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    2024年安徽省淮北市部分学校中考三模英语试题

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    2024年安徽省淮北市部分学校中考三模英语试题

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    这是一份2024年安徽省淮北市部分学校中考三模英语试题,共14页。试卷主要包含了全卷包括“试题卷”两部分等内容,欢迎下载使用。
    1.本试卷共四部分,十大题,满分120分,考试时间为120分钟。
    2.全卷包括“试题卷”(8页)和“答题卷”或“答题卡”(2页)两部分。
    3.请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题,在“试题卷”上答题无效。
    4.考试结束后,请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
    第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
    Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1.What did Eric d yesterday?
    A.B.C.
    2.Where was Mna this mrning?
    A.B.C.
    3.Wh was ill in hspital yesterday?
    A.Lisa.B.Mary.C.Gina.
    4.When will they have the yard sale next week?
    A.On Mnday.B.On Tuesday.C.On Thursday.
    5.What’s the prbable relatinship between the tw speakers?
    A.Dctr and patient.B.Mther and sn.C.Waiter and custmer.
    Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至7小题。
    6.Hw des Hlly feel?
    A.Tired.B.Terrible.C.Excited.
    7.What des Hlly have t d?
    A.G t the dctr.B.Have a test.C.Have a rest.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。
    8.Wh did Tina g t Trnt with?
    A.Her brther.B.Her parents.C.Her friends.
    9.Hw lng did Jhn and Peter stay in Trnt last year?
    A.Fr five days.B.Fr a week.C.Fr fifteen days.试卷源自 每日更新,会员下载免费且不限量。10.What wuld Jhn like t d next mnth?
    A.Visit Trnt.B.Buy sme gifts.C.Visit his relatives.
    Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
    11.When did Jenny have the class meeting abut labr?
    A.Yesterday.
    B.The day befre yesterday.
    C.Last week.
    12.Hw ften des Lucy clean the flr?
    A.Every day.B.Every weekend.C.Every Mnday.
    13.Where des Alice grw vegetables?
    A.On the farm.B.In the garden.C.In the park.
    14.What des Mike d after dinner?
    A.Washes his dg.B.Feeds his dg.C.Walks his dg.
    15.Why des Jenny ften ck meals fr her parents?
    A.Because she likes her parents very much.
    B.Because she is interested in cking.
    C.Because she can develp her sense f respnsibility.
    Ⅳ.信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
    第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
    Ⅴ.单项填空(共10小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
    从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    21.—It seems that the number f the new energy car has ______a lt in China.
    —Exactly. China is making great effrts in develping the new energy industry.
    A.inventedB.invitedC.intrducedD.increased
    22.—The mvie was s bring that I culd ______ stay awake.
    —Haha, I felt the same.
    A.finallyB.suddenlyC.hardlyD.easily
    23.—Have yu ever been t any famus places in Beijing?
    —Well, ______ f them. I haven’t had the chance t travel there yet.
    A.fewB.smeC.manyD.nne
    24.The knwledge f Traditinal Chinese Medicine ______ n by ur ancestrs lng ag.
    A.passB.passesC.was passedD.was passing
    25.—My teacher ften asks me t spend mre time n the ______ f the past papers.
    —It’s a gd way t prepare fr yur final exam.
    A.resultB.reviewC.reasnD.relative
    26.—Which line is the ______ subway t Hefei Exp Garden?
    —Line 1. Just take it and then get ff at Lugang Statin.
    A.directB.nervusC.wiseD.tiny
    27.T read the newspaper clearly, my grandmther needs t ______ her glasses.
    A.put nB.put upC.put ffD.put dwn
    28.—I want t g t the Happiness Opera Huse t watch the talk shw next week.
    —Well, we wn’t be able t get gd seats ______ we bk the tickets nline early.
    A.ifB.unlessC.becauseD.after
    29.—I heard there’s a new beautiful bridge ______ the Yangtze River.
    —Yes. It’s the Third Yangtze River Bridge in Wuhu.
