四川省广元市利州区2023-2024学年下学期七年级英语期末模拟试题

这是一份四川省广元市利州区2023-2024学年下学期七年级英语期末模拟试题，文件包含期末模拟docx、7年级期末模拟docx、期末模拟mp3等3份试卷配套教学资源，其中试卷共16页， 欢迎下载使用。

（满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟 ）
第I卷 选择题（共三部分100分）
第一部分 听力测试（共2节；30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出与其意思相符的图片。每段对话读一遍。
.

1.
.
2.
3.
4.
5.
第二节 （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面3段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
6. What des Gina d n Saturday mrning?
A. She speaks English.B. She plays the pian.C. She draws pictures.
7. When des Gina get t the club?
A. At 7:00.B. At 8:00.C. At 10:00.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What des the actress need t use?
A. A phne.B. A cmputer.C. A music player.
9. What clr hair des the actress have?
A. Blnde.B. Blue.C. Green.
10. Where will the girl meet the actress later?
A. At the bus stp.B. In the restaurant.C. In the cinema.
听第8段材料，回答第11至13题。
11. Hw d the speakers g t their new huse?
A. By car.B. On ft.C. By bike.
12. Which rm is big?
A. The kitchen.B. The living rm.C. Lily’s rm.
13. What clr des Lily like best?
A. Purple.B. Yellw.C. Blue.
听第9段材料，回答第14至16题。
14. Where did Jenny g n vacatin?
A. T Lndn.B. T Mscw.C. T Paris.
15. Wh did Jenny g with?
A. Her parents.B. Her friends.C. Her brthers.
16. What did Jenny think f Anna?
A. Beautiful.B. Kind.C. Smart.
听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Hw lng did it take the grup t get t the z by bus?
A. 20 minutes.B. 30 minutes.C. 40 minutes.
18. What is the tiger in the pht ding?
A. Sleeping.B. Eating.C. Walking.
19. What are the speaker’s favrite animals?
A. Giraffes.B. Mnkeys.C. Pandas.
20. Where is the pht f the hrse?
A. Under the desk.B. Under the chair.C. On the chair.
第二部分 基础知识运用（共2节；30分）
第一节 单项选择（每小题1分，共10分）
21．—Wuld yu like t take ________ walk with me nw, Tm?
—Srry, I want t play ________ ftball with my friends, dad.
A．the;/ B．a;theC．a;/D．/;the
22．-The milk is______ht_______I can’t drink it nw.
-Just wait a mment!
A．either;r B．between;andC．s;thatD．t;t
23．—Mr. Wang ________ gets up early.
—Yes, s he is ________ late fr wrk.
A．always; always B．always; never C．always; ften D．never; never
24．—________ des it take yu t get there?
—Abut twenty minutes.
A．Hw manyB．Hw muchC．Hw farD．Hw lng
25．--Lk!A number f new bks____n the teacher’s desk. The number f them____38.
--Let’s hand them ut.
A．are；is B．is；areC．are；areD．is；is
26．We all like _______ table tennis, and we _______ a gd time playing it yesterday.
A．playing; haveB．t play; havingC．playing; hadD．play; had
27.There is n ________lunch in the wrld. We must wrk hard.
A.free B.useful C.delicius D.ht
28.-Mr.Brwn is s clever!
-Yes, he used stars as a(n)_________t find his way when he gt lst in the muntains.
A.gift B.guide C.answer D.idea
is a great artist. If yu are________drawing, yu can learn it frm her.
A.interested in B.strict with C.busy with D.gd fr
30．—Excuse me, where is the Mnlight Htel?
—_________. I’m new here.
A．N, I dn’t think sB．Srry, I dn’t knw
C．It desn’t matterD．Thank yu all the same
完形填空（每小题1分，共20分）
A
There are fur different seasns in China. But in many parts f China, spring usually cmes in March 31 ends in May. Spring is usually very 32 . It has nly ne r tw mnths. Summer is ften very ht. It lasts 33 June t August. Fall starts in 34 and ges n t Nvember. The weather can be quite cl 35 fall. Winter lasts frm December t February, and it is very cld. Yu need t wear lts f warm clthes. The best time 36 China is spring and fall. It is ften t ht in summer and t cld in winter.
The seasns f the year in England and the USA are nearly(几乎) 37 . The weather never 38 t ht r t cld. Spring 39 last frm late March t May.
