15，陕西省汉中市宁强县2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中考试英语试题

这是一份15，陕西省汉中市宁强县2023-2024学年七年级下学期4月期中考试英语试题，共15页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
注意事项：
1.本试卷共8页，满分120分，时间120分钟，学生直接在试题上答卷；
2.答卷前请将装订线内的项目填写清楚。
Ⅰ.听选答案(共15小题,计20分)
第一部分(听力 共 30 分)
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。(共10小题，计10分)
( )1. A. Steve. B. Nick. C. Peter.
( )2. A. Telling stries. B. Playing chess. C. Singing.
( )3. A. At 5:45. B. At 6:00. C. At 6:15.
( )4. A.35 minutes. B.25 minutes. C.10 minutes.
( )5. A. A jacket. B. A sweater. C. A T-shirt.
( )6. A. Bb's. B. Mike's. C. Betty's.
( )7. A. The sprts club. B. The English club. C. The art club.
( )8. A. Blue. B. Yellw. C. Black.
( )9. A. Play basketball. B. Play vlleyball. C. Play baseball.
( )10. A.80 yuan. B.100 yuan. C.120 yuan.
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。(共5小题，计10分)
听第11段对话, 回答第11、12 小题。
( )11. What des Bill's father d?试卷源自 每日更新，汇集全国各地小初高最题 号
第一部分
第二部分
总 分
I
Ⅱ
Ⅲ
Ⅳ
V
Ⅵ
Ⅶ
Ⅷ
IX
得 分
来这里 全站资源一元不到！新试卷。 A. A player. B. A teacher. C. A dctr.
( )12. Hw des Bill's father ften g t wrk?
A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By car.
听第12 段对话, 回答第13 至 15 小题。
( )13. Why can't Li Lang g t the mvies?
A. Because he desn't like mvies.
B. Because he is busy with hmewrk.
C. Because he can't g ut n schl nights.
( )14. What des Zhang Lin think f rules in Li Lang's family?
A、Gd. B. T bad. C. Easy.
( )15. What is the rule in Zhang Lin's huse?
A. She must clean her rm every day.
B、She can't g shpping with friends.
C. She has t get up early and study.
Ⅱ.听填信息(共5 小题,计10分)
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。(每空不超过三个单词。)
16. Jack ges t the z n .
17. Tigers are , s he desn't like them.
18. Elephants can and draw.
19. His favrite animals are .
20. There are kalas in the z.
第二部分(笔试 共90分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共20小题,计20分)
第一节：阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
Hi Lily,Hw are yu? Yu want t knw abut 21 schl clubs, right? Nw let me tell yu smething abut them.
There are many clubs in my schl, 22 the English club, the art club, the music club and the sprts club. Each f them is interesting. I have tw gd 23 , Liu Ping and Zhang Ying. We all want t jin the schl clubs.
I want t jin the music club, because I can play the guitar. I 24 speak English well, but Iwant t jin the English club. It can help imprve (提高) my English. Liu Ping likes sprts. He can play 25 sccer and basketball. He wants t jin the sprts club. He can 26 the guitar, t. Buthe desn't want t jin the music club. Zhang Ying 27 . I really like her pictures. She wants 28 the art club. She als speaks Chinese 29 . I think she can be in the Chinese club. Are there many clubs in yur schl? What club 30 yu in?
Please write t me.
Yurs,
Wang Fan
( )21. A. I B. my C.me D. mine
( )22. A. like B. fr C. in D. n
( )23. A. man B. men C. friend D. friends
( )24. A. can B. can't C. must D. mustn't
( )25. A. a B. an C. the D./
( )26. A. play B. playing C. t play D. plays
( )27. A. like drawing B. drawing C. likes drawing D. likes draw
( )28. A. t jin B. jin C. t cut D. cut
( )29. A. usually B. usual C. well D. gd
( )30. A. am B. are C. is D. be
第二节：阅读下面短文，理解大意，然后从各小题的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案，使短文连贯完整。
Jessica Brwn is a middle schl student. She is a great 31 lver (爱好者). She keeps a little dg at hme and its 32 is Bb. She likes the dg and ften runs with it in the park.
This mrning, Jessica is really 33 because she ges t a z with her friend Sarah by bus. She likes t g t zs and 34 phts f animals.
“ 35 , Sarah! The bus is cming!”Jessica says. After 1 hur, they get ff the bus 36 and g t the z. There are all kinds f animals in the z, like giraffes and elephants. Jessica likes the 37 pandas best. They are s lvely. What are the 38 ding? Sme pandas are sleeping, sme are 39 bamb(竹子) and sme are playing and running. Jessica and Sarah stay there fr 3 hurs and have a gd 40 . What a nice day!
