湖北省武汉市江汉区2024年中考模拟英语试题(二)(含答案)
展开第一部分 听力部分
一、听力测试 (共三节)
第一节 (共4小题,每小题1分,满分4分)
听下面 4 个问题。每个问题后有三个答语,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每个问题后,你都有5 秒钟的时间来作答和阅读下一小题。每个问题仅读一遍。
1. A. America. B. Chengdu. C. I’m a teacher.
2. A. Twelve. B. She’s quiet. C. Best wishes.
3. A. Delicius. B. At hme. C. Dumplings.
4. A. 20 minutes ag. B. G2386. C. N wrries.
第二节 (共8小题,每小题1分,满分8分)
听下面 8 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来作答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
5. Hw is the new garden accrding t the wman?
A. Big B. Great. C. Bright.
6. What des the man suggest wearing?
A. A dress B. A cat. C. A jacket.
7. What is the weather like nw?
A. Sunny. B. Cludy C. Rainy
8. Where des the cnversatin prbably take place?
A. In a lab. B. In a classrm. C. In a library.
9. What are the tw speakers mainly talking abut?
A. A vacatin plan. B. A schl club. C. An advertisement.
10. What wuld the wman prbably say t the man next?
A. Yu have t talk with yur parents.
B. We shuld give a helping hand.
C. Peple can stay at hme.
11. Which scene is talked abut?
A. B. C.
12. What can be inferred accrding t the man?
A. He was n time B. He failed t answer the phne. C. He was tired.
第三节 (共13小题,每小题1分,满分13分)
听下面 4 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5 秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间,每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答 13 至 15 三个小题。
13. What des the wman want t d?
A. Buy a flat. B. Sell her flat C. Bk a rm.
14. Hw lng des the lift wrk every day?
A. Fr 7 hurs. B. Fr 16 hurs. C. Fr 19 hurs.
15. Where is the three-rm flat?
A. On the secnd flr B. Three blcks away. C. On the right f the pst ffice
听下面一段对话,回答 16 至 18 三个小题。
16. What did the wman see in her dream?
A. Cities n stars. B. Unfriendly peple C. Different spaceships.
17. Why des the wman want t be a spacewman?
A. T write a nvel. B. T find new planets. C. T make a mvie.
18. What des the man think f the wman’s dream?
A. Exciting B. Bring C. Scary.
听下面一段对话,回答 19 至 22四个小题。
19. Why was Jenny late fr the dinner?
A. She was n the website. B. She was having a class. C. She was clring a picture.
20. Wh gave the talk tday?
A. Jenny’s dad. B. Jenny’s classmates. C. Jenny’s science teacher.
21. What is necessary accrding t the talk?
A. Washing clthes in ht water. B. Cutting dwn n drivingC. Keeping all the lights n.
22. What was the cnversatin mainly abut?
A. Ding chres. B. Prtecting the envirnment. C. Lving science.
听下面一段独白,回答 23 至 25 三个小题。
23. Wh is prbably talking?
A. A travel guide B. A filmmaker. C. A news reprter.
24. What’s in the Walled Gardens?
A. A cuntry huse B. Beautiful rses. C. Different plants.
25. What’s special abut the Wdland Garden?
A. It’s pen every day. B. It’s a true castle C. It’s planted with fruit trees.
第二部分 笔试部分
二、选择填空 (共 10 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 10 分)
从题中所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
26. — ____________?
—Yes, I’m lking fr a gift fr my daughter’s birthday
A. Can I help yu B. Are yu having a party
C. D yu like the fd D. Is the stre ver there
27. —Cking helps us shw lve fr family members.
— ____________. Every time I make dishes fr Mum, she is s pleased.
A. I hpe s B. I dn’t care C. I’m glad t hear that D. I agree
28. —I’m nt sure if I’m ready fr this speech cmpetitin.
—Dn’t let yur dubts hld yu back. ____________!
A. Gt it B. Remember it C. Just d it D. That’s it
29. —Pandas are well received by peple all ver the wrld
— Yu said it! Panda has becme a ____________ f China.
A. mark B. symbl C. traditin D. ntice
30. —Where wuld yu like t sit? At the crner r beside the windw?
—____________. I’d like t sit by the pian s that I can watch the musician play.
A. Bth B. Either C. Neither D. Nne
31. —Why nt ask Aarn t jin in ur game!
—Yu’d better nt— he hates being bthered when he is ____________ in reading!
A. high B. deep C. natural D. smth
32. — Grandpa, why shuld we put these plants utside the huse?
—Because sunlight ____________ the grwth f green plants.
A. encurages B. intrduces C. prevents D. avids
33. —I hear the band’s latest tur was a bit success.