    A.alngB.acrssC.exceptD.thrugh
    30.—Thanks a lt fr shwing me arund the small twn.
    —______.
    A.N, thanksB.I’d lve tC.Dn’t mentin itD.That’s right
    Ⅵ.完形填空(共20小题,每小题1分,满分20分)
    阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    A
    Speaking f ne’s reading life, mst peple might be asked abut their first bk, r hw many bks they have read. Fr me, I dn’t have 31 t these questins, either, as all the bks I’ve read are lst in my river-like memries.
    32 my parents, my reading life started when I was 1 year ld. Yu 33 think I culdn’t read at that time. Yu are 34 . I culd nly listen t sme picture bks n my small bed 35 my mm. She was a great stryteller and always spke while 36 a lt f facial(面部的) expressins. Even if I culdn’t read, her facial expressins helped me a lt. Anyway, that was the first perid f my reading life: 37 .
    The secnd part f my reading life is called “bridge bk.” A bridge bk is a kind f bk that 38 picture bks with textbks. At that time, I nly knew few wrds, s I had t chse bridge bks as they were the 39 fr me.
    The next perid was between my five years ld and seven years ld. In this perid, I 40 the bridge bks and went int the arms f textbks. In the wrld f textbks, I started t read tns and tns f bks. All in all, reading truly pens my mind and leads me t the path f lifelng learning.
    31.A.answersB.reasnsC.methdsD.suggestins
    32.A.Accrding tB.Because fC.Instead fD.Thanks t
    33.A.graduallyB.directlyC.prbablyD.nrmally
    34.A.livelyB.rightC.calmD.painful
    35.A.besideB.behindC.abveD.ver
    36.A.prducingB.sparingC.addingD.supprting
    37.A.writingB.speakingC.readingD.listening
    38.A.cnnectsB.cnsidersC.preventsD.mentins
    39.A.wrstB.easiestC.cleverestD.cheapest
    40.A.set upB.gave upC.gt upD.lked up
    B
    A special curse named “Physical Fitness Enhancement(体能提升): Exercise and Nutritin(营养)” has been set up in Peking University. The 41 f the curse is t help students get int gd shape. But the curse is nly pen t students wh are 42 r verweight.
    Students can learn hw t lse weight, such as making 43 diets and exercise plans in the 30-hur curse. Als, the students can train with the help f prfessinal caches. Activities 44 running, strength training and designing persnal weight lss plans.
    “The gal is fr students t 45 a healthy lifestyle, master scientific weight lss methds, and frm regular exercise and balanced diet habits,” explained Zhang Xiayuan, wh teaches the curse.
    A lt f students are interested in the curse. T get the 46 t chse the curse, many students have t cmpete. Thse wh 47 it have gt a lt in the curse, with the highest weight lss being arund 15 kilgrams ver the term.
    On the final day, the students wuld share their 48 . Many f them reprt they feel lighter, imprve mds 49 and have better sleep nw. Sme have 50 new sprts hbbies like rck climbing, swimming and s n. Sme even have fund new sprts partners.
    41.A.purpseB.requestC.levelD.result
    42.A.shrtB.heavyC.tallD.yung
    43.A.healthyB.privateC.helpfulD.plite
    44.A.supprtB.requireC.createD.include
    45.A.cmpleteB.listC.develpD.master
    46.A.advantageB.chanceC.psitinD.matter
    47.A.madeB.brughtC.enjyedD.decided
    48.A.heresB.achievementsC.suggestinsD.secrets
    49.A.mainlyB.carefullyC.successfullyD.exactly
    50.A.taken dwnB.taken awayC.taken ffD.taken up
    Ⅶ.补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    根据对话内容,从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,其中有两个为多余选项。
    A: Lng time n see, Kate.
    B: Hell, Alex. 51
    A: That sunds great. 52
    B: Certainly. Lk at the pht. I wre a lcal traditinal headdress, Zanhua.
