Have lunch. B.Watch a mvie. C.G hiking.
12.What time will the speakers prbably set ff?
A.At 8:00. B.At 9:00. C.At 10:00.
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13.What’s the wman’s majr?
A.Management. B.French. C.Italian.
14.Hw did the wman get t knw abut the jb?
A.By listening t the mrning news.
B.By reading the newspaper.
C.By calling an emplyment service.
15.What had the wman been ding in Geneva?
A.Teaching at a university. B.Studying freign languages. C.Wrking as a secretary.
16.What was the wman asked t d?
A.Prepare fr an interview. B.Call again in a day r tw. C.Send a written applicatin.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17.Where did Maxine get the idea t start a dg shelter?
A.Frm a bk. B.Frm a neighbr. C.Frm a dg lver.
18.What happened t the dg after Maxine washed and fed it?
A.It ran t the next dr. B.It lked lvely and happy. C.It started being clse t her.
19.Hw des Maxine pay fr the shelter?
A.The city gvernment and dg lvers supprt her.
B.Her family gives her mney.
C.She cllects fees frm neighbrs.
20.Hw ld might Maxine be?
A.Arund 8 years ld. B.Belw 10 years ld. C.Arund 17 years ld.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2.5分,满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Traditins are custms and beliefs that frm a part f ur culture. They are practiced t remind us f ur histry and are passed dwn frm generatin t generatin. Sme traditins are interesting and widespread, while thers are quite strange and practiced nly by a small grup f peple. Cntinue reading t dig mre int sme interesting traditins frm arund the wrld.
Smigus Dyngus in Pland
Als knwn as “Wet Mnday”, Smigus Dyngus is a unique traditin practiced in Pland, where peple thrw water at each ther. It is celebrated annually n Easter Mnday. The traditinal way t d it is fr bys t thrw water at girls, and it is believed that the girl wh receives the mst water has the greatest chance f getting married.
Hanging cffins (棺椁) in Sagada the Philippines
There is an ld traditin in Sagada where peple hang their cffins in stne caves. It was carried ut by the Igrt tribe (部落) f Muntain Prvince. The peple there believe this custm prevents large animals frm taking the dead bdies, and als purifies r blesses the departed sul.
The Plterabend custm in Germany
Family members and friends f future married cuples meet at dinner, and break a lt f prcelain (瓷器). The cuple is then asked t clean up the entire mess. This is suppsedly t teach them the imprtance f unity and hard wrk, and bring gd luck. Germans think this traditin is essential in making marriages last a lifetime.
Bryeng Mud Festival in the ROK
The Bryeng Mud Festival in the ROK is a fascinating and unique celebratin that draws crwds frm arund the wrld. It is a majr cultural event, attracting ver a millin visitrs annually. Peple participate in varius mud-related activities, including mud baths, mud wrestling and even a mud marathn. The festival features live music, fd stalls, and wnderful street perfrmances.
1. Why are the cffins hung in caves in Sagada?
A. T pray fr gd luck.
B. T prtect the dead bdies.
C. T ensure a future reunin.
D. T cnserve mre land resurces.
2. Which traditin cntributes t a lasting marriage?
A. Smigus Dyngus.
B. Hanging cffins in Sagada.
C. The Plterabend custm.
D. Bryeng Mud Festival.
3. What can visitrs d during the Bryeng Mud Festival?
A. Thrw water at girls.
B. Learn abut Igrt culture.
C. Meet famus peple.
D. Enjy mud baths.
B
Jiang Shumei wasn’t educated as a child, learning her first Chinese character at the age f 60. Nw, the 87-year-ld grandmther is the prud authr f six bks. She learned her first character in 1996, after her husband died in a car accident, when her daughter Zhang Ailing suggested that she learn t read t take her mind ff the lneliness and srrw.
Zhang says that her mther had her wn way f learning. Whenever she came acrss characters she didn’t knw at bus stps r shp signs, she fund smene t ask. Once Jiang had learned enugh characters, Zhang started giving her bks t read. Enjying the bks, Jiang tld her daughter that she wanted t write dwn her wn stries t share.
She first put pen t paper in 2012, at the age f 75. It was nt easy. Smetimes,cmpleting a single sentence culd take a day. Jiang usually started writing at 3 r 4 am, and revised the pieces several times until she was satisfied.
