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    宁夏石嘴山市第三中学2024届高三下学期三模试题英语Word版含答案

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    宁夏石嘴山市第三中学2024届高三下学期三模试题英语Word版含答案

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    这是一份宁夏石嘴山市第三中学2024届高三下学期三模试题英语Word版含答案,共12页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7,15等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    本试卷共四个部分。考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。满分150分,考试用时120分钟。
    注意事项:
    答题前,考生务必用黑色碳素笔将自己的姓名、准考证号、考场号、座位号在答题卡上填写清楚,并认真核准条形码上的准考证号、姓名、考场号、座位号及科目,在规定的位置上贴好条形码。
    每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在试卷上的答案无效。使用0.5毫米的黑色中性(签字)笔或碳素笔书写,字体工整,笔迹清楚。
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    例:Hw much is the shirt ?
    A.$19.15. B.$9.18 C.$9.15
    答案是C.
    1. What is the weather like nw?
    A. Sunny. B. Rainy. C. Cludy.
    2. What will the man prbably use?
    A. A paper fan. B. An air-cnditiner. C. An electric fan.
    3. When is the bus suppsed t arrive?
    A. At 4:50. B. At 5:05. C. At 5:15.
    4. Where des the cnversatin mst prbably take place?
    A. At a bk stre. B. At a htel. C. At a library.
    5. What’s the prbable relatinship between the speakers?
    A. Driver and car-cleaning wrker.
    B. Student and teacher.
    C. Manager and clerk.
    第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. What is the man ging t d in Paris?
    A. T play tennis. B. T have an interview. C. T g t university.
    7. Hw will the man g t the statin?
    A. By train. B. By taxi. C. By car.
    听第7段材料,回答第 8至10题。
    8. What are the speakers talking abut?
    A. A survey. B. A bk. C. A jb.
    9. What des the man think f the characters in the stry?
    A. Vivid. B. Active. C. Dull.
    10. Hw des the man feel abut the writer?
    A. He never des a gd jb. B. He always des the best. C. He is a failure this time.
    听第8段材料,回答第11至 13题。
    11. What’s the man’s prblem?
    A. His drmitry is t nisy. B. He is hard t get alng with.
    C. His rmmate ften ignres him.
    12. What des the man want the wman t d?
    A. Talk t David. B. Change his rm. C. Teach David a lessn.
    13. Wh is the wman?
    A. David’s friend. B. The man’s friend. C. The man’s teacher.
    听第9段材料,回答第14 至 17题。
    14. What des the man want t buy?
    A. The extra vice sftware. B. The sunshine sftware. C. The general Viva Vice.
    15. Hw much will it cst this time?
    A. $300. B. $280. C. $240.
    16. Why des the wman knw the man’s address s well?
    A. She lives next t the man’s huse.
    B. The man has rdered thrugh her befre.
    C. The man tld her the exact address this time.
    17. When will the sftware be delivered?
    A. On Wednesday afternn. B. On Friday mrning. C. On Friday afternn.
    听第10段材料,回答第 18 至 20题。
    18. What des the speaker prefer t d?
    A. G t theaters. B. See films. C. Watch TV.
    19. What des the speaker think f the grups frm all ver the wrld?
    A. They are easy-ging. B. They are skillful. C. They are cmpetitive.
    20. What des the speaker mainly talk abut?
    A. Live shws in theaters. B. A wrld-famus theater. C. Excellent dancers.
    第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    A
    Elite Summer Schl Prgram fr High Schl Students
    Harvard’s Elite Prgram fr high schl students is an intensive tw-week summer prgram designed t give yu a glimpse f cllege life. Yu will live n the Harvard campus during yur tw-week sessin while taking a cllege-level curse with ther Elite Prgram students.
    The applicatin fr Summer 2024 is nw pen.
    Cst: $5,550+$75 applicatin fee
    2024 Sessin Ⅰ: June 23-July 5, 2024
    2024 Sessin Ⅱ: July 7-19, 2024
    2024 Sessin Ⅲ: July 21-August 2, 2024
    Wh Can Participate in the Elite Prgram?
