24,重庆市2023-2024学年六年级下学期期末英语模拟试题
展开(全卷共十个大题满分:120分考试时间:90分钟)
Dear students, hw time flies!经过小学六年的努力奔跑,你一定想看看自己一路以来变得有多强大了。希望你们带上信心和细致,心无旁骛、笔下生风,给自己送上一份美好的毕业礼物,fighting!
第Ⅰ卷(共64分)
听前预读不可少,听力满分自然来!
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共25分)
第一节:听力辨识(每小题1分,共4分)
听一遍。从A、B、C三个选项中选出你所听到的单词,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A.has B.have C.had
2. A.grandparent B.grandparents C.grandpa
3. A.film B.fish C.fill
4. A.tall B.taller C.hall
第二节:情景反应(每小题1.5分,共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
5. A. Yes, it is.B. It’s blue. C. It’s n my desk.
6. A. They are.B. Yes, they are. C. N, they’re mine.
7. A. Ms. Zha.B. She is my friend. C. She likes English.
8. A. N, I dn’t.B. Yes, he des. C. Yes, she des.
9. A. That sunds gd.B. It’s easy. C. Yu’re welcme.
10. A. Because they’re fun. B. Because they’re bring. C.I watch them n TV.
第三节:对话理解(每小题1.5分,共3分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;
11.A. Yes, it is. B. N, it isn’t. C. We dn’t knw.
12.A. /ˈfɔːti/. B. /ˈθɜːti/. C. /ˈtwenti/.
第四节:长对话理解(每小题1.5分,共3分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听长对话, 回答第13和14小题。
13.Hw much are the trusers?
A. 25 dllars. B. 35 dllars. C. 65 dllars.
14.What des Cindy want t buy?
A. A black sweater. B. A red sweater. C. Red trusers.
第五节:短文理解(每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
15. What's right abut Lisa and Helen?
A. They are classmates. B. They are friends. C. They are sisters.
16. When d Helen and Lisa g t the stre?
A. On Mnday.B. On Saturday. C. On Sunday.
17. What des Helen buy?
A. A pen and sme vegetables.B. A pencil bx and sme fruit. C. A pen and sme fruit.
18. Wh des Lisa buy sme tmates and carrts fr?试卷源自 每日更新,汇集全国各地小初高最新试卷。A. Her mther.B. Her father. C. Her sister.
由“简”到“难”很重要,“排除法”别忘掉!
Ⅱ.单项选择。(每小题1分,共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
19. D yu like ______?
A. swim B. swimming C. swiming
20. .Dn’t be .Yu shuld take a deep breath.
A. happy B. afraid C. angry
21. I want t find a gd bk. I'm ging t the _______.
A. cinema B. library C. museum
22. Alice ______ t schl by bus every day.
A. is ging t B. g C. ges
23. I'm ging t the park ________.
A. this weekend B. n this weekend C. in this weekend
24.— Whse shes are they ?
—Maybe they’re ___ .
A . Sarah B Sarah’s C Sarahs
25. What’s the weather ________ in Guangzhu?
A. like B. is C.fr
26. —What did yu d yesterday ? —I ___ t the gym.
A. g B. will g C. went
27. ______ yur mther like?
A. Wh's B. What's C. Where's
28. He is playing pian and she is playing ftball.
A. the; / B. /; / C. /; the
通读全文,再做题。联系上下文,是法宝!
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分,共10分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
As we all knw, birthdays are special days and giving gifts is a great way t shw 29 lve and care fr the birthday persn. It’s 30 that we want the birthday persn t be happy after getting sme useful gifts frm us. Here is sme advice(建议)n chsing a gd gift.
Yu shuld knw the birthday persn very well. Yu can start by making a list f all his r her likes. Fr example, if he r she 31 travelling, lk fr a map r a backpack. Write dwn all the gift ideas and then try t find smething the persn
32 needs r wants. If yu can’t think f gd ideas, yu can ask the persn’s friends r family fr 33 . They knw the persn well 34 can give yu gd advice.
Gifts are all 35 making peple feel special. S it’s imprtant that the gift is very special, 36 . It desn’t have t be at a very 37 price, but it shuld be meaningful(有意义的)t the persn. N matter(无论)what gift yu chse, always write a card t shw yur care. This will bring a smile(微笑)t the birthday persn's 38 .
