湖北省武汉市洪山区 2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中质量检测英语试卷

这是一份湖北省武汉市洪山区 2023-2024学年七年级下学期期中质量检测英语试卷，共10页。试卷主要包含了 4， 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项， B等内容，欢迎下载使用。

洪山区教育科学研究院命制 2024. 4. 24
亲爱的同学：在你答题前，请认真阅读下面的注意事项。
1. 本卷共 4 页，7 大题，满分 120 分。考试用时 120 分钟。
2. 答题前，请将你的姓名、班级、学校填在试卷和答题卡相应的位置，并核对条码上的信息。
3. 答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。答在”试卷”上无效。
4. 答非选择题时，答案用 0. 5 毫米黑色笔迹签字笔写在答题卡上。答在”试卷”上无效。
5. 认真阅读答题卡上的注意事项。
预祝你取得优异成绩！
第Ⅰ卷 (选择题 共 80 分)
第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节，满分25分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
听下面5个问题。每个问题后有三个答语，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后，你都有5秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. China. B. Dance. C. Lazy.
2. A. N, we can’t. B. Just d it. C. Yes, we d.
3. A. By bike. B. Abut 15 minutes. C. Tw kilmeters.
4. A. On weekends. B. Exercise. C. At seven.
5. A. The chess club. B. Speak English. C. Great.
第二节。 (共7小题，每小题1分，满分7分)
听下面7段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
6. What time des Linda get up n Tuesday?
A. At 7: 20. B. At 6: 00. C. At 6: 20.
7. What des Peter want t brrw frm Sally?
A. The bike. B. The key. C. The bk.
8. What drink wuld the wman like?
A. Water. B. Tea. C. Cffee.
9. What can’t elephants d?
A. Play sccer. B. Draw pictures. C. Swim. 该试卷源自 每日更新，享更低价下载。10. Hw much are the tw skirts?
A. ¥ 120. B. ¥130. C. ¥110.
11. Which picture shws where Lisa is?
A. B. C.
12. What are they talking abut?
A. Music. B. Stries. C. Rules.
第三节 (共 13 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 13 分)
听下面4段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、 B. C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间，每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答13至15三个小题。
13. What’s Tny’s mther ding?
A. Cleaning the rm. B. Talking with friends. C. Helping Tny’s dad.
14. Wh can help Tny’s mther?
A. Tny and his father. B. Tny. C. Tny’s father.
15. Where are Tny and his mther?
A. At schl. B. At the ffice. C. At hme.
听下面一段对话，回答 16 至 18三个小题。
16. What des Linda usually d n Saturday afternn?
A. D her hmewrk. B. Play the guitar. C. G t the Center Z.
17. What des Linda think f the kala?
A. It’s funny. B. It’s cute. C. It’s smart.
18. What animal des Mike like?
A. The panda and the lin. B. The panda and the kala. C. The lin and the kala.
听下面一段对话，回答 19 至 22 四个小题。
19. Hw des Jack g t schl?
A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On ft.
20. Hw lng des it take Lucy t g t schl?
A. Ten minutes. B. Thirty minutes. C. Twenty-five minutes.
21. When is the tiger shw?
A. In the afternn. B. At 2: 30 p. m. C. At 1: 45 p. m.
22. Where are Jack and Lucy nw?
A. In the z. B. At schl. C. At the z gate.
听下面一段独白，回答 23 至 25 三个小题。
23. What des Sam like t d?
A. Talk t his classmate. B. Play the guitar. C. Talk abut music.
24. Wh wants t help Sam?
A. Ms. Black. B. His mm. C. His friend.
25. When can Sam jin the music club?
A. On the weekend. B. On Mnday. C. We dn’t knw.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
从题中所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。将代表该答案的字母在答题卡上相应的位置涂黑。
26. —Wuld yu like t g with us t the ld peple’s hme?
— ____________, I’m always ready t help thers.
A. That’s all right B. That’s right C. Gd idea D. Thank yu
27. —Dn’t eat in class.
— ____________. Mrs Zhang.
A. Srry, I wn’t B. That’s OK C. Thanks D. Yes, I d
28. —I’m very srry, Alice. I lst yur favrite dictinary.
— ____________, Tina. I’m ging t buy a new ne.
A. Dn’t say that B. Sure C. Hw nice D. It desn’t matter
29. —Jack tells me t watch YOLO.
—He has gd ____________ in mvie, yu can try it.
A. feeling B. hpe C. taste D. sund
30. —We can use ChatGPT t answer many questins.
—Yes, ____________ yu can’t believe everything n the internet.
A. and B. but C. s D. r
31. —Yu can g t see many places in a self-driving car in Wuhan nw.
