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    2024年青海省中考一模英语试题含答案

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    这是一份2024年青海省中考一模英语试题含答案,共12页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    Better sciety Better nature Better me
    注意事项:
    1. 本试卷满分120分, 考试时间120分钟。
    2. 本试卷为试题卷,请将答案写在答题卡上,否则无效。
    3. 答卷前请将密封线内的项目填写清楚。
    听力部分(共20分)
    一、听力部分共分为四节,设置20个小题,每节5个小题,每小题1分,共 20分。第一节、听句子,选择相对应的图片。每个句子仅读一遍(每小题1分,共5分)。
    第二节、听句子,选择最佳答语,每个句子读两遍(每小题1分,共5分)。
    6. A. OK,I will. B. Yes, she is. C. N,I dn't.
    7. A. I'd like t. B. At schl. C. At 10:00.
    8. A. Yes, she is. B. N, she can't. C. N, it isn't.
    9. A. I'm afraid s. B. It's a great idea. C. Srry t hear that.
    10. A. Pandas like bambs. B. I like them. C. Because they are cute.
    第三节、听对话,选择最佳答案,每段对话读两遍(每小题1分,共5分)。
    11. What d peple in the United States d when they meet fr the first time?
    A. Hug each ther. B. Shake hands. C. Kiss n the cheeks.
    12. What des Lisa think f Jurney t the West?
    A. Amazing. B. Bring. C. Relaxing.
    13. What did Linda d n Sunday?
    A. Went t the library.
    B. Visited her grandparents.
    C. Went swimming.
    14. Wh is the inventr?
    A. Dave. B. Emma. C. Hamiltn Smith.
    15. What are the family ding?
    A. Making mncakes.
    B. Drawing the mn.
    C. Celebrating Mid-Autumn Festival.
    第四节、听短文,根据短文内容填空,短文读两遍,每空仅填一词(每小题1分,共5分)。
    笔试部分 (共100分)
    二、完形填空(共 15小题,每小题1分,共15分)
    阅读短文,从 A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳答案,使短文完整、通顺。
    Five mnths ag, I lst my jb. Since then, I had t be 21 with mney.
    Last night, I went t the supermarket t d sme 22 . When I went t 23 my shpping, I fund I didn't have enugh mney in 24 pcket. I was shrt f (缺少) $12. I began t take things ut frm the bag when anther custmer 25 me $20. I was surprised and tld him, “Thank yu s much, 26 I can't accept yur mney.” He said, “Let me tell yu a (n) 27 . My mther is 28 with cancer(癌症). I 29 her every day and bring her flwers. I went t the hspital this mrning and she was 30 with me. Because she thught I spent t much mney 31 the flwers. She asked me t take the 32 back t the shp
    and d smething else with the mney. S, here, please 33 this mney. It is my mther's wish.” 34 , I used the $20 t pay fr my shpping and left the 35 t the supermarket girl and said that if smene else didn't have enugh mney fr their shpping, they are free t use the change(零钱).
    21. A. busy B. careful C. pleased
    22. A. cleaning B. cking C. shpping
    23. A. ask fr B. pay fr C. lk fr
    24. A. my B. yur C. his
    25. A. shwed B. saved C. handed
    26. A. s B. but C. r
    27. A. accident B. reprt C. stry
    28. A. in hspital B. at hme C. in class
    29. A. visit B. call C. help
    30. A. satisfied B. angry C. patient
    31. A. n B. in C. with
    32. A. bks B. mney C. flwers
    33. A. pay B. leave C. accept
    34. A. Sadly B. Finally C. Suddenly
    35. A. change B. bag C. wrk
    三、阅读理解(共15小题,每小题2分,共30分)
    阅读下面三篇材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳答案。
    A
    What d American children think f thanksgiving? This is what sme f them wrte.