    A: It’s s beautiful! But I nly knw it is widely spread nline these days. 53
    B: 54 In ancient times, wmen wuld decrate their hair with all kinds f flwers, which nt nly added their beauty but als shwed their expectatins f gd luck and happiness.
    A: Ww, that’s amazing. 55
    B: That’s fr sure. Maybe yu can experience it next time.
    A: I will. I really want t explre mre abut these traditinal things.
    第三部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
    Ⅷ.阅读理解(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
    第一节 阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
    A
    56.Hw many clthes may be thrwn away within a year?
    A.Abut 10 billin.B.Abut 5 billin.
    C.Abut 1.4 billin.D.Abut 0.7 billin.
    57.Which f the fllwing is nt accepted by WEY?
    A.B.C.D.
    58.What’s the purpse f the text?
    A.T set up a public welfare rganizatin.B.T call n peple t buy less clthes.
    C.T ask peple t give away clthes.D.T tell peple t prtect the envirnment.
    B
    On April 25, 2024, China successfully sent the Shenzhu-18 spaceship with three astrnauts t Tiangng space statin fr a six-mnth missin(任务). Amng the three astrnauts, Ye Guangfu is the missin cmmander(指挥官), with rich experience and leadership skills.
    Ye was brn in September, 1980 and grew up in a small village in Sichuan. At the age f eight, his father passed away. His mther lked after Ye and his sister alne frm then n. Ye remembered hw difficult it was fr his family t make a living. Althugh it seemed impssible fr him t try ut t becme an air frce pilt at first, his lve fr flying and hard wrk gt him int the Air Frce Aviatin University f China.
    In 2009, Ye decided t reach even higher and applied t be an astrnaut. Becming an astrnaut, ne must face many challenges. Ye even trained in caves(洞穴) in Eurpe where he had t find his way thrugh dark and wet caves. This made him the first Chinese persn t finish this training. Ye never gave up his dream. And his hard wrk paid ff when he made his first jurney int space n the Shenzhu-13 missin n Octber 16, 2021.
    Ye is always thankful fr all the difficult times because they help him keep ging and stick t his dreams. Ye is really a rle mdel wh shws us the imprtance f strng perseverance(毅力).
    59.Hw lng wuld Ye stay in Tiangng space statin?
    A.Fr 18 mnths.B.Fr 8 mnths.C.Fr 6 mnths.D.Fr 3 mnths.
    60.When did Ye’s father pass away?
    A.In 1980.B.In 1988.C.In 2009.D.In 2021.
    61.Which is NOT true abut Ye?
    A.Ye cmes frm Sichuan.B.Ye has a sister.
    C.Ye is a man with strng perseverance.D.Ye has flew int space nce s far.
    62.What is the structure(结构) f the text?(① =Paragraph 1, ② =Paragraph 2…)
    A.B.C.D.
    C
    An internatinal study has fund nearly ne in six teenagers have experienced cyberbullying(网络欺凌).
    The study surveyed mre than 279,000 yung peple frm 44 cuntries. In Wales, where nearly 37,000 yung peple were surveyed, 17% reprted experiencing cyberbullying. In England, where mre than 4,200 yung peple were surveyed, nearly ne in five (19%) reprted being cyberbullied at least nce r twice in the past cuple f mnths, and 11% reprted cyberbullying thers. In Sctland, where mre than 4,300 yung peple were surveyed, 18%said they had experienced cyberbullying and 11% reprted cyberbullying thers. The prprtin(比率) f teenagers wh reprted being cyberbullied has increased since 2018, frm 12% t 15% fr bys and 13% t 16% fr girls.
    The reprt said it’s necessary fr families and schls t educate yung peple frm the frms f cyberbullying t its influences.
    “With yung peple spending up t six hurs nline every single day, even small changes in the prprtin f bullying can impact thusands f teenagers,” a scientist said. “This is a prblem f health and human rights, and we must take actins t prtect ur children frm bullying, bth ffline and nline.”
    63.What’s the main idea f the secnd paragraph?
    A.Cyberbullying has been a serius prblem.
    B.Lts f teenagers knw cyberbullying well.