    Harvard’s Elite Prgram is designed fr mature, academically mtivated students wh are interested in explring a ptential majr r simply finding ut what cllege is really like.
    Our Elite Prgram is pen t rising junirs and senirs. T be qualified fr Summer 2024, yu must meet bth f the fllwing criteria:
    ●Will graduate frm high schl and enter cllege in 2025 r 2026.
    ●Are at least 16 years ld by June 22, 2024, and will nt turn 19 years ld befre July 31, 2024.
    Imprtant Deadlines:
    ●Early Applicatin and Pririty Financial Aid Deadline — January 10, 2024
    ●Regular Applicatin and Financial Aid Deadline — February 14, 2024
    ●Late Applicatin Deadline — April 10, 2024
    See the Elite Prgram Calendar fr all imprtant dates and deadlines.
    Wh can be the applicant fr the Elite Prgram 2024?
    A. Lucy, 14, with excellent academic perfrmance.
    B. Jerry, 16, expected t enter cllege in 2025.
    C. Tina, 17, a cllege student with brad interests.
    D. Tim, 19, an ffice wrker with mtivatin t learn.
    22. When is Pririty Financial Aid Applicatin available?
    A. April 10, 2024.B. February 14, 2024.
    C. January 9, 2024.D. July23, 2024.
    23. Where is this text mst likely frm?
    A. A news reprt.B. A travel brchure.
    C. An academic paper.D. A cllege website.
    B
    When mst kids g t the beach, they’re t fcused n making sandcastles and splashing arund t ntice litter, but several years ag, fr 7-year-ld Cash Daniels, nticing a plastic straw sparked a lifelng passin fr saving the planet.
    Cash, wh is nw knwn as the “cnservatin kid”, has always lved nature. He grew up fishing alng the Chattanga River, after all! But nce he learned that 80 percent f all trash frm land and rivers ends up in the cean, he culdn’t sit back.
    He started with cleanups alng the river, smething that quickly went frm a family affair t a cmmunity effrt with vlunteers and neighbrs. In 2019, Cash, tgether with a Canadian cnservatinist, Ella Galaski-Rssen, started a nnprfit called the Cleanup Kids. Despite living in different cuntries, they managed t create educatinal vides n their YuTube channel. “We hpe t be a really big nnprfit that eliminates plastic in the U. S. and Canada,” Cash said. “We want t infrm kids and adults in the landlcked states n hw their actins are cnnected t the water and the cean,” Cash said.
    Cash was selected as ne f America’s tp 10 yuth vlunteers f 2021 by the Prudential Spirit f Cmmunity Awards. He als earned the title f Natinal Hnree, where he received a$5,000 grant t g t a nnprfit f his chice, and he became the first persn t win the Yuth Cnservatinist Award tw years in a rw frm the Tennessee Wildlife Federatin.
    “I want t travel the wrld, teach thers, and help them feel cnnected t the cean. Because if yu are cnnected t the cean-if yu lve it and what lives in it—yu’ll want t prtect it,” he said. “This is my fun, and it becmes mre fun with every new discvery.”
    Which can replace the underlined wrds “sit back” in paragraph 2?
    Fall asleep. B. Lse heart.
    C. Turn a blind eye. D. Lend a hand.
    25. What is the purpse f starting the Cleanup Kids?
    A. T recycle waste plastics. B. T make instructive vides.
    C. T spread marine knwledge. D. T appeal fr cean prtectin.
    26. Which f the fllwing best describes Cash Daniels?
    A. Sympathetic and devted. B. Initiative and talented.
    C. Ambitius and humrus. D. Determined and mdest.
    27. What des Cash Daniels stry imply?
    A. Passin fuels dreams. B. Great minds think alike.
    C. Helping thers is f great fun. D. Actins speak luder than wrds.
    C
    When scientists g t a frest t study mnkeys and their habits and behavirs, hw d they knw wh’s wh?