In Australia, summer is frm December t the next February, and winter is in June, July and August. S when it’s spring in China, 40 is fall in Australia. Yu’d better knw these things when yu travel in different cuntries.
31．A．r B．sC．butD．and
32．A．shrtB．smallC．bestD．t
33．A．fB．frmC．atD．ht
34．A．JulyB．AprilC．AugustD．September
35．A．inB．fC．frD．abut
36．A．visitB．visitsC．visitedD．t visit
37．A．sameB．differentC．the sameD．sme
38．A．getB．turnC．getsD．cmes
39．A．canB．have tC．needD．must
40．A．heB．itsC．it’sD．It
B
Mr. and Mrs. Smith just pen a small 41 in America. T attract (吸引) peple, they put a ntice (通知) n the dr, and 42 says, “Meals n the Huse fr Three Days.”
A Chinese student cmes t the USA and he desn’t knw 43 English. On Mnday after he has afternn classes, he walks past the restaurant. It is time fr 44 and he feels very hungry. “Well, I am ging t have smething t eat.” When he walks t the restaurant, he sees the ntice. “American peple are really 45 . They even have meals n the huse! But 46 can I get t the tp (顶) f the huse?” He thinks.
He lks arund and finds a ladder (梯子) 47 the restaurant. He is very happy. But when he gets t the tp, he hears smene shuting at him. “Hey! What are yu ding there?” Mr. Smith and a pliceman are standing there and 48 him. “Desn’t yur ntice say ‘Meals n the Huse fr Three Days’? Is it 49 a jke (玩笑)?” the student asks. When Mr. Smith and a pliceman hear this, they start laughing. “D yu knw what ‘ON THE HOUSE’ means (意思是)? It means yu dn’t have t give mney fr the meal! It’s 50 !” the pliceman says.
41．A．Htel B．shpC．restaurantD．supermarket
42．A．theyB．itC．heD．she
43．A．manyB．muchC．littleD． any
44．A．breakfastB．drinksC．lunchD．dinner
45．A．happyB．warmC．interestingD．kind
46．A．whyB．whereC．hwD．when
47．A．tB．nC．nearD．under
48．A．lking frB．lking atC．staying withD．learning abut
49．A．hardlyB．nlyC．alwaysD．ever
50．A．wellB．lngC．freeD．Warm
第三部分 阅读理解（共2节；40分）
第一节 阅读选择（每小题2分，共30分）
A
51. Hw lng is the visiting time f the z every day?
A. 4 hurs. B.5 hurs. C. 6 hurs. D. 7 hurs.
52. Thirteen-year-ld Mary wants t visit the z with her five-year-ld brther Tim. Hw much d they need t pay（支付）?
A. One dllar. B. Five dllars. C. Ten dllars. D. One hundred dllars.
53. What can we learn abut the animals in the z?
A. The kalas are kind f lazy. B. The tigers are frm Africa.
C. The elephants never take shwers. D. The pandas like walking in the frests.
54. Which f the fllwing is TRUE abut the z?
A. The z has 100 animals.
B. Peple can visit it every Sunday in May and June.
C. Peple have t call r e-mail t bk befre visiting it.
D. Children under 6 can't visit it fr free.
55. Where can yu read the text?
A. In a strybk. B. In a newspaper.
C. In a dictinary. D. In a picture bk.
B
American peple like t say "Thank yu" when thers help them r say smething kind t them. Peple in many cuntries d s, t. It is a very gd habit.
Yu shuld say "Thank yu" when smene passes yu the salt n the table, when smene walking ahead f yu keeps the dr pen fr yu, when smene says yu have dne yur wrk well, r yu have bught a nice thing, r yur city is very beautiful. "Thank yu" is used nt nly between friends, but als between parents and children, brthers and sisters.
"Excuse me" is anther shrt sentence they use. When yu hear smene say s behind yu, yu knw that smene wants t walk past yu withut tuching yu. It's nt plite t break thers when they are talking. If yu want t speak t ne f them, say "Excuse me" first, and then begin talking. Yu shuld als d s when yu begin t cugh r make any nise befre thers.
Let's learn t say "Thank yu" and "Excuse me".
56.Yu shuld say "Thank yu" when ________.
A．yu say smething kind t thersB．yu help thers
C．smene helps yu D．yu want thers t help yu
57.Frm the passage we knw "Thank yu" is ________.