( )31. A. fd B. sprt C. animal D. music
( )32. A. name B. face C. huse D. luck
( )33. A. afraid B. yung C. happy D. lazy
( )34. A. save B. take C. crss D. ride
( )35. A. Cme n B. Talk t C. Think f D. Cut dwn
( )36. A. nly B. quickly C. really D. always
( )37. A. terrible B. nisy C. dirty D. cute
( )38. A. pandas B. giraffes C. elephants D. mnkeys
( )39. A. arriving B. wearing C. eating D. reading
( )40. A. rule B. year C. danger D. time
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共15小题,计20分)
第一节：阅读下面A、B、C三篇材料，从所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的一个最佳答案。(共10小题，计15分)
A
Schl Library
OPENING HOURS (营业时间)
MONDAY 09:00—17:00
TUESDAY 09:00—17:00
WEDNESDAY 09:00—20:00
RULES
* All students must have a library card.
* Cmputers are fr schlwrk nly.
* N fd r drink in the library.
( )41. On Wednesday, the library pens fr hurs.
A. six B. seven C. eight D. eleven
( )42. The library isn't pen n .
A. Mnday B. Sunday C. Tuesday D. Saturday
( )43. What d yu have t take t the library?
A. A cmputer. B. A mbile phne. C. A library card. D. An ID card.
B
Tday is March 10th. Here is a big z. Yu can see a lt f lvely animals here.
Mina is a kangar. She is seven years ld. She likes sleeping during the day. But at night she gets up and eats leaves (叶子). Mina desn't drink water fr mnths. But she is healthy, because she can get water frm the leaves.
Sam is a lin frm Suth Africa. He is a big meat-eating ( 肉食) animal. Tday is Sam's fifth birthday. The wrkers in the z are having a birthday party fr him.
This is a big elephant named Jim, with a lng trunk ( 鼻子). He is frm Suth Africa, t. He's ten years ld. He is gd at drawing. Many peple like him very much.
Tuantuan is a panda frm a muntain in Sichuan, China. She is very beautiful, but she's very shy,s please keep quiet. She is fur years ld. She eats bamb. She sleeps abut 10 hurs every day.
( )44. When is Sam's birthday?
A. March 8th. B. March 9th. C. March 10th. D. March 11th.
( )45. Why shuld we keep quiet when we visit Tuantuan?
A. Because she is friendly. B. Because she is very shy.
C. Because she can't see. D. Because she likes t eat bamb.
( )46. is the ldest (最年老的) f these animals.THURSDAY 09:00—17:00
FRIDAY 08:00—15:00
SATURDAY 09:00—12:00
SUNDAY CLOSED
* N nise (噪音) in the library.
* Mbile phnes must be ff.
* Students can brrw 3 bks at a time.
A. Jim B. Mina C. Tuantuan D. Sam
( )47. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A、Jim is nt gd at drawing.
B. Sam is a panda frm Suth Africa.
C. Tuantuan sleeps abut 20 hurs every day.
D. Mina gets up and eats leaves at night.
C
All schls have their rules. Here are sme funny schl rules:
Japanese rules
Mst schls ask the students t wear schl unifrms. In many Japanese schls, if the schls dn't knw, students can't g t the mvies, play vide games r leave hme in the evening. Students have t fllw these rules.
Rules in the U. S.
In sme schls, students must wear indr (室内的) shes in schl every day. S the students can't fall dwn (摔倒). They can keep the schls clean, t. Students can't eat in the classrm,because it's nt easy t clean.
Rules in the U. K.
Students can't have lng hair in sme English schls. Students can't listen t music in the classrm. But they can listen t it in the music rm. Als, students have t take their ID cards t schl and use them t enter (进入) the library. If yu frget t bring yur ID card, yu have t call yur parents.
( )48. The students can't eat in the classrm in the U. S. because .
A. it is nt healthy B. it's difficult t clean
C. they have n time D. they have n mney
( )49. The underlined wrd (划线单词)“it”refers t (指的是)“ ”.
A. music B. English C. the classrm D. TV
( )50. What is this passage mainly ( 主要地) abut?A. Schl unifrms. B. Schl teachers.
C. Schlwrk. D. Funny schl rules.
第二节：根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(共5小题，计5分)
I am a schlby. I have a tw in brther. 51. . We like the schl. There are twenty-five bys and eighteen girls in ur class.
52. . And we have n classes n Saturday and Sunday. We usually get up at 6:00a. m. and have breakfast at 6:30 a. m. We g t schl at 7:00 a. m. 53. . We have furclasses in the mrning and tw in the afternn. At 3:50 in the afternn, we d sprts.