Zhang began publishing her mther’s stries n scial media platfrms in 2013. When Zhang and her mther drew the attentin f Zhang’s writer friends, the pair made a decisin t publish them. The first bk, Time f Truble, Time f Pverty, was published later that year, and prved t be a success. Sme critics even praised it as the “live histry f a natin plagued by tugh times”. The bk earned Jiang a lt f fans and sympathy.
S far, the elderly wman has published six bks, ttaling mre than 600, 000characters in length. She lives a healthy life, exercising every day, drinking milk and sy milk, as well as having regular exercise. “If I culd live as lng as 130, wuld yu still say that it is t late fr me t start after 60?” she asks, jkingly.
4. Why did Jiang learn t read in her later years?
A. T becme a prud authr.
B. T make up fr nt ging t schl.
C. T encurage her friends and families.
D. T reduce the impact f her husband’s death.
5. What made Jiang decide t publish her first bk?
A. A strng inner desire.B. The attentin frm ther writers.
C. Her daughter’s encuragement.D. The develpment f scial media.
6. What dse the underlined wrd“plagued”in paragraph 4 mean?
A. Aided.B. Enlarged.C. Trubled.D. Defeated.
7. What can we learn frm the last paragraph?
A. One is never t ld t learn.
B. All rads lead t Rme.
C. Where there is life, there is lve.
D. Gld can’t be pure and man can’t be perfect.
C
I culdn’t sleep at all last night, and my sister believes it was because I ate a bwl f really spicy (辛辣的) fd befre bedtime. Hwever, I was skeptical abut the cnnectin between spicy fds and sleep. Can eating spicy fds befre bedtime truly impact ne’s sleep quality? Sme peple believe that eating spicy fds befre bedtime can disrupt sleep by increasing bdy temperature and causing heartburn. It may be wrth aviding spicy fds clse t bedtime.
T find ut the relatin, the researchers in Australia cnducted an experiment t investigate the effects f spicy fds n sleep. They prvided a grup f individuals with delicius late-night meals, alternating (交替) between spicy and mild ptins. The results revealed that cnsuming spicy fds led t disrupted sleep patterns, causing participants t take lnger t fall asleep and sleep fr shrter time. This data supprted the belief that there is a crrelatin between eating spicy fds and experiencing sleep disturbances.
While the exact mechanism(机制)by which spicy fds influence sleep remains unclear, researchers have prpsed several pssibilities. One is that stmach discmfrt resulting frm spicy fd cnsumptin may affect sleep quality. Additinally, the lng digestin (消化) f spicy fds culd delay the start f sleep. Furthermre, spicy fds cntain smething that can raise bdy temperature, which has been linked t pr sleep in previus studies.
Given these findings, it is advisable t avid cnsuming spicy fds befre bedtime t prmte better sleep. Next time, I will fllw my sister’s advice and pt fr a milder meal in the evening t ensure a restful night’s sleep.
8. What d peple usually think f eating spicy fds befre bedtime?
A. It can make peple addictive t it.
B. It can be bad fr digestin.
C. It can make sleep difficult.
D It can lead t an increase in energy levels.
9. Hw did Australian researchers cnduct this study?
A. By analyzing data.B. By studying papers.
C. By ding an experiment.D. By ding interviews.
10. What can we knw frm the study?
A. Spicy fds take lng t digest.
B. Bdy temperature has n effect n sleep.
C. Bad eating habit changes sleep patterns.
D. Sleep prblems may be caused by bad habits.
11. What is the purpse f this text?
A. T frbid children frm having spicy fds.
B. T suggest nt eating spicy fds befre bedtime.
C. T prmte sme healthy fd that is nt spicy.
D. T keep up with the latest healthy fd research.
D
Scientists agree that predicting (预测) when and where an earthquake will ccur and hw big it will be is nt yet pssible. Therefre, much research has fcused n cming up with ways t reduce the damage frm earthquakes, rather than trying t predict when they will ccur. Specifically, finding mre infrmatin abut the place under the surface helps develpers and thers make safer chices when cnstructing a building. This is where Navakanesh M Batmanathan is putting his effrts.
Batmanathan is an earthquake gelgist at the Natinal University f Malaysia. He is actively engaged in mapping the areas surrunding earthquakes in Brne. Faults (断层) are places in the Earth’s crust (地壳) that are weak t sudden mvement between masses f rck, resulting in ccasinal earthquakes. Batmanathan is wrking t map the faults, as well as the infrastructure (基础设施) in the area f the faults, t hpefully reduce the ptential damage that can be caused by an earthquake. Develpers and engineers can use this knwledge t plan where it is safest t build and where earthquake-resistant structures are needed.