—Ww, Wuhan is such a ____________ city. I’d like t g and have a lk.
A. easy B. happy C. relaxing D. smart
32. —Lisa must be a happy girl, she always ____________ a smile n her face.
—It’s hard t say s.
A. dresses B. wears C. puts D. sees
33. —I’m s srry, I can’t g shpping with yu.
—Hw can yu ____________ yur wrds!
A. write B. knw C. eat D. spell
34. —Many villagers never leave the village. It’s their dream t have a bridge.
—Can their dream ____________?
A. cme true B. cme back C. cme in D. cme ut
35. The saying”Lve me, lve my dg. “ tells us ____________.
A. that dgs are ur friends B. why d yu lve dgs
C. what true lve is D. hw imprtant are dgs
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。
Sme children are playing utside happily. They feel thirsty (口渴的) and want t 36 sme cherries. Then they remember sme cherry trees near the railway tunnel (铁路隧道) .
When they arrives at the tunnel, they 37 up at the trees abve it.
“Lk! The trees are mving. “ Peter says.
“It’s a landslide (滑坡),” Rberta says. “There is a lt f 38 . The sil is sft (软的). It is mving and bringing the trees with it.”
“They are ging t fall n the railway line,” Phyllis says. “There will be an accident (事故) . We must stp the 39 train.”
“ 40 ?” Peter says. “The next train is arriving in five minutes.”
“We need smething 41 t wave (挥舞),” Peter says. “Red is fr 42 .”
“My cat is red,” Phyllis says. “I’ll tear (撕掉) pieces ff.”
“Mther will nt be 43 if yu d that,” Rberta says. “The cat is dear.”
“Peple may die (死) if there is an accident,” Peter says. “The cat isn’t 44 .”
Phyllis tears pieces frm her cat.
Peter cuts ff 45 tree branches (树枝) with his knife. He ties (系) the pieces t the branches.
“Nw we each have a red flag,” he says. “When we wave these, the driver can see and 46 the train. “ The children wait at the ther side fr the train t cme.
Then, the train 47 . The children wave their flags. The driver sees the red flags and the 48 . He knws smething is 49 . He stps the train. The children shuts that there are trees n the line.
The passengers (乘 客) n the train want t knw why the train is nt mving. When the driver tells them, they give the children big 50 .
“Yu d a gd jb,” the driver says, “Thank yu fr yur help.”
36. A. eat B. make C. draw D. clean
37. A. get B. put C. lk D. shw
38. A. snw B. clud C. wind D. rain
39. A. next B. first C. last D. new
40. A. Why B. Where C. Hw D. When
41. A. black B. yellw C. white D. red
42. A. danger B. train C. lve D. luck
43. A. relaxed B. happy C. scary D. cute
44. A. gd B. beautiful C. terrible D. imprtant
45. A. tw B. three C. fur D. five
46. A. take B. drive C. leave D. stp
47. A. ges B. crsses C. arrives D. mves
48. A. accident B. children C. cat D. trees
49. A. wrng B. right C. interesting D. useful
50. A. legs B. hands C. muths D. eyes
四、阅读理解 (共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
51. All the news abve has smething t d with ____________.
A. pinins B. yuth C. wrk D. educatin
\52. Accrding t the wrd “pin”, freign students think Chinese students ____________.
A. are healthy B. learn a lt C. are differentD. wrk hard
53. The best heading fr the secnd news wuld be ____________.
A. A Student Talk B. N “Pin”, N Yuth
C. Study Hard, Wrk Hard `D. Freigners in China
54. The third news tells us that Chinese students ____________.
A. all have a healthy bdy B. d well in study
C. can g t gd schls mre easily D. develp quickly
55. We learn frm the news abve that ____________.
A. The Yuth Day is frm freign cuntries
B. Chinese yung peple are the best
C. President Xi Jinping thinks the yuth are imprtant
D. freign students are ding well in China
B
Yang Ming frm Hangzhu jins a ne-year prject (项 目) and becmes a vlunteer (志愿者) teacher in the cuntryside. He teaches Chinese at a primary schl (小学) in Guizhu. He lives in a small huse with anther teacher and their nly neighbrs (邻居) are chickens. Every week, they walk 4 kilmeters t the nearest twn t buy fd.
Nw the prject is ver and Yang can g back t Hangzhu, but he desn’t. “My parents want me t wrk in a big city, but I like staying with these children,” says Yang. “When they say ‘Hell, teacher’ t me, I feel warm inside.”