29. A. WeB. urC. usD. urs
30. A. ldB. welcmeC. rightD. sure
31. A. lvesB.wantsC. needs D. thinks
32. A. wellB. nlyC. realD. fine
33. A. helpB. fun C. gift D. excuse
34. A. butB. s C. because D. and
35. A. fB. n C. with D. abut
36. A. tB. t C. well D. als
37. A. lwB. high C. gd D. bad
38. A. giftB. birthday C. face D. family
阅读理解很重要,关键词句要勾画!
Ⅳ.阅读理解。(每小题2分,共14分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
D yu lve ygurt(酸奶)?Hmemade ygurt tastes delicius,and making ygurt is easy and fun.Let's have a try!
39.What des the writer think f making ygurt?
A. Difficult and bring.B. Easy and fun.
C. Difficult but fun.D. Easy but bring.
40.What is the first step t make ygurt?
A. Pur the milk int a pt.B. Mix the milk and ygurt starter.
C. Add sme hney r fruit.D. Cver the pt t keep it warm.
41.Hw lng will yu wait befre the ygurt is ready?
A. 4 hurs.B. 6 hurs.C. 9 hurs.D. 12 hurs.
B
Life is like the fur seasns. Nw I am very ld, but when I am yung, it is the spring f my life. I play a lt, and then I start schl. I learn many new things. Like a flwer, I grw bigger and bigger day by day. There are happy days and sad days. Sme days the Sun shines, while the ther days it rains. When I am twenty years ld, I have a gd jb. I am strng and happy. Then I marry and have a child.
In thse days, I dn’t have much time t think r t play. Every day, I am busy and wrk hard. I start t get gray hair. It’s the summer f my life and it passes quickly.
Then the days get shrter. Leaves fall dwn frm the trees. My child is a university student and then an engineer. My hme is much quieter. I start walking mre slwly. One day I dn’t wrk anymre, and I retire. I have mre time. I knw it is my autumn, a beautiful time when the trees change clur and give peple delicius fruit. But the days are getting shrter and clder. Winter cmes. I am lder and weaker. I knw I d nt have many days, s I will enjy them t the end.
42.The passage is written in the rder f ________.
A.spaceB.timeC.persnsD.feelings
43.The writer starts t get gray hair in the ________ f his life.
A.springB.summerC.autumnD.winter
44.The underlined wrd “retire” in Paragraph 5 prbably means ________.
A.离开B.出局C.退休D.受伤
45.Hw des the writer feel in the autumn f his life?
A.Happy.B.Tired.C.Bred.D.Sad.
“读读”检查有必要,不通就是有问题!
Ⅴ.口语应用(每小题1分,共5分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Rubbish Bins
A:Tm,culd yu help me?
B:Fine. 46
A:Take ut the rubbish,please.
B:N prblem. 47
A:T the rubbish bins arund the street crner.
B:OK.I'll g at nce!
A: 48
B:Hw many bins are there?
A: 49
B:But hw can I knw which is the right ne?
A:It's easy t tell.They have different clurs and signs.
B: 50
第Ⅱ卷(共56分)
爱“拼”才会赢!
Ⅵ.根据中文译出英文。(每小题1分,共5分)
51.Wu Yifan ________(去游泳) with his father yesterday.
52.Yu are ____(更重的) than yur brther.
53.Li Ming’s father is a_____(商人)
54.Where is the ____(电影院) ,please.
一个单词变身后的命运掌握在你的手里!
55. The red water bttle is ________(我的).
Ⅶ.用所给单词的正确形式填空。(每小题1分,共5分)
56. My mther wrks in a factry. She is a (wrk).
57. My flat is n the (tw) flr.
58. Thse are (tmat). Please put them in the basket.
59. I ften g (hike) n Sunday.
60. My arms are lnger than ____(Mike).
61. I have twenty-eight _______(tth).
62. Amy likes____(skate) in the snw.
63. Thank yu fr _____(tell) me abut this news.
64. When is (teacher) Day ? It’s September 10th.
65. He (buy) his new watch last mnth.
看清题目和要求,张冠李戴要避免!
Ⅷ.完成句子。(每小题2分,共10分)
66.He watches TV every day. (改为一般疑问句)
________________________________________________________________________________________
67.Lucy did her hmewrk at hme. (改为否定句)
________________________________________________________________________________________
68.He is ging t listen t music next weekend. (用last weekend 改写)
________________________________________________________________________________________
69.We can see sme birds ver there. (对划线部分提问)
________________________________________________________________________________________
70.Mike, his, visit, did, yesterday, grandparents, (?)(连词成句)
________________________________________________________________________________________
短填虽说有难度,上下行文是关键!