Batmanathan is using a variety f tls t map faults. Wrking n the grund t map the area is just ne f the methds he emplys. He als uses images frm satellites and grund-penetrating radar (GPR). GPR is a technlgy that creates an undergrund image withut digging. It has many applicatins, frm finding the water level t understand sil and rck types fr cnstructin prjects. Batmanathan and thers are using this technlgy t map faults, and the areas arund faults, t gain a clearer picture f ptential earthquake damage.
It might nt ever be pssible t knw exactly when r where an earthquake will happen, but Batmanathan hpes that his wrk will help educate peple and better prepare them fr earthquakes.
12. What is the functin f paragraph 1?
A. Prviding evidence.B. Giving suggestins.
C. Intrducing the tpic.D. Drawing a cnclusin.
13. What is Batmanathan actively wrking n in Brne?
A. Studying vlcanes.B. Recrding rivers.
C. Predicting earthquakes.D. Studying faults.
14. What d we knw abut GPR frm paragraph 3?
A. It can predict where an earthquake will happen.
B. It can be applied in mapping faults.
C. It can predict the time f earthquakes.
D. It can test the quality f the sil.
15. What is the best title fr the text?
A. Mapping Faults fr Safer Cnstructin
B Challenges in Predicting Earthquakes
C. The Future f Earthquake Predictin
D. Technlgy fr Reducing Earthquakes
第二节(共5小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A kitchen garden prduces vegetables fr delicius, healthy meals. It desn’t have t be right utside the kitchen dr, but the clser it is, the better. ____16____, the mre likely it is that yu will get tasty things ut f it. Just a few steps are needed fr what yu want.
____17____. The mst imprtant recmmendatin is start with what yu like t eat. This may g withut saying, but I have seen first-year gardens that dn’t reflect the eating habits f their grwers. One f the easiest and mst rewarding and ppular kitchen gardens is a simple salad garden. It can prduce multiple harvests in mst parts f the cuntry.
Planting a garden: where, when and hw. Make a garden plan f what will be planted, where, when and hw. ____18____. It means yu shuld knw what they like in terms f space, water, sil fertility (肥力) and sil temperatures.
When and hw much t water yur garden. Vegetables are made mstly f water. ____19____.Yu’ll want t water them lightly every day r tw. If nature isn’t prviding that amunt f rain, yu’ll need t water by yurself r with a drip irrigatin system.
Garden maintenance: keep an eye n it. Sun and rain willing, fast grwers such as radishes (萝卜) and salad greens will begin t prduce crps as early as 20 t 30 days after planting. Check n them regularly s yu get t harvest them befre smene else des. ____20____.
A. Chsing garden crps
B. Getting ready fr garden site
C. The easier it is fr yu t get int the garden
D. S yu need t ensure yur plants have enugh water
E. Yu shw an interest in hw t prduce multiple harvests
F. T d this, yu need t get familiar with all kinds f crps
G. Besides, prtective barriers and rganic prducts can prevent pests and diseases
第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In a huge building after a lng day wrk, I fund myself standing next t a yung man with a nice ____21____ . His smile was s warm that we began a chat. The chat ____22____ what we had in cmmn: We all came t New Yrk frm different cuntries. I cme frm Germany while he cmes frm Suth America.
We exchanged ____23____ abut the difficulties f starting a new life in a new cuntry. I talked t him, “I’ve been searching fr an apartment within walking distance frm my ____24____. And what I want is t rent ne with a ____25____ view f Central Park! Maybe I’m just ____26____. I can’t affrd t ____27____ a rm like that myself and I haven’t fund a rmmate t ____28____ the expense.” The yung man wrte a number dwn n a piece f ____29____. “Her name’s Sally and she is a gd girl,” he said. “Yu’ll like her, and she needs a rmmate.”
I called her right away. Later, she _____30_____ my best rmmate. Sally tld me that she and the yung man were nt _____31_____ at all and they just met nce.
“Maybe he knws f yu befre because yu are _____32_____ in that big cmpany fr yur hardwrking _____33_____,” I tld Sally. Hearing that, Sally was s happy. Even thugh yu are a small ptat in yur life, yu can still win yur _____34_____ by wrking hard r ding smething_____35_____ t thers.