—Yeah! Their great perfrmance ____________ in huge crwds.
A. kicked B. drve C. lay D. pulled
34. — Hw will we g n a trip arund Wuhan?
—By bus. It’s the best way t ____________ all the sights n the way.
A. call up B. take in C. part with D. put n
35. The idim (成语) “Time and tide wait fr n man” tells us ____________
A. hw can we achieve success B. what peple d fr their gals
C. why we shuld value the time D. where we can wait fr the man
三、完形填空 (共 15 小题,每小题 1 分,满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Jasmine sat sewing (缝) a handkerchief in the garden. Suddenly, a little insect came running in such a hurry acrss the small stne. Immediately, an idea 36 Jasmine. She drpped her thimble (顶针) ver the little ant. Seeing him running rund and rund t find the exit, Jasmine thught it was 37 and laughed ut lud. As night 38 , she ran away fr dinner and frgt all abut him.
That night, the rain 39 The handkerchief left utside was wet thrugh as if smebdy had been 40 very much.
The next mrning, As Jasmine went ut t fetch it, she remembered wh was under the thimble. But when she lifted up the thimble, the little tiny ant lay 41 there!
“Why did yu d that, Jasmine?” came Dad’s vice.
“I didn’t 42 t, Dad.” Jasmine almst cried.
“See! He mves ne f his 43 . Run t the huse and get sme hney fr him!”
Then 44 Jasmine put a drp f hney befre the tiny ant.
Nw the ant 45 a fairy tngue (舌头) t enjy the sweet hney. Sn, he grew well, trying t run.
“He wants t run hme.” said Dad. “I knw where he lives. In a little rund wrld f ants, under the apple tree.”
“And has he gt a wife and children—a lt f little ants at hme?”
“Well, there are father ants and mther ants, and lts f ther ants wh are 46 t the little nes. 47 knws his wn children, but all the grwn-up nes are kind t all the babies. See hw he hurries ff!”
While they were talking, the little ant was sn 48 amng the grass. In a little while came the ant with a grup f friends.
“He has been hme and tld them the gd 49 abut the hney,” said Dad. “D yu think that all children are as kind as that?”
“N, I dn’t run t call my friends when I find a gd place f blackberries.”
“Then,” said father, “just learn frm the ant, 50 he is nly a little tiny thing.”
36. A. hurried B. frmed C. hit D. rang
37. A. lvely B. funny C. bring D. painful
38. A. kncked B. drpped C. grew D. fell
39. A. cleared B. pured C. gathered D. stpped
40. A. drinking B. crying C. laughing D. cleaning
41. A. hungry B. dead C. still D. sleepy
42. A. dare B. manage C. use D. mean
43. A. legs B. hands C. fingers D. tes
44. A. angrily B. gently C. prudly D. secretly
45. A. picked upB. stuck ut C. tk ff D. laid ut
46. A. friends B. nurses C. parents D. enemies
47. A. Everybdy B. Anybdy C. Nbdy D. Smebdy
48. A. fund B. disappeared C. missed D. rested
49. A. ntes B. effrts C. news D. times
55. A. thugh B. unless C. hut D. since
四、阅读理解 (共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下面三篇材料,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
51. In which SECTION f the newspaper can we read the news?
A. LIFESTYLE. B. TECHNOLOGY. C. PEOPLE. D. CULTURE.
52. What gave Sharanya the idea t build the rbt?
A. A cleanup activity B. A science cmpetitin.
C. The slar-pwered tls at hme D. The encuragement frm her father.
53. The best heading fr the secnd piece f news wuld be ____________.
A. Finding New Ways t Travel B. Helping Mre Peple in Need
C. Slving Yur Smartphne Prblems D. Paying fr Subway Rides with Palms
54. Which f the fllwing can best describe picture 3?
A. The rbts are human-like B. The rbts write pems well
C. The rbts have ec-friendly skin. D. The rbts can fllw peple’s rders.
55. What can we infer frm thse inventins?
A. The new payment methd is widely used.
B. Sharanya hardly made mistakes during the inventin
C. Technlgy make ur life mre interesting and cnvenient.
D. The Wrld Rbt Cnference is abut prtecting the envirnment.
B
Nature was Chen Rui’s “childhd hme”. The 37-year-ld researcher at the Chinese Academy f Sciences’ Institute f Zlgy was nt able t talk until he was 4 years ld because f the way his brain prcesses sensry (感官) infrmatin.
This made him “strange” in sme peple’s minds. S, he didn’t have friends wh were arund his age, which led him t turn his attentin t nnhuman things arund him. He became enraptured by the wrld f insects. “The happiest time f my childhd was in the farm fields,” says Chen. “I squatted there, bserving the actins f insects. I had s many questins abut their activities and was full f curisity abut this wrld.” These experiences planted a seed in his heart.