Mst f his students are left-behind children. Their parents wrk far away frm hme. Yang ften visits their hmes and helps them with study. He takes them t the hspital when they d nt feel well. He als helps the children and their grandparents with farm wrk. “I am happy being with them and seeing them grw up.” says Yang. 56. What subject des Yang Ming teach in Guizhu?
A. Math. B. Chinese. C. P. E. D. English.
57. What des Yang want t d after the prject?
A. Teach in a middle schl. B. Wrk in a big city.
C. Stay in Guizhu. D. G back t Hangzhu.
58. The underlined wrd “left-behind children” means the children ____________.
A. study at hme B. are nt with their parents
C. d nt feel well D. help with farm wrk
59. Yang Ming des NOT ____________.
A. visit his students’ hmes B. help his students with study
C. take his students t the hspital D. buy fd fr his students
60. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. A Great Vlunteer Teacher B. The Left-behind Children in Guizhu
C. A Primary Schl in Guizhu D. A Vlunteer Prject abut Teachers
C
I’m a prcrastinatr (有拖延症的人). My teacher asks me t write my 90-page paper in a year. I dn’t write a wrd until three days befre the deadline (最后期限). At last, I finish the paper in 72 hurs withut sleeping fr tw nights. Of curse, it is a very bad paper.
I have a thery (理论) that the brains (大脑) f prcrastinatrs are different frm thse f ther peple. Bth kinds f peple are able t make smart decisins (决定). But the prcrastinatr’s brain als has a part that desn’t like making the “right” decisin. It nly wants whatever is easiest and mst fun.
Fr the prcrastinatr, this part f brain makes all the decisins. S hw can peple like me wrk when we really need t? It shws that prcrastinatrs als have a part f their brain that makes them panic (恐 慌的) . This part isn’t active (积极的) all the time. But it suddenly “wakes up” when deadlines are clse. It’s the nly thing that can make us d right nw.
There is ne prblem - many things in ur life dn’t cme with deadlines. We knw that we must exercise r see ur family frm time t time, ____________. We may frget abut these things. S hw can we wrk n them?
One thing yu can try is making a “life calendar (日)”. Have an aim fr yurself, such as exercising 20 minutes each day fr a week. Put a big red “√” n each day that yu exercise. After a week, yu’ll see seven red “√’s. This will help yu wrk tward yur aims easily.
61. The writer starts the passage by ____________.
A. giving an example B. asking a questin
C. writing numbers D. telling facts
62. In the writer’s thery, what makes prcrastinatrs different frm thers?
A. They are able t make gd decisins. B. They nly want t d easy and fun jbs.
C. They are nt active when deadlines cme. D. They dn’t sleep as much as ther peple.
63. Which f the fllwing can be put in ____________?
A. but these things dn’t have deadlines. B. s it is hard t finish them quickly
C. and we make right decisinsD. r we have many things t finish
64. What des the underlined wrd “aim” mean?
A. exercise B. deadline C. gal D. calendar
65. The writer thinks that prcrastinatrs need t ____________.
A. buy a calendar and use it ften
В. find smart ways t d things befre the deadline
C. d imprtant things in life
D. have a life calendar and d things ne by ne
第Ⅱ卷 (非选择题共 40分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
仔细阅读下面五个句子，然后用下面方框中所给的单词或短语填空，使每个句子在结构、句义和逻辑上正确。 (提示：方框中有两个单词或短语是多余的)
smart /relax / delicius / life / taste / health / crss
66. Zhu Hui misses his family and wishes t have his mm’s ____________ zngzi.
67. I like dgs because they are friendly and ____________.
68. After dinner, I can’t ____________ either because I must d the dishes.
69. These children g n a rpe way t ____________ the river t schl.
70. Mary plays vlleyball every day and she has a healthy ____________.
六、综合填空 (共 10 小题，每小题 1 分，满分 10 分)
阅读下面短文，根据上下文或括号内单词等提示，在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
The Wrld Sleep Day is n March 21. Many peple in the wrld dn’t have gd sleep.
Laura is thirteen years and she is in Grade 7. She ____________ (71) (lve) all kinds f sprts. She can swim very well ____________ (72) she ften plays vlleyball. She likes watching ____________ (73) (game) n TV. But she desn’t sleep well these days. When she sleeps, she will wake up if there is a small sund. Maybe she has t much pressure (压力) in her study. She sleeps abut 6 hurs every day. It is nt gd ___________ (74). her health.
She ges t the hspital. The dctr gives her sme advice (建议). She can relax by ____________ (75) (listen) t music r exercising after schl t sleep well. She can als read sme bring bks ____________ (76) ging t bed. When she sleeps, she can turn ff the light t feel relaxed. She can clse (关闭) the dr t help her sleep ___________ (77) (quiet). If there is t much nise (噪声) near ____________ (78) (she) huse sme day, she can sleep in a friend’s hme.