    C.Many peple are trying t deal with cyberbullying.
    D.The number f teenagers being cyberbullied is getting smaller.
    64.What des the underlined wrd “impact” prbably mean?
    A.Understand.B.Imprve.C.Influence.D.Invite.
    65.In which part f a magazine can we find the text?
    A.Culture.B.Technlgy.C.Travel.D.Sciety.
    D
    Tw years ag, my wife left me and ur three-year-ld sn, Peter, because f a terrible traffic accident. I’ve been living with Peter since then. Althugh I tried my best t give him as much lve as I culd, he still asked me where his mther was frm time t time.
    One day, I tld him that his mther had gne t a faraway place and wuldn’t be back until many years later. He seemed t knw what had happened and ndded bediently(乖巧地). He seldm did that again. Hwever, when we met ther children with their mthers utside, he ften stpped and lked at them fr a lng time.
    Peter had a bad cld yesterday. He cughed a lt and had a fever. When I came back frm the hspital hlding him, he put his head n my shulder and begged(乞求) me t take him t see his mther in a lw vice. I knew it was time t tell him the truth. S I tk him t my wife’s tmb.
    Peter hugged the tmb as if he was hugging his mther, crying ludly. I squatted dwn(蹲下)and strked(抚摸) his back gently. After abut half an hur, he stpped crying and turned back slwly. After wiping(擦) away the tears frm my face, he said, “Mm is t tired and she is sleeping in it. Let’s nt bther(打扰) her.” I realized nthing can stp a child’s lve fr his mther.
    66.What des the underlined wrd “that” refer t(指的是)?
    A.Asked where his mther was.B.Asked when his mther wuld be back.
    C.Knew what had happened.D.Knew where his mther had gne.
    67.What happened t Peter yesterday?
    A.He had a bad cld.B.He had a traffic accident.
    C.He had a headache.D.He hurt his shulder.
    68.Which wrd can best describe Peter accrding t the last paragraph?
    A.Hnest.B.Helpful.C.Respnsible.D.Understanding.
    69.What des the writer want t tell us?
    A.Mther’s lve is the greatest.
    B.A child’s lve fr his mther can’t be stpped.
    C.Mthers always lve their children.
    D.Children shuld be cared fr well by their mthers.
    E
    If yu feel like sleeping mre in winter, yu’re nt alne. A survey shws that at least a third f American adults sleep mre in winter. Sme dctrs frm a famus hspital studied 188 patients and fund that they slept an hur lnger in winter than they did in summer. Sme animals hibernate(冬眠) in winter. Des sleeping mre mean humans need t hibernate?
    In fact, mre sleep during winter may have t d with hw light changes thrughut the year. When it is bright utside, we are usually active. But when the sun ges dwn, we may feel tired and need t sleep. The days are much shrter in winter, s we get less light than that in summer.
    And light influences nt nly sleep time but als sleep quality. Deep sleep is highly affected by light and darkness. S when we have less light during the winter mnths, ur bdy is ging t vercmpensate(过度补偿) by giving mre deep sleep.
    Humans dn’t need t hibernate like sme animals. But we can make adjustments(调整) t perfrm and rest in a better way in winter.
    70.What can we knw frm the first paragraph?
    A.Sme peple sleep lnger in winter.B.Patients need t sleep mre.
    C.Adults sleep less in winter.D.Humans can hibernate like animals.
    71.What influences sleep mst accrding t the text?
    A.Temperature.B.Climate.C.Diet.D.Light.
    72.What’s the best title(标题) fr the text?
    A.D humans need less sleep?B.D humans need t hibernate?
    C.D humans like winter better?D.D humans need mre light?
    第二节 阅读下面短文,并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
    F
    An English saying ges that “Practice makes perfect.” Similarly there is a Chinese saying “Skills cme frm practice”. S let’s see the stry behind the saying.