    36. Wh is the yungest amng the fur children?
    A. Linda. B. Selina.
    C. Ryan. D. Jss.
    37. What d peple usually d fr Linda at thanksgiving?
    A. Take her n visits t places. B. Take her t the stre.
    C. Help her t try new things. D. Ask her t stay at hme.
    38. Why did Selina have t eat chicken fr thanksgiving tw years ag?
    A. Because they didn't have mney t buy a turkey.
    B. Because they didn't buy a turkey frm the stre.
    C. Because they killed the chicken.
    D. Because the turkey ran away and they culdn't find it.
    39. Ryan expressed his thanks fr the fllwing peple EXCEPT .
    A. his classmates B. his mther
    C. his grandparents D. his teachers
    40. Which f the fllwing des Jss lve the mst at thanksgiving?
    A. He desn't have t g t schl. B. He can stay at hme.
    C. He can have fun with his family. D. He can eat turkey.
    B
    I am Tm frm Canada and reading is my favrite. I can read bth French and English bks. The Mysterius Stranger(神秘陌生人) is ne f the mst exciting bks I have ever read. It is very funny and it will make yu laugh ut lud.
    The stry happens in New Yrk, America and it's all abut a man called Harry wh meets a stranger ne day while eating his lunch in a park. The stranger Mervin changes Harry's life frever successfully. I wn't tell yu hw—yu will have t read the stry yurself t find ut. Mervin has special magic (魔法), but he uses the magic nly when Harry gets int truble which he ften des.
    It's nt difficult t read the bk. It mves at a fast pace (节奏) and lts f things happen n every page s yu wn't get bred reading it. Thugh yu might get a bit tired f Harry as he seems t never learn his lessn and keeps n making the same mistakes. I wn't tell the ending fr yu, but if yu enjy a gd mystery and a gd laugh, yu will cmpletely enjy this bk.
    Mr. First has written tw ther bks called The Lnely Child and Whispering Muntain. But I think this bk is his best. I highly recmmend (推荐) Mysterius Stranger t yu!
    41. Where is Tm frm?
    A. Canada. B. America.
    C. France. D. England.
    42. We knw that Tm frm the passage.
    A. writes many bks B. lves reading
    C. never learns his lessn D. makes the same mistakes
    43. What des Tm think f the bk?
    A. It's hard t read. B. It's slw-paced.
    C. It's great fun. D. It's bring.
    44. What kind f persn is Harry?
    A. He is very funny. B. He is very plite.
    C. He has special magic. D. He ften makes mistakes.
    45. Wh is Mr. First?
    A. The writer f the bks. B. A reader f the bks.
    C. A character in the bk. D. Tm's friend.
    C
    Nwadays, Chinese peple live arund the wrld, like Canada, Australia and America. Wherever they g, they always take their custms with them.
    Many Chinese peple live tgether in Chinatwns(唐人街), such as Ottawa, Sydney, r New Yrk. Walking dwn the streets f any Chinatwn makes yu think yu are truly in China. There are Chinese restaurants where friends enjy eating dishes such as Peking duck and dumplings. On Chinese New Year, Chinese peple in these cities celebrate the festival just as they d in China s that they will nt frget the custms f their hmetwns.
    China has als shwn its great arts t the wrld. Beautiful Chinese paintings and prcelain(陶瓷) can be seen in many museums. Yu might have classes abut Chinese calligraphy(书法)and learn t write Chinese characters. Yu can find bks abut Chinese petry and art. If yu can't get t China, China can cme t yu!
    China has changed faster than almst any ther cuntry in the wrld. The new technlgy has imprved the lives f millins f Chinese peple, China has sent rckets (火箭) int space. We help mre and mre peple arund the wrld get t learn abut China and Chinese culture. At the same time, we still carry n many valuable things and custms frm the past like eating ndles and rice with chpsticks.
    46. In paragraph 1, the underlined wrd “they” refers t(指) arund the wrld.
    A. Canadians B. Chinese
    C. Australians D. Americans
    47. Why d Chinese peple celebrate Chinese New Year in Chinatwns?
    A. Because many Chinese peple live tgether in Chinatwns.
    B. Because they dn't want t frget the custms f their hmetwns.
    C. Because China has shwn great arts t the wrld.
    D. Because China has changed faster than almst any ther cuntry.
    48. If yu are in Chinatwns, yu can nt .
    A. enjy dishes like Peking duck and dumplings
    B. celebrate Chinese New Year
    C. learn t write Chinese characters
    D. send rckets int space
    49. What des the writer want t tell us by saying Chinese peple eat ndles and rice with chpsticks?
    A. Chinese peple like t eat ndles and rice.
    B. Chinese peple like t use chpsticks.
    C. Chinese peple still carry n valuable custms frm the past.
    D. Chinese peple are nt used t using knives r frks.
    50. What's the main idea f the passage?
    A. Many Chinese peple live tgether in Chinatwns.
    B. China has shwn great arts t the wrld.
    C. China has changed faster than any ther cuntry.
    D. Chinese peple always take their custms with them wherever they g.
    四、补全对话(共5 小题,每小题2分,共10分)
    根据对话内容,从方框中选出能填入空白处的最佳答案。
    Helen: What are yu ging t d in the cming summer hliday?