We study Chinese, math, English, gegraphy, histry, P. E. and ther subjects. I like math best,54. . But we are bth gd at Chinese. We g hme at 5:00 p. m. We have dinner at6:00 p. m. and d ur hmewrk at 7:00 p. m. every evening. 55. . But smetimes we g t sleep at abut ten.
We enjy ur schl life very much.
A. but I dn't like math
B. I am a happy schlby
C. and my brther's favrite subject is histry
D. We g t schl frm Mnday t Friday
E. We usually g t bed at 9:30 p. m.
F. We bth study in N.1 Middle Schl
G. Classes begin at 8:00 a. m.
V.完成句子：根据所给汉语意思，用单词或短语完成下列英文句子。(共5小题,计10分)
56.彼得的妈妈对他要求严格。
Peter's mther is with him.
57.希望我们的梦想可以成真！
Hpe ur will cme true!
58.他想要喝茶，吃糕点。He wants t and eat cakes.
59.玛丽正在和她的爸爸下国际象棋。
Mary is with her father.
60.我读了一本关于动物的书。一些动物现在正处于危险之中。
I read a bk abut animals. Sme animals are nw.
Ⅵ.短文填空：用方框中所给单词的适当形式填空，使短文意思完整正确。(每个单词限用一次。每空限填一个单词。)(共10小题，计10分)
I be rm parent early tw study clean can g
My family has many rules. I have t fllw them.
First, I have t 61. hard (努力地) at schl. My parents want 62. t d my hmewrk n time.
63. , if I g ut, I need t tell my parents. I 64. cme hme a littlelate, but I have t tell them. I have t 65. t sme new places with them.
Third, I have t g t bed 66. n schl nights. But I can g t bed after 10:00p. m. n weekends. I can watch TV r play games with my 67. at night.
Last, I have t clean up my rm. My parents 68. nt happy if I put things arund the huse. I must keep my rm 69. . I like t make my rm as“my place”. I als have psters (海报) in my 70. . But I dn't think my parents like it.
Ⅶ.任务型阅读：阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，完成下列各题。(共5 小题，计10分)
Here are sme students' schedules (时间表).
Peter gets up at 6:00 a. m. At7:30 a. m. , he takes the schl bus t schl. He gets hme at 4:20p. m. and des his hmewrk at abut 4:30 p. m.
Cindy gets up at 7:00 a. m. After a quick breakfast, she ges t schl by bus at 7:30 a. m. It takes her abut twenty minutes. She gets hme at abut 4:45 p. m.
Li Hng gets up at 6:45 a. m. After breakfast, she walks t schl frm 7:20 a. m. t 7:40 schl she ften plays vlleyball with her friends. She desn't watch TV. She ges t bed at 9:30p. m.Han Mei gets up at 6:15 a. m. Then she washes her face. At 7:00 a. m. , she has breakfast. After that, she takes a bat t schl. It takes her half an hur t get t schl. At 4:30 p. m., she gets hme. She ges t bed at 9:00 p. m.
71. When des Peter get hme frm schl?
He gets hme frm schl at .
72. Hw des Cindy g t schl?
She ges t schl .
73. Hw lng des it take Li Hng t walk t schl?
It takes her abut t walk t schl.
74. What des Han Mei d at 7:00 a. m.?
She .
75. What d yu usually d at 9:00 p. m.?
I usually at 9:00 p. m.
Ⅷ.补全对话：根据下面对话中的情境，在每个空白处填入一个适当的语句，使对话恢复完整。(共5小题，计5分)
A:Gd mrning!
B:76. ! Tday is a great day fr walking.
A:D yu usually walk t schl?
B:77. . I live near ur schl and I like walking. A:78. ?
B: It's nly ne kilmeter frm my hme t schl. 79. ?
A: I take a bus t schl. Smetimes I ride my bike. I like riding my bike.
B: Sunds great. 80. ?
A: It's 7:50 a. m. nw. It's time t g t class!
B: Let's g!
IX.书面表达(共1题,计15分)
假如你是李华，这周天你与家人一同在家度过。请你根据下面图片提示，用英语写一篇短文向你校英文报刊投稿，介绍你们全家人正在做什么。参考词汇:wash clthes, make dinner, help, read a newspaper, drawing,…
要求：1.可选择使用参考词汇，亦可适当发挥；
2.语句通顺，意思连贯，书写工整；
3.文中不得出现你的任何真实信息(姓名、校名和地名等)；
4.词数：不少于50词(开头已给出，但不计入总词数)。
Tday is Sunday. This is my family. Lk!