    In the past, scientists had t make marks n each f the animals t distinguish them. But in the future, they may have a much easier way t tell them apart thanks t facial recgnitin technlgy.
    A research team frm China’s Nrthwest University is using facial recgnitin technlgy t identify thusands f snub-nsed mnkeys that live n Qinling Muntain in Shaanxi prvince.
    Similar t human facial recgnitin, the technlgy that is used t identify mnkeys uses their facial features t create a database that includes every mnkey, Xinhua reprted. “When the system is fully develped, we can cnnect it with cameras set up in the muntains. The system will autmatically recgnize the mnkeys, name them and analyze their behavir,” said Zhang He, a member f the research team. “Fr each snub-nsed mnkey, we have 700 t 800 image samples, and the recgnitin success rate is 94 percent,” Zhang added.
    “We used mbile phnes and prtable cameras with the mnkeys in tests at distances ranging frm abut 3 t 10 meters,” said He Gang, a member f the research team and an assciate prfessr in the Cllege f Life Sciences at Nrthwest University. “There is n need t interfere with the mnkeys. Such a methd f sampling is clearly nn-invasive.”
    Cmpared t humans, facial recgnitin technlgy fr mnkeys is mre cmplicated because f their hairier faces. The clr f their hair causes them t blend int their envirnment. These factrs make it harder fr cmputers t identify them.
    “Mnkeys d nt cperate with researchers in the same way humans d. It is difficult t take high-quality pictures and vides f them, which are needed t imprve the system,” said Li Bagu, leader f the research team.
    Currently, there are abut 4,000 snub-nsed mnkeys living n Qinling Muntain. The team’s gal is t successfully identify every mnkey that lives there.
    What prblem d scientists face while studying mnkeys accrding t the text?
    A. Hw t mark them. B. Hw t distinguish them.
    C. Hw t understand their behavir. D. Hw t bserve them clearly
    29. What des the article tell us abut facial recgnitin technlgy fr mnkeys?
    A. It is nw widely adpted in China.
    B. It wrks better than human facial recgnitin.
    C. It will use mnkeys’ behavir t create a database.
    D. It can help scientists study mnkeys withut disturbing them.
    30. Accrding t the leader f the team, what is the difficulty in imprving the system?
    A. Less cperative mnkeys. B. Hard fr cmputers t identify the mnkeys.
    C. Phts and vides f high quality. D. T many mnkeys t identify.
    31. What is the authr’s main purpse in writing the article?
    A. T intrduce a new way t identify mnkeys.
    B. T shw the imprtance f studying mnkeys.
    C. T cmpare different ways t identify mnkeys.
    D. T explain difficulties in develping a new system.
    D
    “Individuals f all ages wh have empathy (共情) understand that smetimes telling little white lies can prtect ther peple frm getting hurt,” says Barbara Greenberg, a clinical psychlgist in Cnnecticut. “Mst peple that I have cme acrss tell these little white lies because they understand that 100 percent hnesty all the time is nt beneficial.” A white lie, she explains, spares peple frm unnecessary hurt.
    At the same time, Dr. Julia Breur, a marriage and family therapist in Flrida, emphasizes the imprtance f paying attentin t the way we respnd t smene. The fact is that nt telling the truth can result in smething unpleasant n yu; it’s nt just abut the persn the white lie is being tld t. Fr example, she says smene wh always tells thers that “all is gd” when it cmes t a sick parent in an effrt t avid discussins abut hw serius their health issue really is, can eventually face stressful experiences. When that parent eventually passes away, the persn wh always gave an “all is gd” respnse ends up emtinally brken.
    Smetimes, telling white lies ften depends n the situatin, Dr. Breur says. Fr example, cnsider a wman wh has nt seen her mther fr several mnths. The daughter has gained nticeable weight, yet the mther respnds by excitedly declaring that she lks great. “I emphasize during psychtherapy sessins with my patients that cntext helps define meaning,” Dr. Breur says. “S when we lk at the cntext f a mther saying yu lk great when she clearly sees that her daughter has gained weight, it can be acceptable. It reflects the intentin f the white lie which is kindness, prtectin and uncnditinal lve. Otherwise, white lies — especially when tld t avid persnal accuntability — can start a cycle f mistrust between peple, ultimately cmprmising integrity,” she adds.