A．used in the wrld B．used mre ften than "Excuse me"
C．used nly by Americans D．used nly between friends
58.Yu shuld say "Excuse me" if yu want t ________.
A．cugh B．make sme nise C．g firstD．all f the abve
59.When yu are ging t ask smene t tell yu the way, yu shuld say "________".
A．Thank yuB．That's very kind f yu
C．Excuse meD．I'm srry
60.What’s the best title f the passage?.
A．Hw t be happy B．Hw t be plite
C．Hw t help thers D．Hw t learn frm Americans
C
Tday is Sunday and Mrs.Brwn is in the kitchen. She’s making muttn ndles fr breakfast. Mna cmes t the kitchen and says, “Mm, here’s a pem(诗歌）fr yu. Let me read it t yu.”
Mrs.Brwn isn’t happy. She takes the paper and puts it n the table. She says t Mna angrily, “It’s time t d yur hmewrk. G back t yur rm right nw.” Mna feels a little sad. “Mm. Please dn’t be angry,” says Mna.”It’s Mther’s Day tday. I just want t thank yu fr ding everything fr me. Mm, I lve yu very much. Nw I g t d my hmewrk.”
Mrs.Brwn feels very srry. She says t Mna, “Dear, I’m srry. Wuld yu please read the pem fr me? I need t cut up the nins.”
Mna says, “Okay, Mm.”
61.The stry happens n__________.
Saturday mrning B.Sunday mrning C.Saturday evening D.Sunday evening
62.Where des Mrs. Brwn put the paper?
under the chair B.under the table C.n the chair D.n the table
63.The underlined wrd “angrily”means “___________” in Chinese.
生气地 B.无奈地 C.兴奋地 D.微笑地
64.What des Mrs.Brwn need t cut up?
Carrts B.Onins C.Ptates D.Cabbages
65.What can we learn frm the reading?
Mrs. Brwn is in her rm B.Mna is a student
C.Tday is Mna’s birthday D.It’s Father’s Day tday
第二节： 补全短文（每小题2分，共10分）
根据文章内容，从方框中选出适当的选项补全短文。
The students in the United States think that the lng summer hliday can be a great time t learn r t d sme new things. 66
Taking time ut
The summer hliday can be a great time t d smething fr the next schl year. Yu can have sme time t think abut yur wish. 67
Being a vlunteer(志愿者)
Are yu thinking abut helping thers? The summer hliday gives yu time t d smething fr them. 68 Yu can als make new friends when wrking as a vlunteer.
Reading a lt
Dn’t let yur brain(大脑) get lazy. 69 Visit the library r bkstre and find bks that are interesting fr yu. Yu can learn a lt frm bks.
Other things
Think abut ther things yu wish t d. Write a bk? Study English? Get a part-time jb?
70
Nw it’s time t talk t yur parents abut yur hliday plan. Then have a great summer hliday!
A．Helping thers can make yu happy.
B．Make a trip t sme interesting places?
C．That’s imprtant fr yu.
D．Yu need t make yur brain run.
E．Here are sme ways fr yu t plan an interesting summer hliday.
第II卷 非选择题（共一部分50分）
第四部分 写（共3节；50分）
第一节 语法填空（每小题1.5分，共15分）阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个恰当的单词或括号内所给单词的正确形式。
The Beijing-Hangzhu Grand Canal (大运河) is abut 1,800 kilmeters lng. It 71 (start) frm Hangzhu in the suth and ges t Beijing in the nrth. It has 72 lng histry f mre than 2,500 years.
In the year AD 605, Emperr Yang Guang 73 (give) an rder t build (建造) the canal. Building such a lng canal was 74 (real) difficult at that time. 3. 6 millin peple wrked n it and in a shrt time many f them lst 75 (they) lives. It tk peple abut six years t build the canal. The Grand Canal became a bridge between the nrth 76 the suth f China.
The Grand Canal was built in ancient (古代的) China but it is still in use tday. Every day, 77 (ship) g up and dwn the canal. And many peple like t take a walk alng it. It is part f many Chinese 78 (peple) life. Nw, lts f peple are 79 (live) happily alng the canal. They call it “mther river” and it is ne f the symbls 80 Hangzhu.