21. A. persnalityB. smileC. attitudeD. vice
22. A. prvedB. repliedC. shwedD. defined
23 A. stylesB. striesC. lecturesD. methds
24. A. jbB. schlC. buildingD. hme
25. A. narrwB. persnalC. gdD. pwerful
26. A. cheatingB. dreamingC. cmpetingD. pretending
27. A. buyB. makeC. haveD. rent
28. A. increaseB. wasteC. pairD. share
29. A. cakeB. musicC. wdD. paper
30. A. fundB. tldC. becameD. asked
31. A. relativesB. friendsC. familiesD. rmmates
32. A. well-trainedB. well-balancedC. well-knwnD. well-educated
33. A. spiritB. timeC. galD. design
34. A. futureB. heartC. hnurD. trust
35. A. effectiveB. helpfulC. skillfulD. creative
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
On March 31, the Eiffel Twer celebrated its 130th anniversary since it pened. ____36____(riginal) planned t last nly 20 years, the peple f Paris wisely decided t keep it standing,____37____ (recgnize) its imprtance. Millins f peple ____38____ (visit) the twer s far, accrding t its fficial website.
The twer was created by the French engineer Gustave Eiffel and was first intended as the main entrance ____39____ the 1889 Wrld’s Fair. It was built in a little ver tw years and faced criticism frm sme lcals initially. Hwever, it quickly captured the attentin f fair visitrs, attracting mre than tw millin peple. It als had a ____40____ (practice) use as a radi antenna during Wrld War I.
Visitrs tday can chse t climb 1,665 steps r take ne f the riginal elevatr cars____41____ (reach) the tp. At the tp f the twer, ____42____ the twer’s administrative ffice is lcated, guests can enjy a drink at the champagne bar n the tp flr.
Tday, the Eiffel Twer is a symbl f France, representing a feeling f pride and thankfulness. It is a glbal icn that can bring tgether peple frm different ____43____(backgrund). The twer is nt nly ____44____ ppular turist destinatin but als a widely recgnized symbl, a ____45____ (believe) held by many wh appreciate its enduring charm.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
46. 你校英文报正在组织征文活动。请你以“My dream”为题写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:
1.个人梦想及原因;
2.你实现梦想的计划;
3.拥有梦想并为之努力的重要性。
注意:
1.写作词数应为80左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
My dream
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第二节(满分25分)
47. 阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In a small Chinese village, a yung girl named Mei lived with a deep lve fr painting. Her artwrks, filled with lively clrs, caught the beauty f her surrundings. Despite her talent, Mei ften battled with self-dubt. She wndered if her skills were truly excellent r if she was just frtunate.
One day, Mei heard abut a painting cntest in the twn called the “Sunlit Art Challenge”. Determined t prve herself and remve the dubts, Mei quickly signed up fr it. The cntest stirred a mix f excitement and nervusness in her. Mei spent cuntless hurs perfecting her painting technique, puring her heart and sul int her wrks.
Fr the cntest, Mei painted a beautiful sunrise ver the sea. The sun just started t rise abve the hrizn (地平线), its bright light beginning t shine ver the cean. The sun’s rays lked like glden light, spreading acrss the water and making it shine like a giant mirrr. As the sun rse higher, it lked like a bright ball f fire, warming the sea and making the waves shine brightly. The sky changed clrs t, frm a sft blue t bright ranges, pinks and reds. It was like watching the day begin right there n her canvas (画布). Mei s painting captured the peaceful yet lively scene f the sun’s first rays tuching the vast cean, symblizing hpe.
On the day f the cntest, the village square was filled with excitement. Artists frm near and far displayed their wrks. Mei set up her painting, feeling bth prud and anxius. As the judges evaluated (评估) Mei’s painting, her heart raced with nervusness. Since their expressins were hard t read, Mei felt like her dubts were right, that she wasn’t as gd as she hped.
When the hst started t annunce the winners, Mei listened with hpe and curisity. But sadly her name wasn’t called. Disappintment washed ver her, and she frced a smile, applauding (鼓掌) the winners. After the cntest, Mei felt disheartened. She thught her painting had failed t impress anyne, and she lst her mtivatin t lift her brush. At that time, Mr. Zhang, a villager, apprached Mei.
注意:
1.续写词数应为150左右;
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Mr Zhang tld Mei that Mei’s painting was excellent and mved him.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Mr. Zhang’s recgnitin f Mei’s wrks renewed Mei’s interest in painting.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
听力:1—5 ABACB 6—10 CBABC 11—15 CABBC 16—20 CABAC
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