    Therefre, it’s imprtant t ask urselves when it is and isn’t apprpriate t deliver the hnest truth, and when it’s best t step back and ffer a mre delicate respnse. Mre ften than nt, it’s abut finding a balance between the tw.
    32. What can be learned abut white lies accrding t Barbara Greenberg?
    A. They are shrt-lived.B. They are unidentifiable.
    C. They are truble-making.D. They are cmmn.
    33. What message des Dr. Breur deliver in paragraph 2?
    A. White lies can harm bth the liars and the listeners.
    B. We must respnd t ur family members truthfully.
    C. It’s wrng t tell white lies t a seriusly ill parent.
    D. The “all is gd” respnse is effective in dealing with patients.
    34. What is Dr. Breur’s attitude twards the mther’s practice in paragraph 3?
    A. Uncaring. B. Critical. C. Supprtive. D. Dubtful.
    35. Which f the fllwing is the best title fr the text?
    A. East r West, White Lies Are the Best
    B. Think Twice Befre Yu Tell White Lies
    C. White Lies Signify Uncnditinal Lve
    D. White Lies Are Empathetic Peple’s Favrable Chice
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    When the sun ges dwn in the evening and yu are sitting utside at hme, yu may nt be able t see many flwers in the yard withut artificial lighting. 36 . That is the ne yu can enjy by the light f the mn.
    37
    The plants with silver r multi-clred leaves, white r light-clred flwers, r flwers that pen nly at night are gd chices fr a mn garden. Anther way t enjy plants in the evening is t chse nes with a pleasing smell. Plant them alng a walkway r near a seating area utdrs, where yu can enjy them up clse, r within view f a windw.
    Select plants depending n seasn r temperature
    Yu can begin the garden early with early blmers, like lily f the valley. Make the seasn last lnger int the autumn with late blmers like chrysanthemum. In very warm places, try planting frangipani t fill yur evenings with pleasure. 38 .
    Grup yur plants tgether
    Fr the best visual effect, plant in grups f three, five r seven f the same kind f plant. That is a gd gardening methd in general because it avids creating a disrganized mixture f plants and flwers. But it is mre imprtant in a mn garden. 39 .
    Add sme small lights
    There is ne mre thing t increase hw much yu can see yur mn garden—add sme small lights that face the plants. 40 . Think abut using ther light-clred design elements as well, such as fencing, plant supprts, stnes, water features and glass balls.
    A. Insects that visit flwers at night lve them
    B. Plant sme plants that shw well in mnlight
    C. They will increase the appeal f yur mn garden
    D. Hwever, with sme planning, yu can have a mn garden
    E. Yu certainly dn’t want yur single plants t get lst in the dark
    F. Find the plants that wrk best in yur climate by talking with a lcal expert
    G. These plants can be seen after sunset and especially shine under a full mn
    第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
    第一节:完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后面所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    One summer evening, after a shpping trip back hme with my six kids, I suddenly realized 6-year-ld Lesley was nt arund. When the desperate search ended 41 , I rushed int the driveway. Thrugh the glass f ur green car, I saw my 42 girl. The mment I 43 pen the dr, she plunged (猛冲) int me, her arms wrapped s tightly arund my 44 that I was hard t breathe, her little heart beating 45 against my chest.
    “I’m s srry, but I didn’t knw yu were in there. I lve yu.” I 46 , “I’m srry.”
    I 47 her inside. Seating her n my lap, I kissed her face and whispering my 48 again and again. She sighed and finally 49 , but I culdn’t that night, filled with shame and hrrr.
