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    福建省厦门双十中学思明分校2023-2024学年八年级下学期期中考试英语试题(原卷版+解析版)

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    这是一份福建省厦门双十中学思明分校2023-2024学年八年级下学期期中考试英语试题(原卷版+解析版),文件包含福建省厦门双十中学思明分校2023-2024学年八年级下学期期中考试英语试题含听力原卷版docx、福建省厦门双十中学思明分校2023-2024学年八年级下学期期中考试英语试题含听力解析版docx等2份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共40页, 欢迎下载使用。
    1.答题前,考生务必在试题卷、答题卡规定位置填写本人准考证号、姓名等信息.核对答题卡上粘贴的条形码的“准考证号、姓名”与本人准考证号、姓名是否一致
    2.选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑.非选择题答案用0.5毫米黑色签字笔在答题卡上相应位置书写作答,在试题卷上答题无效.
    I.听音理解(共三节,20 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
    第一节听句子 听下面五个句子,从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
    1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. B. C.
    2. 此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. B. C.
    3. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. B. C.
    4. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. B. C.
    5. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. B. C.
    第二节听 对话 听下面七段对话,从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
    6. What’s their pssible relatinship? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. Dctr and patient.B. Teacher and student.C. Mther and sn.
    7. What is Mark ding nw? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. Watching TV.B. Cleaning the rm.C. Playing cmputer games.
    8. Hw many students will d tday’s vlunteer wrk? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. 44.B. 43.C. 42.
    9. What did Lily d last night? 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    A. Finished her hmewrk.
    B. Had a birthday party.
    C. Went t Paul’s huse.
    听对话, 回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    10. What did Tm d last night?
    A. Watched TV.
    B. Played cmputer games.
    C. Cpied thers’ hmewrk.
    11. What des Kelly think f Tm?
    A. He is t busy.B. He has a bad habit.C. He is a gd friend.
    听对话, 回答各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    12. What did Cindy and Jim plan t d this afternn?
    A. G t the cinema.B. Give a reprt.C. Have a party.
    13. What is Jim ging t d next?
    A. Visit Cindy.B. Email Cindy.C. Call Cindy.
    听对话,回答以下各小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    14. What’s cming accrding t the cnversatin?
    A. Clean-Up Day.B. Tree-Planting Day.C. Mther’s Day.
    15. What d they plan t d fr the day?
    A. T clean up their hme.B. T clean up public parks.C. T clean up children’s huses.
    听对话根据你所听到的对话内容,完成表格,每空填一词。(对话读三遍)【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
    Ⅱ.语言知识应用(共两节,25 小题,满分 30 分)
    第一节单项选择
    从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的正确答案(每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
    21. Mr. Dai never watches shrt vides n Duyin because he thinks it is ________ waste f time.
    A. aB. theC. /
    22. He felt really tired and rested himself ________ the wall f the rm fr a while.
    A. pastB. nC. against
    23. Linda gets great ________ frm helping thers, s she’s always ready t give thers a helping hand.
    A. preparatinB. satisfactinC. cmpetitin
    24. —Jiang Mengnan can’t hear anything but she is a great girl.
    —Yes. Althugh she is ________, she still gt int Tsinghua University.
    A. smartB. braveC. deaf
    25. —Hw can yu get up at 5: 30 every mrning?
    —Well, I ________ it. Since I was 6, I have been ding that.
    A. am gd atB. am excited abutC. am used t
    26. —It’s reprted that passengers in many cities in China can take a driverless(无人驾驶) taxi.
    —I saw the news yesterday! It can drive ________ by itself.
    A. hardlyB. cmpletelyC. recently
    27. Take it easy! If yu always ________ yurself with thers, yu may frget hw wnderful yu are.
    A. cmpareB. cntrlC. cmmunicate
    28. There may be a strm during May Day. I’m afraid we have t ________ the travel plan.
    A. put ffB. put upC. put n
    29. —Wh can g t the cncert with me, yu r Mike?