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第一部分(听力 共30分)
Ⅰ.听选答案(共15小题,计20分)
第一节(共10 小题，每小题1分，计 10分)
1. C 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. B 10. A
第二节(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
11. B 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. A
Ⅱ.听填信息(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
16. Sunday 17. very scary 18. play sccer 19. pandas 20. five/5
第二部分(笔试 共90分)
Ⅲ.完形填空(共20小题，每小题1分，计20分)
21. B 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. B31. C 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. D
Ⅳ.阅读理解(共15小题,计20分)
第一节(共10小题，每小题1.5分，计15分)
A)41. D 42. B 43. C
B)44. C 45. B 46. A 47. D
C)48. B 49. A 50. D
第二节(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
51. F 52. D 53. G 54. C 55. E
Dad
Li Hua
V.完成句子(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
56. strict 57. dream . 58. drink tea 59. playing chess 60. in danger
Ⅵ.短文填空(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
61. study 62.me 63. Secnd 64. can 65. g
66. early 67. parents 68. are 69. clean 70. rm
Ⅶ.任务型阅读(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
71.4:20 p. m.
72. by bus
73.20/twenty minutes
74. has breakfast
75. read bks/watch TV/……(该题为开放性试题,言之有理即可得分)
Ⅷ.补全对话(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
76. Gd mrning
77. Yes( , I d)
78. Hw far is it frm yur hme t schl
79. Hw d yu g t schl
80、What time is it nw
(答案不唯一，符合题意即可)
IX.书面表达(共1题,计15分)
参考范文：
Tday is Sunday. This is my family. Lk! My dad is washing clthes nw. My mm is making dinner and my sister is helping her. Ww, the meal smells nice. My grandpa is reading a newspaper. He lves reading. Where am I? I'm in my rm nw. I am drawing a picture! I'm very gd at it. I want t jin the schl art club this term. My family are all very busy nw!
评分标准：
第一档(15分)：符合题意要求，表达完整，条理清楚，语句通顺，语言正确无误。
第二档(9~14分)：符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清楚，语句较通顺，语言基本无误。
第三档(4~8分)：基本符合题意要求，表达基本完整，条理较清楚，语句较通顺，语言有部分错误。
第四档(0~3分)：不符合题意要求，表达不清楚，逻辑关系混乱，语言错误很多。听力材料
Ⅰ.听选答案
第一节：听下面10段对话，每段对话后有一个问题，读两遍。请根据每段对话的内容和后面的问题，从所给的三个选项中选出最恰当的一项。
1. W: Hell, what's yur name?
M: My name is Peter.
Q: What's the by's name?
2. W: What are yu gd at, Chen Jie?
M:I'm gd at telling stries.
Q: What is Chen Jie gd at?
3. W:What time d yu get up?
M:I usually get up at a quarter past six.
Q: When des the by usually get up?
4. W: Hw lng des it take frm yur hme t schl, Zha Chen?
M: It takes 25 minutes.
Q: Hw lng des it take frm Zha Chen's hme t schl?
5. W:Jhn, wh is the by in a black jacket?
M: He is Ted, my new friend.
Q: What des Ted wear?
6. W:Is this schlbag yurs, Bb?
M: N. It's Mike's.
Q: Whse schlbag is it?
7. W: I want t jin the art club.
M: Can yu draw?
W: Yes, I'm gd at drawing.
Q: What club des the girl want t jin?
8. W: D yu like this yellw sweater? '
M: N, I dn't like yellw. I want a blue ne.
Q: What clr f the sweater des the by want?
9. W: Zhang Li, can yu play basketball?
M: N. I can play vlleyball. I ften play it with my friends.
Q: What can Zhang Li d?10. W: Hw much are these?
M: The skirt is 80 yuan and the pair f shes is 100 yuan.
Q: Hw much is the skirt?
第二节：听下面两段对话，每段对话后有几道小题，请根据对话的内容，从题目所给的三个选项中选出问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
听第11段对话，回答第11、12小题。
W: What des yur father d, Bill? Is he a player?
M: N, he is a teacher.
W: Hw des he g t wrk?
M:He ften takes the subway t wrk.
听第12段对话，回答第13至 15 小题。
W:Can yu g t the mvies with me this evening, Li Lang?
M:N,I can't, Zhang Lin.
W:Why?
M: Because I can't g ut n schl nights. I have many rules in my family.
W: That's t bad.
M:D yu have any rules in yur family, Zhang Lin?
W: Yes. I must clean my rm every day.
Ⅱ.听填信息
本题你将听到一段独白，读两遍。请根据独白内容，用所听到的单词或短语完成下列各题。
(限男声) Hi, I'm Jack. I g t the z n Sunday. There are many animals in it. They're tigers,elephants, giraffes and pandas. Tigers are very scary, s I dn't like them. I like elephants because they're smart. They can play sccer and draw. They can als help peple d many things. Giraffes are beautiful and interesting. Pandas are my favrite animals. They are cute and fun. They are frm China.There are five kalas in the z. They are frm Australia. I really like animals.