    In the Sng Dynasty, there was a man named Chen Yazi, he was very prud f his archery(射箭) skills. One day, when he was shting arrws in his wn garden, an il seller passed by and watched him fr a lng time. Chen asked the man, “Hw abut my shts?” The man didn’t cheer but nly made a slight(轻微的) smile. Chen was very angry and said, “D yu knw archery well? Isn’t my skill excellent?”
    The il seller replied, “That’s nthing, just practice.” As he spke, he put a bttle n the grund and then put a cin with a hle in the center n it. Then he slwly pured il int the bttle with a ladle(长柄勺). The il, like a thin string(线), went straight int the bttle thrugh the hle in the cin withut staining(沾染) the cin at all. The man smiled and said: “It’s nthing, either, just my repeated practice.”
    Like what the il seller said, if we want t make sme skills perfect, we must knw: ______
    73.What was Chen prud f?(不超过5个词)
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________
    74.What did the il seller put n the bttle? (不超过10个词)
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________
    75.What may the writer say at the end f the text?(不超过15个词)
    ___________________________________________________________________________________________
    第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
    Ⅸ.单词拼写(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    根据首字母及汉语提示,完成下列单词的拼写,使句意明确,语言通顺。
    76.Life may nt be always f______ (公平的), but we can make it better with hard wrk.
    77.These shrt vide apps are useful t______ (工具) t spread Chinese traditinal culture.
    78.Prtecting the envirnment can s______ (仅仅) start frm small actins every day.
    79.When Gd clses this d______ (门), he will pen anther fr yu.
    80.Betty likes t r______ (放松) herself by listening t music when she feels stressed.
    Ⅹ.书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
    “父亲是儿那登天的梯、父亲是那拉车的牛……”;父亲用他的肩膀支撑起一个家。没有父亲的辛苦付出,就没有我们现在的生活。今天(6月16日)是父亲节。假如你是Fu Xing,请你用英语写一封电子邮件,向父亲表达自己的感谢之情。
    要求:
    1.内容可以适当发挥,以保证内容的完整、丰富与流畅;
    2.不可出现真实的人名、地名和校名;
    3.词数80—100。作文开头及结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
    Dear Dad,
    I’m writing t express my thanks fr all yur care and lve.
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Thanks again fr everything yu have dne fr me.
    Lve,
    Fu Xing
    英语试题参考答案及评分标准
    第一部分 听力(共四大题,满分20分)
    Ⅰ.1—5 BACCA
    Ⅱ.6—10ABBAA
    Ⅲ.11—15ABACB
    Ⅳ.16.quickly 17.bdy 18.cnfident 19.raise 20.valuable
    评分标准:1—20题每小题1分。(16—20题中的单词拼写错误可酌情扣分。)
    第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题,满分35分)
    Ⅴ.单项填空
    21—25 DCDCB 26—30AABBC
    评分标准:21—30题每小题1分。
    Ⅵ.完形填空
    31—35ADCBA 36—40 CDABB 41—45 ABADC 46—50 BABCD
    评分标准:31—50题每小题1分。
    Ⅶ.补全对话
    51—55 DAFEB
    评分标准:51—55题每小题1分。
    第三部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
    Ⅷ.阅读理解
    56—58BAC 59—62 CBDA 63—65 ACD 66—69 AADB 70—72 ADB
    73.His archery skills.
    74.A cin with a hle in the center.
    75.Skills cme frm practice./Perfect skills cme frm repeated practice.
    评分标准:56—75题每小题2分。(73—75题答对要点即可酌情给分。)
    第四部分 写(共两大题,满分25分)
    Ⅸ.单词拼写
    76.fair 77.tls 78.simply 79.dr 80.relax
    评分标准:76—80题每小题1分。
    Ⅹ.书面表达
    One pssible versin:
    Dear Dad,
    I’m writing t express my thanks fr all yur care and lve.
    All these years, yu have dne s much. Almst every day, yu take me t and frm schl. When I’m sick,
    yu lk after me carefully and patiently.
    Yu always trust me and care a lt abut my schl life and persnal feelings. What’s mre, yu always encurage me when I am in truble. The advice yu have given me has helped me a lt. Yu’re the strngest persn I knew. With yur help, I’m sure t becme a better persn.