    Jack: Nthing much. 51
    Helen: Hw abut having a trip?
    Jack: 52 What's the trip abut?
    Helen: I'm planning t visit the Qinghai Lake with sme f my friends.
    Jack: Great!The Qinghai Lake is the biggest Salt Lake in ur cuntry. 53
    Helen: 54
    Jack: N,I haven't. But I've learned sme infrmatin abut it frm Duyin. It's fantastic!
    Helen: Wuld yu like t jin us?
    Jack: 55 Let's talk abut the details n WeChat later.
    Helen: N prblem. See yu arund.
    Jack: Bye!
    A. Summer is the best time t visit the lake.
    B. Sure, I can't wait.
    C. I am just ging t stay at hme and read sme bks.
    D. Have yu ever been there befre?
    E. Sunds gd.
    五、任务阅读(每小题2分,共 10分)
    请阅读以下对五个人的描述,将其与所给的出行方式相匹配。
    六、情境表达(每小题2分,共10分)。
    根据图片提示,结合文中情境,选择正确的选项。
    They are having a 61 in a natural park. They enjy delicius 62 and drink in the park. It's fun t get clse t 63 . They have a gd time, but I hpe they can take away all the 64 when they leave the park. All f us need the clean natural envirnment and we shuld 65 the envirnment.
    61. A. picnic B. basket
    62. A. apple B. fd
    63. A. tree B. nature
    64. A. rubbish B. flwer
    65. A. prtect B. find
    七、语篇填空(共 10小题,每小题1分,共10分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入一个恰当的单词或用括号内所给单词的适当形式填空。
    Lei Feng was a 66 (China) sldier, wh helped many peple during his life. He carried bags fr the ld peple and 67 (give) fd t pr children in need.
    Lei Feng seldm talked abut 68 he did. After he died in 1962, at 69 age f 22, peple fund his diary and learned abut him. He became a symbl 70 the giving spirit. “There is a limit t ne’s life, but n limit t serving the peple,” he said.
    In 1963, Chairman Ma called n the natin t learn frm 71 (he), and March 5th is 72 (name) as “Lei Feng Day”. On that day, students d all kinds f vlunteer wrk t learn frm the rle mdel. One f the 73 (student) frm a primary schl in Dalian tld Lei Feng’s stries t thers 74 (prud),“I want t help thers by 75 (d) small things like him.”
    八、书面表达(共15分)
    保护环境,人人有责。从你我做起,从身边做起,从点滴做起,让我们为保护环境做出力所能及的贡献。请以“Prtect the envirnment”为主题, 写一篇英语短文, 可参考所给信息适当增加内容。
    提示信息: thrw rubbish, ride bike/walk, save water/electricity, clean up, reuse ld things
    写作要求:
    1. 语句通顺,逻辑清晰,书写规范。
    2. 词数60—80左右。
    3. 文中不能出现真实姓名和校名等信息。
    青海省 2024初中学业水平考试模拟试卷
    英语参考答案及评分标准
    一、听力测试(每小题1分,共20分)
    1—5AAABC 6—10ACBBC 11—15 BABCC
    16. different 17. fifteen/15 18. her 19. Fd 20. study
    二、完形填空(每小题1分,共15分)
    21—25 BCBAC 26—30BCAAB 31—35ACCBA
    三、阅读理解(每小题2分,共30分)
    36—40 CADAC 41—45 ABCDA 46—50BBDCD
    四、补全对话(每小题2分,共10分)
    51—55CEADB
    五、任务阅读
    56—60CADEB
    六、情境表达
    61—65ABBAA
    七、语篇填空(每小题1分,共10分)
    66. Chinese 67. gave 68. what 69. the 70. f
    71. him 72. named 73. students 74. prudly75. ding
    八、书面表达(共15分)
    评分原则:
    1. 本题满分为15分,按5个档次给分。
    2. 评分时先根据写作内容和语言表达确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    3. 书面表达为开放试题,对考生表达的观点不做限制。可从不同的角度表达自己的观点,只要内容合理,逻辑清晰,表达流畅,均应根据以下评分标准给分。
    评分标准:
    Pssible versin
    Prtecting the envirnment begins with small things.