    —________, because bth f us have t study fr the English test.
    A. BthB. EitherC. Neither
    30. —Betty jumped up ________ when she heard the terrible news.
    —I was shcked, t. That’s t bad.
    A. in silenceB. in dangerC. in surprise
    31. —We need t tell students abut the Schl Day next week.
    —Let’s hand ut ntices, r we ________ put up signs.
    A. culdB. mustC. have t
    32. When in Beijing, yu’d better visit sme famus hutngs ________ understanding f Chinese culture.
    A. even thughB. as sn asC. s that
    33. —Did yu see a girl with a bk in her hand pass by just nw?
    —Srry, sir. I ________ my bike then.
    A. repairedB. am repairC. was repairing
    34. —I’m srry, but I can’t find the bk yu lent me. Can I get yu a new ne?
    —________. It’s nt a big deal.
    A. It’s a pityB. Dn’t wrryC. I’d lve t
    35. Dn’t stay up late t finish the reprt, r may be tired ut. Remember, “________.”
    A. Where there is a will, there is a way
    B. Many hands make light wrk
    C. Dn’t burn the candle at bth ends
    第二节完形填空从每小题所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。(每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
    If a snake bites (咬) yu, take a pht with yur mbile phne! It may save yur life. This is the surprising ____36____ f a British ck.
    One day Henry was cking in a restaurant kitchen. He picked up a dish frm the table. ____37____ a snake appeared and bit him n the hand. This all started a few days earlier, a snake came t the ____38____ frm Asia in a bx f bananas. It climbed ut f the bx and ____39____ under the dish.
    “I went t try t pick it up and it bit me. I threw it ____40____ the kitchen and it landed in the fridge (冰箱). S I clsed the dr,” Mr. Jacksn said.
    Anyway, Henry stayed ____41____ and he tk a pht f the snake with his mbile phne then went back t wrk as usual. But sn his ____42____ began t ache and he went t hspital. Then, his chest (胸膛) began t hurt. Dctrs culdn’t give him the right medicine ____43____ they knew what kind f snake it was.
    Then Henry remembered his mbile phne pht. The dctrs ____44____ it t Lndn Z.
    When they knew the kind f snake, they gave Henry the right medicine.
    “S my advice is this: If a snake bites yu, ____45____ yur phne. Take its pht first and then shw the phts t the dctrs,” said Henry, “Oh, and if the snake desn’t smile fr the pht, dn’t wrry!”
    36.
    A. interestB. adviceC. reasn
    37.
    A. LuckilyB. FinallyC. Suddenly
    38.
    A. restaurantB. hspitalC. z
    39.
    A. hungB. hidC. swam
    40.
    A. withB. intC. acrss
    41.
    A. clB. scaredC. excited
    42.
    A. ftB. neckC. hand
    43.
    A. becauseB. unlessC. althugh
    44.
    A. wrteB. sentC. sld
    45.
    A. get upB. lk upC. pick up
    III. 阅读理解(共两节,25 小题,满分 45 分)
    第一节( 阅读下面 A、B、C、D 四篇短文,根据短文内容,从题中所给 A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳答案。(每小题 2 分,满分 40 分)
    A
    46. Why did the man break the windw f Daisy’s Fd?
    A. He didn’t like the fd there.B. He wanted t steal(偷) sme mney.
    C. He gt bad service there.D. He thught the fd was expensive.
    47. What des the underlined wrd “witness” mean in the passage?
    A. Smene wh des a bad thing.B. Smething that has nt happened yet.
    C. Smene wh sees smething happen.D. Smething that the plice are lking fr.
    48. ________ was hurt in the fight.