    Happy Fathers’ Day! Hpe yu can be happy and healthy every day.
    Thanks again fr everything yu have dne fr me.
    Lve,
    Fu Xing
    21.D 考查动词。根据下文“中国正在致力于发展新能源产业”可知,看起来中国新能源汽车的数量“提高”了很多。increase 提高。
    22.C 考查副词。根据上文“电影太无聊了”可知,这部电影太无聊了以至于我“几乎不能”保持清醒。hardly几乎不。
    23.D 考查代词。根据下文“我现在还没机会去北京旅游”可知,一个都没有,nne指三者或三者以上都不。
    24.C 考查时态语态。句意:中药的知识很久之前就被祖先们传承下来了。根据句中时间状语“lng ag”可知,此句应用一般过去时的被动语态。
    25.B 考查名词。根据句中关键词“过去的试卷”并结合生活常识可知,我的老师经常让我多花时间“复习”过去的试卷。review复习。
    26.A 考查形容词。根据下文“一号线。你可以坐它在骆岗下车”可知,问句指哪一条线路是去合肥世博园的“直达”地铁。direct直接的。
    27.A 考查动词短语。根据句中关键词“眼镜”可知,我的祖母需要“戴”她的眼镜才能看清楚报纸。
    28.B 考查连词。根据上文“我们将无法得到好座位”可知,与下文“我们在网上早早订票”呈否定假设关系,应用unless连接。
    29.B 考查介词。根据句中关键词“长江”可知,我听说安徽有一座新的美丽的“跨”江大桥。acrss横跨。
    30.C 考查情景交际。根据上文“感谢你花这么多时间带我在小镇里转转”可知,对他人的致谢可用“没关系”回复。
    31.A 考查名词。根据句中关键词“问题”可知,对我来说,我也没有这些问题的“答案”。
    32.D 考查短语。根据上下文的感情色彩可知,作者对读书是怀着一种感激之情,故此处指“多亏了”父母。
    33.C 考查副词。根据句中关键词“认为”可知,你“可能”认为当时我是不能够阅读的。
    34.B 考查形容词。根据下文可知,你是“正确的”。
    35.A 考查介词。根据生活常识可知,我只能在妈妈“旁边”的小床上听一些绘本。
    36.C 考查动词。根据句中关键词“面部表情”结合上文“妈妈是个出色的故事讲述者”可知,她总是在读故事时,“添加”很多面部表情。
    37.D 考查动名词。根据上文内容可知,“听”是我的阅读生活的第一阶段。
    38.A 考查动词。根据句意可推知,桥梁书是一种“连接”图画书和课本的书。
    39.B 考查形容词最高级。根据上文“我只认识很少的字”可知,我不得不选择桥梁书是因为他们对我来说是“最简单的”。
    40.B 考查动词短语。根据下文“投入了课本的怀抱”可知,我“放弃”了桥梁书。
    41.A 考查名词。根据下文可知,这门课的“目的”是帮助学生瘦身塑形。
    42.B 考查形容词。根据句中关键词“超重”可知,这门课只对“肥胖”或超重的学生开放。
    43.A 考查形容词。根据上文“运动与营养”可知,学生们可以在这门30个小时的课程中学习如何减重,比如制定“健康的”食谱和运动计划。
    44.D 考查动词。根据下文可知,课程“包含”了跑步、力量训练以及个性化定制的减肥计划。
    45.C 考查动词。根据句中关键词“生活方式”可知,目标是让学生“养成”健康的生活方式,掌握科学的减肥方法,形成规律的运动和均衡的饮食习惯。
    46.B 考查名词。根据句中关键词“选择”可知,学生们必须通过竞争才能得到选择这门课程的“机会”。
    47.A 考查动词。根据下文内容可知,这些“成功选中”的学生们受益良多。
    48.B 考查名词。根据下文内容可知,同学们在最后一天分享他们的“成就”。
    49.C 考查副词。根据句意可推知,许多人报告说,他们感觉更轻松,情绪“成功”得到改善,睡眠也更好。
    50.D 考查动词短语。根据句中关键词“爱好”可知,有些人“开始”了新的运动爱好,比如攀岩。
    56.B 推理判断题。根据“There are abut 10 billin pieces f clthes are prduced arund the wrld. And nearly half f them may be thrwn away within a year.”可知,有近50亿件衣服在不到一年的时间里被扔掉。