Many years later, he’s an expert in life-science research. He has visited the Amazn rainfrest several times, and has fund arund 100 new species (物种), many f which are named after him.
“I was a child wh was ‘cured (治愈)’ by nature,” he says. “I wanted t grw up t share the pwer f nature with mre yung peple and t ppularize understanding f animals, including insects. I wanted t start classes t bring children t learn in the pen air and experience the gifts nature gives.” These led him t recently publish the ppular science bk, Du Chng Ji (Reading Abut Insects)
“Insects were the earliest creatures that culd fly and feed themselves by farming. They have survived three mass extinctins (大规模灭绝). N ther living things have wn such victries.” He hpes that peple will learn and draw inspiratin frm the “superpwers” f insects and use it t imprve their wn lives.
56. Chen Rui was cnsidered a “strange” kid because ____________.
A. he was a late talker B. he preferred t stay alne
C. he enjyed reading bks D. he was s curius abut nature
57. The underlined wrd “enraptured” in paragraph 2 means ____________.
A. cnfused B. fascinated C. mved D. trubled
58. What are the main achievements f Chen Rui accrding t the passage?
① Prducing a bk ②Teaching in a university
③Discvering new species ④ Explring nature with children
A. ①② B. ①③ C. ②④ D. ③④
59. What’s the genre (体裁) f this passage?
A. A tale explring fictinal events.
B. A reprt shwing experimental results.
C. An essay discussing the nature f knwledge
D. A prfile describing a persn’s experiences and success
60. What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A. Making It t the Tp B. Ging Back t Nature
C. Chen Rui’s Jurney with Insects D. Insects Discvered by Chen Rui
C
AI culd make it less necessary t learn a freign language. That’s gd news fr travelers, but bad news fr sulful cnnectin. Travel has lng been ne f the reasns fr study unless peple start t feel AI tls ffer a gd enugh service.
Sme are wrried that apps are turning language learning int a weakening need. Duglas Hfstadter, a writer, has argued that smething imprtant will disappear when peple talk thrugh machines. He describes giving a nt s fluent (流畅的) speech in Chinese, which required a lt f wrk but ffered a great sense f achievement in the end. Wh wuld shw ff taking a plane t the tp f Munt Everest?
★ They dn’t take the weakening as a big deal. Mst peple d nt mve abrad r have the kind f cntinual cntact with a freign culture that requires them t put in the effrt t becme fluent. Nr d mst peple learn languages fr the purpse f develping themselves r training their brains. On their hliday, they just want a beer r pizza.
As AI translatin becmes a mre ppular labr-saving tl, peple will divide int tw grups, just as the abve. There will be thse wh want t challenge their minds, put themselves in ther cultures r frce their thinking int new ways. This grup will take n language learning, ften aided by technlgy. Others will lk at learning a new language with a mix f admiratin and cnfusin, as they might say with extreme sprts (极限运动): “Gd fr yu, if that’s yur thing, but a bit painful fr my taste.”
Hwever, a fcus n the learner alne misses the basically scial nature f language. It is a bit like discussing the advantages f clse relatinship t heart health but turning a blind eye t the inner value f thse bnds themselves. When yu try t ask directins in brken Japanese r make a jke in simple German, yu are making direct cmmunicatin with smene. And when yu speak a language well enugh t tell a stry with perfect timing r put stress n an argument, that cnnectin is till deeper.
61. Paragraph 2 and 3 hld the view that ____________.
A. cmmunicatin thrugh AI tls is direct
B. AI tls prvide a ne-way cmmunicative prcess
C. AI tls weaken the needs f language learning
D. using AI tls is becming mre and mre ppular
62. Accrding t paragraph 2, Duglas’ attitude twards AI tls is ____________.
A. negative B. unwrried C. unclear D. supprtive
63. Which f the fllwing can be put in ★ ?
A. We shuld make great effrts t learn. B. It’s necessary t learn by technlgy
C. Mst peple depend less n it. D. Others are less wrried.
64. Which f the fllwing might the “Others” in paragraph 4 agree with?
A. Peple shuld develp their minds. B. AI translatin tls ffer a gd service
C. Extreme sprts are wrth trying D. Language learning can nt be replaced.
65. Accrding t the last paragraph, the true meaning f language learning is ____________.
A. t imprve cultural exchanges B. t develp cmmunicatin skills
C. t strengthen cnnectins with thers D. t add fun t strytelling experience
第II 卷 (非选择题 共 40 分)
五、词与短语填空 (共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,用方框中所给的单词或短语填空,使短文在结构、语意和逻辑上正确。 (提示:方框中有二个单词或短语是多余的。)
height / carried /weight / strng / build / cvered / thanks t
Have yu ever seen a capybara (水豚)? The capybara is a large, heavy animal. An adult capybara is abut the size f a medium dg. The average ____________ (66) is arund 45 kilgrams.