    A. Kevin LukeB. Steve SmithC. Emily WuD. Willy Brwn
    49. Which f the fllwing statements is TRUE?
    A. Steve Smith caught the man.B. Kevin Luke brke a baseball bat.
    C. Emily Wu is a waitress.D. Willy Brwn was cleaning at that time.
    50. Accrding t the passage, what did Willy Brwn care abut mst?
    A. Wh will pay fr the windws.B. What Emily tld the plice.
    C. If the man will be punished (惩罚).D. What the man said abut his fd.
    B
    51. Which temperature is the mst suitable t plant sunflwers?
    A. B. C. D.
    52. Which f the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
    A. Planting Sunflwer SeedsB. Chsing the Best Seeds
    C. Watering Sunflwer PlantsD. Checking the Temperature
    53. If yu plant yur seeds in April, yu may pick the new seeds in ________.
    A. JanuaryB. MayC. JulyD. Nvember
    54 ________ can be used when the sunflwers are 95 cm tall.
    A. Plastic bagsB. Paper twelsC. NetsD. Sticks
    55 Where is the article prbably frm?
    A. A ntice bard.B. A travel guide.C. A planting diary.D. A gardening magazine.
    C
    Wrking during the day and learning new skills at night is becming a new way f life fr yung peple in Shanghai. Yang Xu is ne f them. The 29-year-ld yung man is learning the art f seal carving (篆刻) at a night art schl.
    The night art schl was set up by the lcal gvernment (当地政府). At the schl, peple can chse frm many kinds f art lessns, frm Chinese painting t mdern arts such as acting and vlg filming. And best f all, the night schl prvides all these classes at a gd price, 12 classes priced at 500 yuan.
    Accrding t Wu Penghng, the headmaster f the art schl, all the lessns are designed (设计) fr peple aged between 18 and 55. But the result shws that they are especially ppular with wmen aged between 20 and 40, as 70 percent f its students were brn in the 1980s and 20 percent were brn in the 1990s.
    Night classes were very ppular in the 1980s, when many yung Chinese peple tried t learn new skills t make a living. These days, yung peple take these classes just ut f interest. They want t take up new hbbies t get away frm the busy life.
    “Yung peple are getting mre and mre stressed at wrk these days,” Yang said. “They need a place t rest their minds, and the night art schl can be that place.”
    Apart frm that, the night art schl als ffers a lt f chances (机会) t many yung peple t learn traditinal Chinese culture.
    56. Why des the writer mentin (提到) the stry f Yang Xu in Paragraph 1?
    A. T catch peple’s eyes.B. T give us an example.
    C. T tell us the main idea.D. T cmpare different ways f learning.
    57. Accrding t Paragraph 2, what’s the best part abut the night art schl?
    A. It was set up by lcal gvernment.B. It has many kinds f lessns.
    C. Yu can make films there.D. The classes are cheap enugh.
    58. Mst f the students at the night schl are ________.
    A. men brn in the 1990sB. wmen brn in the 1980s
    C. men aged between 20 and 40D. wmen aged between 18 and 25
    59. Yung peple tday take night classes mainly t ________.
    A. learn Chinese cultureB. learn new skills t make a living
    C. develp their wn interestsD. prepare themselves fr better jbs
    60. What is the purpse (目的) f the passage?
    A. T describe a new way f life in Shanghai.
    B. T encurage kids t wrk harder at schl.
    C. T shw hw imprtant it is t take night classes.
    D. T explain hw t enjy the nightlife in Shanghai.
    D
    A big sandstrm hit Nrthern China n February 13. It cvered many cities with thick cluds f yellw dust (尘土).
    The strm, which came frm Mnglia (蒙古国), was the first sandstrm t hit China in 2024. Many flights and classes were canceled because the visibility (能见度) was lwer than 500 meters.
    The strm was the result f warm and dry weather in the area, tgether with the strng winds frm Mnglia. “There has been little rainfall s far this spring and the temperature is rising. S nw is a wrrying time fr sandstrms,” said an expert frm Beijing.
    In recent years, sandstrms haven’t been as cmmn in nrthern China as befre. The land with desertificatin (荒漠化) has been falling by 7,585 km² per year in China, and the area f sandy land has been decreasing by 1,284 km² a year. This is thanks t China’s Three-Nrth Shelter Frest Prgram (TNSFP,三北防护林工程) which started in the 1970s. Millins f trees have been planted in nrthern China t prevent sandstrms and prtect the envirnment.