    57.A 细节理解题。根据“T-shirts; shirts; pants; shrts; bluses”可知,棉服不在接收的范围之内。
    58.C 推理判断题。通读全文可知,本文介绍了世界上每年有许多的衣服被扔掉而非洲有许多人得不到足够的衣服的情况并介绍了公益组织WEY 的捐赠要求及方式,故本文的主要目的是号召人们捐赠衣服。
    59.C 细节理解题。根据“Tiangng space statin fr a six-mnth missin(任务)”可知,叶将在天宫空间站待6个月。
    60.B 细节理解题。根据“Ye was brn in September, 1980…At the age f eight”可知,叶的父亲在叶八岁时去世, 即1988年。
    61.D 推理判断题。根据“when he made his first jurney int space n the Shenzhu-13 missin n Octber 16, 2021”及第一段内容可知,叶于2021年、2024年进入过两次太空。
    62.A 篇章结构题。通读全文可知,文章第一段介绍新闻引出主题人物叶光富;第二、三段介绍了叶光富的经历;第四段介绍了对叶光富的评价,是“总—分—总”的结构。
    63.A 段落大意题。根据第二段内容可知,本段主要讲述了网络欺凌已经成为一个严重的问题。
    64.C 词义猜测题。根据“t educate yung peple frm the frms f cyberbullying t its influences”及划线词所在句可知,甚至很小的霸凌比例变动对成千上万的青少年都是有影响的,故impact词义与influence 近似。
    65.D 文章出处题。通读全文可知,本文主要讲述了世界各地青少年受网络欺凌的情况及专家对此的意见,可能会在杂志的“社会”版块看到。
    66.A 代词指代题。根据第一段内容可知,在作者告诉儿子妈妈去了一个遥远的地方而且她很久才会回来之后,儿子很少再问妈妈在哪里,故that指代询问妈妈在哪里。
    67.A 细节理解题。根据“Peter had a bad cld yesterday.”可知,Peter 昨天感冒了。
    68.D 推理判断题。根据最后一段内容可知,Peter 替父亲擦去泪水并且说“妈妈只是太累了在里面睡着了”,故 Peter是一个善解人意的孩子。
    69.B 细节理解题。根据“I realized nthing can stp a child’s lve fr his mther.”可知,作者想告诉我们: 孩子对母亲的爱是无法阻止的。
    70.A 细节理解题。根据第一段针对对美国成年人的调查以及对188个病人的研究情况可知,一些人在冬季睡眠时间更长。
    71.D 推理判断题。根据第二、三段对光线对睡眠时间及睡眠质量影响的介绍可知,光线对人类的睡眠影响最大。
    72.B 最佳标题。通读全文可知,文章通过人类冬季睡眠时间更长的原因的介绍,说明了人类不需要像动物那样冬眠。
    听力部分录音文字稿
    Ⅰ.短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1.W: Hi, Eric. Did yu and Jean g fishing yesterday?
    M: N. I helped my mm d sme husewrk and Jean did her hmewrk.
    2.M: Were yu in the city library this mrning, Mna?
    W: N. I was visiting the z with my little brther at that time. After all, I prmised him befre. 3.M: Lisa and Gina were absent yesterday. What happened?
    W: Oh, Lisa was shpping with Mary and Gina was ill in hspital.
    4.M: Next week is full fr us. We’ll visit ur grandparents n Mnday and we’ll have an imprtant meeting n Tuesday. W: Yeah. Dn’t frget that we’ll have a yard sale frm Wednesday t Friday.