    We can save electricity by turning ff the lights when we leave a rm. We can reuse ur wn bags ver and ver again instead f buying plastic bags frm supermarkets. We can chse t ride a bike, take a bus r walk t schl, but nt by taxi r car. It is als imprtant fr us t remind urselves t thrw the rubbish in the dustbin. All these small things culd add up and becme big things that culd imprve the envirnment.
    Our everyday actins can make a difference and lead t a better future. Let's take actin nw!Friends and Dreams
    Althugh we have _16_ dreams, we are helping each ther t make ur dreams cme true.
    Jenny
    1. She is _17_ years ld and she is ne year yunger than us.
    2. She des better in English than us. It is her favrite subject.
    3. She ften helps us with ur English hmewrk and _18_ dream is t becme an English teacher.
    James
    He finds it very interesting t ck, and he wants t be a ck when he grws up. We have already tried lts f _19_ he made at his hme n Saturdays and Sundays.
    Jack
    I want t be a dctr in the future just like my grandpa. S I'm ging t _20_ medicine when I'm in university.
    Linda, 10 years
    Many peple have dne things fr me. I'm happy that peple care abut me. Mst peple I knw give me mney r gifts at thanks giving. Smetimes peple take me n visits t places r ask me t their huses. I like t d nice things fr ther peple, t.
    Selina, 11 years
    Tw years ag we were at my grandparents' huse at thanksgiving and we wanted t get a turkey in the stre but they didn't have any. S we had t buy a live(活的) ne. When we went ut t kill it, it had run away and we culdn't find it. S my father bught sme chicken fr us and that year we had t eat chicken instead f turkey.
    Ryan, 7 years
    I am thankful fr having a really gd mum wh lks after me s well.
    I am thankful fr my grandparents wh always take me t music class.
    I am thankful fr having gd teachers, especially Ms. Mcmillan because she helps me t try new things.
    Jss, 9 years
    Thanksgiving is a wnderful day. It is great because I dn't have t g t schl. I can stay at hme. The mst imprtant reasn is that I can have fun with my family. The first thanksgiving was in 1621. Since then, each year we celebrate thanksgiving n the first Thursday f Nvember.
    56. _____I'm Lucy. I live in Beijing. I like kalas best. I want t g t Australia t see them. It must be exciting.
    57. _____I'm Mary. I like driving. Next Saturday, my family will have a picnic in a farm. We have t take many things with us, s I will drive t the farm.
    58. _____I'm Zhangta. I live in the west f Beijing, but I wrk in the east f Beijing. It's a little far. I can't be late.
    59. _____I'm Lily. I live near my schl. It's nly 500 meters frm my hme t schl. I want t exercise t keep healthy when I g t schl.
    60. _____I'm Tny. I'm 13 years ld. My ld grandparents live in a village. It's a little far frm my huse. There is n train statin in the village. I want t visit my grandparents.
    第五档13—15
    很好地完成了规定的写作任务。内容完整,结构合理, 语句流畅, 意思清楚、连贯。使用较为丰富的语法结构和词汇, 语法和词汇错误极少, 格式正确,书写规范。
    第四档10—12
    较好地完成了规定的写作任务。内容较为完整, 结构比较合理, 语句完整,意思清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较少, 格式基本正确, 书写较为规范。
    第三档
    7—9
    基本上完成了规定的写作任务。内容基本完整, 结构欠合理, 少数语句不通顺,意思基本清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多,格式基本正确, 书写基本规范。
    第二档4—6
    未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。多数语句欠完整,意思不够清楚。语法结构和词汇错误较多, 影响理解, 格式不够正确, 书写欠规范。
    第一档0—3
    未能按要求完成规定的写作任务。结构不完整,多数语句不完整或意思不明,语法结构和词汇错误很多,书写不规范。
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