    Besides, China has a clr-graded warning system (预警系统) fr sandstrms (as shwn in the picture), with red meaning the mst serius, fllwed by range, yellw, blue and green. Therefre, peple wuld have time t get prepared fr the sandstrm.
    61. Accrding t the passage the sandstrm in February ________.
    A. cvered many cities with rainB. came frm Nrthern China
    C. was the biggest ne in 2024D. came with pr visibility
    62. Paragraph 3 mainly talks abut the ________ f sandstrm.
    A. resultsB. causesC. histryD. areas
    63. What des the underlined wrd “decreasing” in Paragraph 4 mean?
    A. Ging dwn.B. Rising up.C. Taking up.D. Running ut.
    64. If the visibility in yur city is 400m, a(n) ________ warning will be given ut.
    A. redB. rangeC. yellwD. blue
    65. The passage intrduces TNSFP and the warning system t shw ________.
    A. hw t help peple get prepared fr sandstrmsB. why peple shuld prtect the envirnment
    C. hw t prtect urselves during sandstrmsD. what China did t fight against sandstrms
    第二节 阅读下面短文,从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项,使短文通畅、连贯,意思完整。(每小题 1 分,满分 5 分)
    E
    阅读下面短文,从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项,使短文通畅、连贯,意思完整。
    Breakdancing, als knwn as breaking, will be an Olympic sprt fr the first time in the 2024 Paris Olympic Games. The Paris 2024 Olympics will see 16 B-bys and 16 B-girls cmpete in “ne-n-ne battles( 对决 )”. ___66___
    Breakdancing is an example f a sprt which can be played anywhere and anytime. It is kind f street dance. ___67___ It grew up alngside hip hp during the early 1970s. It was really ppular amng African American and Latin American yung peple.
    In the past, peple wuldn’t believe that street dance culd becme an Olympic sprt. ___68___ When the IOC ( 奥组委 ) says breakdancing will be added t the 2024 Paris Olympic Games, a lt f peple are excited. “It is a histric time nt nly fr B-bys and B-girls, but fr all dancers arund the wrld,” says Shawn Tay frm the WDSF( 世界体育舞蹈联合会 ). WDSF is happy abut the result. ___69___
    Skatebarding, surfing and sprt climbing are als becming the 2024 Paris Olympic events. ___70___ They shw the wrld what Paris 2024 is truly abut. These new sprts are ging t make the Olympics mre amazing.
    A. Hwever, it has cme true nw.
    B. It is als part f the hip hp mvement.
    C. The tp dancers will get the Olympic prize.
    D. These sprts are creative and ppular amng yung peple.
    E. It will prepare fr the cmpetitin t make the event unfrgettable.
    IV. 书面表达(共四节,满分45分)
    第一节完成句子
    根据语用提示,完成句子(每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
    71. 妈妈想请你扫一下地,她可以这样询问你:
    _______________?
    72. Jack 觉得头晕,你想建议他躺下休息一下,可以这么说:
    __________________________________________________.
    73. 班主任老师想了解同学们暴风雨来的时候正在做什么,他可以这么问大家:
    __________________________________________________?
    74. 你的外国朋友 Sam 对愚公移山的故事很感兴趣,想知道故事是如何开始的,他可以这么问:
    __________________________________________________?
    75. 你周末打算到医院让生病的孩子们振作起来,你可以这样说:
    ___________________________________ in the hspital this weekend.
    第二节看图写句 (每小题 2 分,满分 10 分)
    根据所给图片和提示词,写出正确的句式表达
    76. brther; smetimes
    _____________________________________________
    77. last night
    _____________________________________________
    78. interested
    _____________________________________________
    79. have; because
    _____________________________________________
    80. s …that
    _____________________________________________
    第三节短文填空 (每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
    根据语境或具体提示补全短文。每空填一词。
    Nwadays, traditinal Chinese qigng is n lnger exclusive (独享的) t the elderly. Lately, Baduanjin gt mre and mre p___81___ n the Internet. It has becme a new favrite fr yung peple.