    Every summer brings headlines f 38 hrrible 50 f kids left in the lcked 51 cars. Althugh I narrwly 52 it by luck, I didn’t talk t my daughter abut the 53 fr seven lng years. It seemed t much t bear. I 54 decided t bring it up ne day. “Yeah, actually, I d 55 ,” the middle schl girl said quietly. “I stayed lnger playing, but when I was ready t get ut, I culdn’t 56 the dr. I was scared yu weren’t cming back.”
    I asked her what she remembered the mst. “Yu aplgized,” she said. “I felt 57 , a lt. Yu’re a 58 mther.” she said calmly, grabbing my hands. Her wrds 59 me frm the lasting burden.
    Gd parents make terrible mistakes smetimes. I’m 60 t live in a universe where lve and frgiveness live strnger.
    41. A. with reliefB. by accidentC. n purpseD. in vain
    42. A. smilingB. jumpingC. frightenedD. thrilled
    43. A. kickedB. pushedC. brkeD. tre
    44. A. armsB. neckC. waistD. shulders
    45. A. slwlyB. regularlyC. wildlyD. weakly
    46. A. repeatedB. repliedC. shutedD. admitted
    47. A. drveB. carriedC. pulledD. prtected
    48. A. guiltB. angerC. celebratinD. disappintment
    49. A. std utB. gt upC. gave upD. fell asleep
    50. A. birthsB. abusesC. deathsD. disappearances
    51. A. bigB. dustyC. ldD. ht
    52. A. cntinuedB. missedC. defeatedD. met
    53. A. disrespectB. vilenceC. heatD. incident
    54. A. immediatelyB. frtunatelyC. eventuallyD. deliberately
    55. A. rememberB. frgetC. frgiveD. hesitate
    56. A. penB. lckC. reachD. tuch
    57. A. abandnedB. cmfrtedC. frgivenD. amused
    58. A. luckyB. lazyC. gdD. mindless
    59. A. preventedB. distancedC. separatedD. freed
    60. A. ashamedB. gratefulC. surprisedD. prud
    第二节:语法填空(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    It is acknwledged that Chinese peple are very shy and reserved when it cmes t expressing lve frm ancient t nw. Lve is hard 61 (put) int wrds, but Li Shangyin, a famus pet f Tang Dynasty, 62 (accurate) describes lve that thers cannt express.
    “As last night twinkle stars, as last night blws the breeze; West f the painted bwer, east f Cassia Hall. Having n wings I can’t fly t yu as I please; Our hearts at ne, yur ears can hear my inner call.” The 63 (ne) tw sentences are abut a happy get-tgether the previus night. ‘Having n wings I can’t fly t yu as I please’ shws the sadness the pet suffered at being apart frm his lved ne, while the last sentence 64 (stress) that they can still feel cnnected, despite the distance frm each ther. The 65 (mix) feelings f sadness and jy becme ne by cntrast. There is sweetness in pain; there is hpe in 66 (lnely).
    One f the reasns these lines are quted tday is that the pem delivers messages that 67 (link) t the thught f sulmate in the west. By extensin, tw peple 68 (share) a clse bnd can als refer t friendship. A happy and healthy relatinship can bring ut the best in peple.
    Yu may search fr yur sulmate, smene yu’re attracted t, smene 69 whm yu have a cnnectin, but yu may nt find the persn. 70 yu are lucky enugh t find yur sulmate, cherish yur blessings.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
    第一节 短文改错 (共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处错误,每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
    增加:在缺词处加一个漏词符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
    删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。
    修改:在错的词下画一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
    注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词。
    只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
    Last Saturday, I went t a museum nearby and had a gd time here. I gt up early in the mrning. It was sunny, s I decide t bicycle t make a greener travel. After abut an hur’s ride, I finally arrived at entrance. I had my ticket check quickly and walked int the museum, fllwing a grup f visitrs with a tur guide, which was really knwledgeable. She gave each exhibit t a vivid descriptin. What impressed me mst were the develpment f Chinese characters. This visit nt nly increased ur interest in Chinese histry, and bradened my hrizns.