Ⅸ.短文填空。(共20分)
根据下面短文内容, 在短文的空格处填上一个最恰当的词,使短文完整、通顺。请将完整单词填写在答题卡上对应的位置。
第一节:课文填空(每小题0.5分,共4分)
Zip: I have sme gd news 71 sme bad news.
Zm: What is it?
Zip: I'm ging away 72 a lng time.
Zm: I'm srry t 73 that.
Zm: Where are yu ging?
Zip: America. My father has a new jb there.
Zm: That is gd news fr yur father. It's s 74 news fr me.
Zip: Me t.
Zm: Are yu ging t a new schl?
Zip: I'm ging t a new middle schl. I'll be in G 75 7.
Zm: W 76 yu prmise t w 77 78 me?
Zip: Of curse.
Zm: Take care.
Zip: Take care.
第二节:(课外)短文填空(每小题2分,共16分)
D yu knw the Silk Rad? It is the 79 f different rads that cnnected Eurpe, Africa and Asia lng ag. Peple arrived at these different places alng these 80 in the ld days. Zhang Qian was a famus traveler f the Silk Rad. He was prbably the first persn t 81 back gd infrmatin abut the central Asian lands t China.
In 138 BC, Emperr Wu f Han sent Zhang Qian t Yue-chi t 82 fr help t fight against Xingnu. But n his way there, the Xingnu peple caught him. Zhang had t stay with them 83 abut 10 years befre he gt away. When Zhang finally reached Yue-chi, he was sad t find that the peple there didn’t want t fight against Xingnu. On his jurney back t China, Zhang Qian fund a lt f gd things and brught 84 back.
Later, Emperr Wu f Han sent Zhang t the West again. Zhang’s jurney t the West helped develp the internatinal (国际的) business, especially in silk between China 85 the West. That’s the Ancient Silk Rad.
Nw the ld Silk Rad are still used, 86 they are crssed by trains, nt by camels r hrses. Peple alng the rad still d business with each ther. Nw it is called New Silk Rad. Anther saying is One Belt, One Rad (一带一路).
写作要先打草稿,修改好后再誊抄!
Ⅹ.书面表达(共11分,包含书写分1分)
时光匆匆,小学六年的时光即将落幕。离别之际,我们心生感慨。正如古人所说:“青山遮不住,毕竟东流去。”友谊如同长江水,源源不断,离别只是短暂的分别,我们仍将重逢。回首过去,我们曾一起学习、一起成长,共同度过了无数难忘时光。那些欢声笑语、泪水与挫折,都成为了我们成长的见证。如今,我们即将踏上新的征程,追寻自己的梦想。离别之际,让我们怀揣着对未来的憧憬,勇敢地迈向新的征程。虽然离别让人伤感,但请相信,离别是为了更好的重逢。正如古人所说:“海内存知己,天涯若比邻。”无论身在何处,我们都会铭记彼此的情谊。Farewell, my dear friends, let's embrace the future with curage and hpe. May ur paths crss again in the jurney f life.假如你是吴磊,你将在毕业之际用英语向你的同学们和老师们告别。请你结合下面的写作思维导图写一封信。
要求:1.语言连贯,书写工整(注意标点和大小写);
2.词数100—120词(开头和结尾已给出,不计入总词数);
3.文中不能出现真实姓名和学校。
参考词汇:师恩 teacher's kindness;友谊 fellwship;难忘的 unfrgettable
永恒的 timeless;思绪又被拉回…… Thughts are drawn back t ;
Dear classmates and teachers,
As the six years f primary schl cme t an end, I can't help but feel a mix f emtins. It's like what the ancients said: "The green muntains cannt hide, after all, the eastward flw."________________________
Yurs sincerely,
Wu LeiStep 1
Pur the milk int apt.
Step 2
Add the ygurt starter intthe milk and mix them up.
Step3
Cver the pt t keep it warm enugh.Wait fr 8 t 10 hurs.
Step 4
Add sme hney r fruit if yu like.
Nw,it's time t enjy ygurt with yur family!
A.OK.I see.
B.There are fur.
C.Yu can d many things.
D.But where shuld I take it?
E.What d yu want me t d?
F.What clur is the rubbish bin?
G.Dn't frget t put it in the right bin.
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