They ____________ (67) their hme near lakes, rivers and pnds. Their rund bdies are ____________ (68) in reddish-brwn fur (毛皮) that dries ut quickly n land. When swimming, they are able t survey the abve-water cnditins ____________ (69) their small eves. nses and hairless ears. They are als ____________ (70) swimmers. They can hide under the water fr up t five minutes.
六、综合填空 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,根据上下文或括号内单词等提示,在空白处填入适当的单词或括号内单词的适当形式。
Dunhuang used t be a majr stp alng the Silk Rad, but is nw mainly a fascinating turist destinatin. Peple wh are interested in Dunhuang’s clrful histry will be attracted by the Mga Caves (莫高窟) , ne f the city’s main ____________ (71) (place) f interest. The entrance t each cave ____________ (72) (blck) by a lcked dr, which can nly be pened by expert guides. Behind these drs are caves f all sizes - ____________ (73) very small t extremely huge. The caves cntain (包含) thusands f ____________ (74) (price) silk paintings and manuscripts, which drew much attentin t the area.
Besides, there is nthing mre special than ____________ (75) (walk) acrss the desert asis at sunrise. Yu must rise early ____________ (76) (catch) this amazing scene. It’s cld, but as the sun rises n the tp f glden dunes (沙) and ____________ (77) (paint) quite a fascinating scene, all yur effrts pay ff. Sunset is a ppular time ____________ (78) yu can g fr a camel ride. Get ff the camels, walk up a very steep (陡峭的) dune, and ____________ (79) (sure) yu will find the best psitin t view the sunset.
N trip t Dunhuang is cmplete withut visiting the Dunhuang museum. It is s big ____________ (80) it cntains tens f thusands f riginal artwrks. Here, yu must be amazed by its rich culture.
七、书面表达 (共1大题,满分20分)
你校英语社团计划近期举办一次户外活动,社团外教Tny正在向学生征集活动的内容和意义等有关意见。假设你是李明,请根据以下内容提示写一封邮件向Tny阐述你的想法。内容提示
What utdr activity d yu like?
Why d yu like it?
Hw will yu rganize this utdr activity? (when, where, what t d…)
Smething mre abut it.
注意:文中不得透露个人真实信息;词数100词左右;开头已给出,不计入总词数。
Dear Sir,
I’m happy t hear there will be an utdr activity. I’m writing t tell yu sme f my pinins. ________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Hpe my suggestins help.
Yurs,
Li Ming
江汉区2024年中考模拟英语试题(二)
参考答案
一、听力部分 (共25小题,每小题1分,满分25分)
略
二、选择填空 (共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
26-30 ADCBC31-35 BADBC
三、完形填空 (本题共15小题,每小题1分,满分15分)
36-40 CBDBB41-45 CDABB46-50 CCBCA
四、阅读理解 (本题共15小题,每小题2分,满分30分)
51-55 BADAC56-60 ABBDC61-65 CADBC
五、词与短语填空 (本题共5小题,每小题2分,本题共10分)
66. weight67. build68. cvered69. thanks t70. strng
六、综合填空 (本题共10小题,每小题1分,本题共10分)
71. places72. is blcked73. frm74. priceless75. walking
76. t catch77. paints78. when79. surely80. that
七、书面表达 (本题共1小题,满分20分)
略
Creating a Rbt fr Rubbish Cllectin
14-year-ld Sharanya frm Califrnia, the US, built a slar-pwered (太阳能) rbt that cllects rubbish. The machine uses special tls t find and separate rubbish. Sharanya made the rbt after seeing pllutin during a rubbish cleanup. Her father helped her when she used pwer tls. “Dn’t be afraid f making mistakes. It is a part f the whle learning prcess,” Sharanya says.
___________________________________
Beijing Daxing Airprt Express subway nw allws yu t ride with just yur palms (手 掌) . By setting up n yur phne, travel is nw faster and easier, especially fr thse wh have truble with cards r smartphnes. Many are excited abut this new payment methd, and hpe it can be used in stres and restaurants in the future.
Bringing Ancient Pets “Back t Life”
At the Wrld Rbt Cnference 2023 in Beijing, there were tw rbts that lked like Chinese pets Li Bai and Du Fu. While Li Bai was hlding up a cup f wine, Du Fu was sitting at a desk, writing. These are called binic (仿生的) rbts. The rbt’s skin is very sft. Yu can even see veins (血管) under the skin.
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