    5.M: Well, nthing is serius. Just stp eating junk fd and remember t have breakfast every day. W: Gt it. Thanks a lt, Dctr Lin.
    Ⅱ.长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到两段对话,每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    听下面一段对话,回答第6至7 小题。
    M: Yu dn’t lk s well, Hlly. D yu feel terrible?
    W: Nt really! Just a little tired.
    M: Maybe yu shuld take ne day ff.
    W: I culdn’t d that. I’m ging t have an imprtant test later.
    M: If yu feel even wrse, yu’d better g t the dctr. W: OK. Thanks.
    听下面一段对话,回答第8至10小题。
    M: Hey, Tina! I didn’t see yu last week. Where did yu g?
    W: I went n a vacatin with my parents in Trnt.
    M: Really? It’s a gd place t spend a vacatin in such a ht seasn.
    W: Yeah. I bught many gifts fr my relatives, t. Have yu ever been there, Jhn?
    M: Yes. I spent five days there with my brther Peter last year. W: Yu must have a gd time.
    M: Yeah. I als made sme gd friends there. I’d lve t g there again next mnth.
    Ⅲ.短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容,在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
    My name is Jenny. Yesterday we had a class meeting abut labr. Many f my classmates shared their labr experience. Lucy cleans the flrs at hme every weekend. She thinks cleaning the flr is like ding exercise s it can make her healthier. In Alice’s pinin, she wuld like t grw vegetables during the summer vacatin n the farm. She regards it as a gd way t understand the meaning f life. Mike nt nly feeds his pet dg every mrning but als walks it in the park after dinner. In this way, he can develp his sense f respnsibility. As fr me, I ften ck meals fr my parents because I am interested in cking. Cking can always bring me a feeling f satisfactin. Labr is a gd way fr us teenagers t develp ur independence.
    Ⅳ.信息转换(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容,写出下面表格中所缺的单词,每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
    Fr us teenagers, scial skills are necessary bth in and ut f schl. Here are sme suggestins t imprve scial skills. First, dn’t try t imprve all f yur scial skills quickly. It’s a gd idea t start frm learning bdy languages. If yu have a better understanding f bdy language, yu can mre easily start a small talk with strangers. Secnd, remember t be cnfident. When we are in a grup discussin, we can raise ur hands bravely t express ur pinins. Listening t thers carefully and speaking clearly are als imprtant. Mrever, take part in sme sprts activities at schl. These are gd chances t get valuable experience and make new friends. By fllwing these tips, we can gradually imprve ur scial skills and build better relatinships with thers.Hw t imprve scial skills
    First
    Dn’t try t imprve all f yur scial skills 16 .
    It’s a gd idea t start frm learning 17 languages.
    Secnd
    Remember t be 18 .
    When we are in a grup discussin, we can 19 ur hands bravely t express ur pinins.
    Third
    Take part in sme sprts activities at schl.
    These are gd chances t get 20 experience and make new friends.
    A.Did yu have a gd time there?
    B.It’s really a wnderful part f ur culture.
    C.We shuld let mre peple learn abut the flwers.
    D.I’ve just cme back frm Fujian Prvince after a seven-day hliday.
    E.Of curse nt.
    F.Culd yu mind intrducing it t me?
    G.What ther meanings des it have?
    There are abut 10 billin pieces f clthes are prduced arund the wrld. And nearly half f them may be thrwn away within a year. Last year, there were abut 1,400 millin peple living in Africa and ne third f them were shrt f clthes. That’s bad. What’s mre, the clthes that were thrwn away may cause serius envirnmental prblems.
    WEY is a public welfare rganizatin(公益组织) trying t help pr peple in Africa. Nw, yu can, t! Just give away sme clthes s that we can help the Africans in need.
    We accept: T-shirts; shirts; pants; shrts; bluses.
    *N dirty clthes.
    *N brken clthes.
    *N unflded clthes.
    Cme and ffer yur help! Every little bit makes a difference!
    Email us at helping@wey.cm.

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