第二节： 信息提取（每小题2分，共10分）阅读下面短文，根据短文内容，在下面的表格中填入与文章意思最符合的单词，每空填一词。
Dear Mm and Dad,
I’m ding fine here. Yesterday Kitty’s teacher Mr.Wu asked me t jin their schl trip t the Wrld Park. I was happy t g with them and had much fun.
It was a fine and warm day. The sun was shinning in a clear blue sky. The wrld Park is quite far away. It tk us abut tw hurs t get there by bus. There were a lt f cars n the way, s the bus didn’t mve fast. We felt a little bred because we culdn’t d anything but sleep n the bus.
At last we arrived at the park. All f us culdn’t wait t get ff(下车）the bus. Sn the Wrld Park was there in frnt f us! There are ver a hundred places f interest frm all ver the wrld. They lk like a real nes but much smaller(更小）
We felt very excited when we saw the Eiffel Twer. It is made f steel(钢铁）and is abut 10 meters tall. I gt a big surprise when I saw the Glden Gate Bridge. It lked as great as the ne back hme.
It was a surprising day because we saw main sights(景物）f the wrld in just ne day. The music and dance shws were als interesting. We learned a lt abut different cultures and histry n this trip.
Yu can see sme phts f the trip n the internet. I put them n my hme page. G and see fr yurselves!
Jenny
第三节 书面表达（共 25 分）
国家提出了将劳动教育纳入中小学国家课程的方案，为此，你校上周末组织初一年级同学作为志愿者去参加了一次特别的劳动之旅。同学们在这次活动中体验了各种劳动，并体会到了助人的快乐，请你以“A Special Schl Trip”为题，记录下上周末特殊的学校之旅。
要求：1.70词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
文中不得出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称
参考信息：1.出行基本信息（方式，天气）
2.在养老院所做的事（打扫房间，一起做饭)
A Special Schl Trip
Last weekend, ur schl tk us t the ld peple’s hme.__________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________
七下英语期末模拟答题卡
（请用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。非选择题用钢笔在相应处分别作答）
五、语法填空（每空1.5分，共15分）
71.__________ 72.__________ 73.__________ 74.__________ 75.___________
76.___________ 77.__________ 78.__________ 79.__________ 80.___________
六、信息提取（每空2分，共10分）
81.__________ 82. __________ 83. _________ 84. __________ 85. __________
七、书面表达（25分）











WCB Z Trip
D yu knw WCB has a big z with ver 100 kinds f animals? In the z, yu can see elephants frm Africa taking a shwer, tigers frm Asia walking in the frests（森林）, pandas frm China eating bamb, and kalas frm Australia sleeping in the trees all day…
Want t take a trip t the z? Read these rules first:
Opening（开放）time: n the first and third Sunday f May and June
Visiting（参观）time: frm 10:30 a. m. t 4:30 p. m.
Price: $ 5, free fr children under 6
Nte: Bk（预订）befre yu take the trip! E-mail us at web@, r call us at 628-7462.
Jenny’s schl trip t the Wrld Park
The __81______
It was sunny and warm
On the way
it tk them abut tw hurs.
It was a(n)___82___and bring bus ride.
Activities in the park
^She saw mdels f ver 100 places f interest. They are different frm the real nes in__83___.
^She enjyed music and dance shws.
^She learned a lt abut cultures and histry.
^She tk sme ____84_and then put them n the internet.
_____85__abut the trip
She thught it was an exciting and surprising trip.
题号
第一题
第二题
第三题
第四题
第五题
第六题
第七题
总分
得分
一、听力（每题1.5分，共30分）
1. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
2. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
3. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
4. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
5. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
6. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
7. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
8. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
9. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
10. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
11. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
12. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
13. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
14. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
15. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
16. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
17. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
18. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
19. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
20. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ]
二、单项选择（每题1分，共10分）
21. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
22. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
23. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
24. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
25. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
26. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
27. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
28. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
29. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
30. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
三、完形填空（每题1分，共20分）
31. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
32. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
33. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
34. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
35. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
36. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
37. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
38. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
39. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
40. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
41. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
42. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
43. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
44. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
45. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
46. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
47. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
48. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
49. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
50. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
四、阅读理解（每题2分，共40分）
51. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
52. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
53. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
54. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
55. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
56. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
57. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
58. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
59. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
60. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
61. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
62. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
63. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
64. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
65. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ]
66. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ]
67. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ]
68. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ]
69. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ]
70. [ A ] [ B ] [ C ] [ D ] [ E ]