Laura ____________ (79) (fllw) the dctr’s advice. It des wrk. Nw she lives a ____________ (80) (health) life. She can study well every day and sleep well every night.
七、书面表达 (本题 20分)
假如你是李华，你们学校将举办主题为”优秀不是一种行为，而是一个习惯”的英语演讲比赛，请根据以下内容提示从作息时间、运动和饮食等方面用英语写，一篇演讲稿，向同学们分享你的好习惯。
内容提示：
When d yu get up and g t bed?
What sprts and fd d yu like?
Why d yu keep these habits?
Smething mre abut gd habits.
注意：文中不得透露个人真实姓名和学校；词数 60-80 词；开头已给出；不计入总词数。
Hell, everyne!
I d believe that excellence is nt a behavir but a habit.
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
洪山区 2023-2024学年度第二学期期中质量检测
七年级 英语试卷 参考答案
一、听力测试 (共 25 分，每小题 1 分)
1-5 BACCA 6-10 BAACB 11-15 BCABC 16-20 BAACB 21-25 ABBAC
二、选择填空 (共 10 分，每小题 1 分)
26-30 CADCB 31-35 DBCAC
三、完形填空 (共 15 分，每小题 1 分)
36-40 ACDAC 41-45 DABDB 46-50 DCBAB
四、阅读理解 (共 30 分，每小题 2 分)
51-55 BDBCC 56-60 BCBDA 61-65 ABACD
五、词与短语填空 (共 10 分，每小题 2 分)
66. delicius 67. smart 68. relax 69. crss 70. life
六、综合填空 (共 10 分，每小题 1 分)
71. lves 72. and 73. games 74. fr 75. listening
76. befre 77. quietly 78. her 79. fllws 80. healthy
七、书面表达 (共 20 分)
One pssible versin
Hell, everyne!
I d believe that excellence is nt a behavir but a habit.
Nw let me tell yu abut my gd habits. I get up at 6: 30 every mrning. And I always g t bed befre 9: 30 p. m. I like playing sccer with my classmates after schl. It’s gd fr health. I g t the library every Saturday and I read befre I g t bed. I learn a lt frm bks. As fr fd, I eat lts f fruit and vegetables every day. I think these gd habits help me live a healthy life.
附：书面表达评分标准书面表达评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 20 分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，应主要从内容、语言和结构三个方面考虑, 具体为：
(1) 对内容提示的覆盖情况以及表达的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性和恰当性。
(3) 上下文语意的逻辑性和连贯性。
(五档提倡丰富性和多样性)
3．评分时，先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
4．评分时还应注意：
(1) 词数少于 60 的，酌情给分。
(降低 1 个档次)
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3) 书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档次： (17-20 分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达清晰、合理；使用了恰当的词汇和语法结构，且基本无错误；上下文语意连贯、逻辑合理。
第四档次： (13-16 分)
覆盖了所有内容提示，表达比较清晰、合理；使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有少量错误，但不影响理解；上下文语意比较连贯、逻辑比较合理。
第三档次： (9-12 分)
覆盖了大部分内容提示，表达基本清楚、合理；使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误或不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解；上下文语意基本连贯、逻辑基本合理。
第二档次： (5-8 分)
覆盖了部分内容提示，所使用的词汇有限，语法结构单调，错误较多，影响理解；上下文语意不够连贯、逻辑不够合理。
第一档次： (1-4 分)
覆盖了少量内容提示，所使用的词汇非常有限，语法结构非常单调，错误很多，严重影响理解；上下文语意不连贯、逻辑不合理。
注意： 如短文出现以下情况之一，建议判零分。
1) 未能传递任何信息；
2) 内容太少，无法评判；
3) 所写内容均与题目要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。Xi: A Friend f the Yuth
May 4 marks the Yuth Day f China. President Xi Jinping says “Yung peple are the future f ur natin and wrld”. As ur cuntry’s tp-leader, Xi always hpes China’s yung peple can learn a lt and d gd t ur cuntry and peple.
_________________________
In a talk, a grup f freign students studying in China tells abut their pinins (观点) n Chinese yung peple. Althugh their study and jbs are different, they have the same pinins n Chinese students -- they are “pin”. On study r at wrk, they always d it well.
Yuth f China in the New Era
China is getting strnger ver the past few years, and it always helps the yuth (yung peple) t develp (发 展) . It gives yung peple mre chances (机会) t get gd educatin (教育). Als, the develpment f healthcare makes sure that they have a healthy bdy.