    第二节:书面表达(满分25分)
    假设你是李华,你和英国好友Jim约定本周天一起去森林公园游玩放松,但你因故不能赴约。请你用英文给他写一封电子邮件,内容包括:
    1.表示歉意;
    2.说明原因;
    3.另约时间。
    注意:
    1.词数100左右;
    2.开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
    Dear Jim,
    _______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    ___________________________________________________________________________________
    ___________________________________________________________________________________
    ___________________________________________________________________________________
    ___________________________________________________________________________________
    Yurs sincerely,
    Li Hua石嘴山市三中2024届高三第三次模拟考试英语试题答案(2024.5.4)
    听力部分:(每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    1-10 BCBBA BCBCC 11-20 ABCAC BCABA
    阅读理解:(每小题2分,满分40分)
    21-30: BCDCD AABDA 31-40 ADACB DBFEC
    完形填空:(每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    41-50 DCDBC ABADC 51-60 DBDCA ABCDB
    语法填空:(每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    t put 62. accurately 63. first 64. stresses 65. mixed
    lneliness 67. are linked 68. sharing 69.with 70.When / If
    短文改错:(每小题1分,满分10分)
    here→there 2. decide→decided 3. greener→green
    4. entrance 前加the 5. check→checked 6. which→wh
    7. 删掉a之前的t 8. were→was 9. ur--my 10. and--but
    书面表达:(满分25分)
    范文1:
    Dear Jim,
    I am writing t express my sincere aplgies fr nt being able t jin yu fr ur planned trip t the frest park this Sunday. I understand that we were bth lking frward t this uting fr relaxatin and I am truly srry fr any incnvenience caused.
    The reasn why I break the appintment is that I have t g and visit my sick grandfather in the cuntryside, wh was suddenly admitted t the hspital.
    I understand that this is disappinting and I deeply regret nt being able t fulfill ur plans. I wuld like t prpse an alternative date fr ur trip. Hw abut we reschedule ur uting fr next weekend? I will make sure t jin yu n that day. Please let me knw if the new date wrks fr yu.
    Thank yu fr yur understanding and I lk frward t hearing frm yu sn.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    范文2:
    Dear Jim,
    I am terribly/truly srry that I didn't jin yu fr ur utging t the frest park this Sunday t relax urselves as planned. I understand that we were bth lking frward t this uting and I hpe the change wn’t cause yu t much truble.
    The reasn why I fail t d s is that I injured my ankle in a basketball game several days ag. I went t the hspital and t my disappintment, the dctr advised me nt t walk fr tw weeks. I have t stay in bed in rder t recver as sn as pssible .
    My aplgies again fr all the incnvenience I've caused yu, and I wnder if we culd pstpne ur schedule until this summer vacatin? Lking frward t yur reply.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    英语书面表达评分标准
    第五档(21~25分)
    1.完全表达出所有内容要点,表达充分,完全达到预期的写作目的。
    2.表现出很好的语言能力,意义表达准确流畅,词汇丰富,句式多样,语言地道。有少许小的语言错误,但不影响意义表达。
    3.语篇结构完整,有效地使用了衔接手段,全文连贯。
    第四档(16~20分)
    1.表达出所有内容要点,表达较为充分,达到了预期的写作目的。
    2.表现出较好的语言能力,意义表达基本准确流畅,用词与句式有一定的变化。有少许语言错误,但不影响意义表达。
    3.语篇结构基本完整,能较好地运用衔接手段,全文连贯。
    第三档(11~15分)
    1.表达出所有内容要点,表达基本清楚,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
    2.表现出的语言能力一般,句式结构单一,词汇使用有限,语言错误较多,并在一定程度上影响了意义表达,但关键意义能表达出来。
    3.语篇不够连贯。
    4.考生如果表达出所有语言要点,原则上不降入第二档。
    第二档(6~10分)
    1.部分表达出内容要点。
    2.表现出的语言能力较差,语言错误较多,严重影响了意义表达,仅少数句子能表达意义。
    3.语篇结构混乱。
    第一档(1~5分)
    表现出的语言能力较差,基本上无完整句子,仅有一些与单词或试题要求的内容相关。

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