    With a ___82___ f ver 800 years, Baduanjin was created during the Sng Dynasty. It is ne f the easiest ___83___ (kind) f Qigng.
    As the name shws, Baduanjin is made up (由……组成) f ___84___ grups f mvements. Cmpared with ther sprts, such as ball games and swimming, Baduanjin is ___85___ (slw) and quieter, and usually cmes with sft and relaxing music, s it used t be seen as a sprt fr the elderly.
    These days, hwever, many yung peple came t realize the ___86___ (imprtant) f ding sprt. Baduanjin is easy t learn and ___87___ (need) n tls and little space. S it’s perfect fr ffice wrkers, as they ften have s___88___ backs r necks because f lng hurs’ sitting. “I nly spend 15 minutes ___89___ (practice) Baduanjin every day, but it makes me sleep better and full f energy. I think Baduanjin is really helpful,” a yung netizen (网民) ____90____ (write) belw the vide. Besides him, many peple said Baduanjin culd help them get relaxed.
    第四节短文写作(满分 15 分)
    91. 假设你是中国学生李华,正在英国参加交换生项目。在“文化交流”课上,同学们常常互相交流和分享本国的文化或传统。本周,老师要求各国同学分享一个故事或传说中自己喜爱的角色。请你根据以下提示,完成一篇不少100词的英语演讲稿。
    写作要求:
    1. 不能出现真实的校名、人名等相关信息;
    2. 包含演讲中提到的要点,可以适当发挥;
    3. 内容完整,意思连贯,符合逻辑,书写规范。
    Dear teacher and students,
    It’s my great hnr t share my favrite character with yu tday. ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________An Accident
    When
    Last ____16____
    What happened?
    Frank was ____17____ when he saw the by in the river. The by was ____18____ years ld. He culdn’t swim. Tw ____19____ saved the by at last.
    The by was still ____20____ after he was saved.
    Plice Reprt
    A man named Kevin Luke brke the windws f Daisy’s Fd at 2:35 p.m. A waitress and a ck wh wrked in the restaurant caught the man. The man said he did it because he was angry with the terrible fd there.
    Suggestin:
    The man shuld pay fr the windws he brke.
    Steve Smith
    Witness 1 Reprt
    Name: Emily Wu
    I was cleaning the tables when I heard the nise. Then I lked up, and I saw a man hitting the windws with a baseball bat frm utside. S I ran ut t stp him. I am srry he gt hurt, but he asked fr it.
    Emily Wu
    Witness 2 Reprt
    Name: Willy Brwn
    I was ding the dishes when I heard the crash f the breaking glass. I ran ut f the kitchen quickly and saw Emily fighting with the man utside, s I went ver t help. The man was 100% wrng abut the fd. Everybdy LOVES what I ck!
    Willy Brwn

    D yu lve sunflwers? This article will walk yu thrugh hw t plant yur sunflwer seeds (种子) and care fr them. Start it with the best temperatures: 18~33℃.
    Part 1 Germinating (使发芽) Sunflwer Seeds
    1. Chse ne kind yu like.
    2. Put the seeds in a plastic bag. Cver the seeds with wet paper twels.
    Once the seeds germinate, plant them.
    Part 2 ▲
    1. Chse a sunny place. Sunflwers grw best with six t eight hurs f sunlight a day.
    2. Plant the seeds in hles. Plant seeds 2.5 cm deep and 15 cm apart. Cver the seeds with sme earth after planting.
    Part 3 Caring fr Sunflwer Plants
    1. Water plants nce a week.
    2. Fertilize( 施肥) a little r nt at all.
    3. Pick the seeds. Sunflwers usually take 80 t 120 days t mature (成熟) and grw new seeds.
    Tips:
    Keep the yung plants frm pests (害虫). Cver the grund with nets.
    Supprt plants ver 90 cm with sticks.

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