2024年江西中考真题英语试题及答案

这是一份2024年江西中考真题英语试题及答案，共11页。

2．请按试题序号在答题卡相应位置作答，答在试题卷或其它位置无效。
一、听力理解（本大题共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
现在是试听时间。请听一段对话，然后回答问题。
What is the by ging t buy?
A．Sme juice. B．Sme ranges. C．Sme apples.
答案是C。
A）请听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后，你都将有10秒钟的时间回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1．What time des Mike get up every day?
A．6:30. B．7:00. C．7:30.
2．What will the weather be like in Nanchang tmrrw?
A．Cludy. B．Rainy. C．Sunny.
3．What clr is the cat’s hair?
A．Brwn. B．White. C．Black.
4．What’s the matter with Julie?
A．She has a headache. B．She has a tthache. C．She has a stmachache.
5．What des Jack mean?
A．Sccer is easy. B．He lves sccer. C．The girl is clever.
B）请听下面4段对话。每段对话后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
请听第1段对话，回答第6、7小题。
6．What bk did Lily buy last week?
A．A stry bk. B．A histry bk. C．A science bk.
7．Hw sn will Lily finish reading it?
A．In 3 days. B．In 5 days. C．In 7 days.
请听第2段对话，回答第8、9小题。
8．What will the girl have?
A．Chicken. B．Beef. C．Duck.
9．What’s the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A．Waiter and custmer. B．Father and daughter. C．Friends.
请听第3段对话，回答第10至第12小题。
10．What des the man d?
A．A dctr. B．A pilt. C．An engineer.
11．Hw lng des the man wrk every week?
A．20 hurs. B．30 hurs. C．40 hurs.
12．What d we knw abut the man?
A．He likes his wrk. B．He wrks in Beijing. C．He takes a plane every week.
请听第4段对话，回答第13至第15小题。
13．What’s happening n Saturday?
A．Frank is taking a trip. B．Frank is having a party. C．Frank is cleaning a park.
14．Where des Frank live?
A．At 118 Green Street. B．At 127 Nrth Street. C．At 131 First Street.
15．What can we get frm the cnversatin?
A．Sally knws where the park is.
B．Sally ften visits Frank’s hme.
C．Sally has refused Frank’s invitatin.
C）请听下面一段独白，根据独白内容完成下列句子，每个空格不超过3个单词。将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。听独白前你将有50秒钟的时间阅读句子内容。独白读两遍。
16．We can travel arund Dublin ________ r n ft.
17．The library in Trinity Cllege clses at ________ p.m.
18．There are a lt f ________ in Temple Bar.
19．We can listen t a ________ player in the restaurant.
20．There’s als a shp with great ________.
二、单项填空（本大题共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
请阅读下面各小题，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
21．I like acting and I’m in the ________ grup at schl.
A．theater B．chess C．speech D．ping-png
22．—Has Bb arrived yet?
—N, he’s n his way. He’ll be here ________.
A．daily B．easily C．first D．sn
23．—Tm, can yu help me with the husewrk?
—Sure, but I’m ________ right nw.
A．lst B．busy C．wrried D．lnely
24．—Where is Helen?
—I’m nt sure. Maybe she ________ her baseball lessn.
A．had B．was having C．is having D．will have
25．Ted preferred pp music when he ________ abut his favrite music in the interview.
A．was asked B．asked C．is asked D．asks
26．—Lk! The lake is clean. I never thrw litter int it.
—If everyne des this, it wuld be ________.
A．dirtier B．the dirtiest C．cleaner D．the cleanest
27．Oh, I get it—yu want me t d all the wrk ________ yu sit at hme ding nthing.
A．r B．while C．until D．unless
28．—Oh hi, I’m lking fr a pair f shes.
—Well, yu ________ t the right place. We have a lt f shes in ur shp.
A．came B．were cming C．will cme D．have cme
三、完形填空（本大题共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
A）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从各小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
The snail（蜗牛）said, “Dn’t be in a hurry. 34 is nt a 100-meter race.”
The butterfly said, “Life is shrt. Enjy every day.”
The ant said, “Yu’ll 35 be great n yur wn. Everyne needs the help f thers.”
Anansi was very happy with all this advice. He tk it and put it in 36 gurd. And when he’d filled the gurd, he thught t himself, “Nw, I have mre wisdm than anyne else. I must 37 the wisdm, s n ne can steal it.” He 38 and saw a hle high up in a tree, and he had an idea.
Anansi held the gurd in tw legs and tried t 39 the tree with his ther six legs. But the gurd was t big and he culdn’t climb. His sn was nearby watching him. “Daddy,” he said, “why dn’t yu 40 the gurd t yur back and then climb the tree?” “That’s very gd advice,” said Anansi. “Thank yu fr sharing it with me.” And then Anansi realized that advice is nly 41 when we share it with smene.
S, he climbed the tree with the gurd n his back. And when Anansi reached the 42 , he held the gurd up t the wind. All the advice flew int the sky and traveled 43 the land. And wisdm came t everyne.
29．A．quiet B．crazy C．pr D．clever
30．A．empty B．small C．sft D．brken
31．A．S B．If C．Befre D．Althugh
32．A．news B．wrk C．advice D．wd
33．A．std B．frgt C．missed D．needed
34．A．Actin B．Sprt C．Life D．Health
35．A．always B．ften C．never D．usually
36．A．his B．her C．its D．their
37．A．find B．sell C．hide D．cllect
38．A．fell asleep B．shwed up C．ran away D．lked arund
39．A．hit B．climb C．pull D．shake
40．A．send B．hand C．turn D．tie
41．A．simple B．useful C．interesting D．real
42．A．tp B．huse C．grund D．muntain
43．A．acrss B．with C．int D．under
B）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后用方框中所给词的适当形式填空，并将答案填写到答题卡的相应位置。每个词限用一次。
Jiangxi is hme t nearly 30,000 rice ndle restaurants. Accrding t a reprt, Jiangxi prduced mre than 1.4 millin 47 f rice ndles in 2020. Mre than 60% f the freign sales f China’s rice ndles are frm Jiangxi.
This dish is als 48 amng peple frm ther parts f China. The reprt shws that peple aged between 18 and 24 make up abut 33% f custmers. They ften 49 rice ndles and takeaway meals nline. The percentage（百分比） 50 t ver 65% fr custmers under 30 years ld.
“Enjying 51 a specialty（特产）is ne way t get a real experience f lcal cking culture,” said a lcal fd expert. He added that mre effrts shuld be made t find ut the 52 behind Jiangxi rice ndles. The charm（魅力）f this cmmn dish cmes frm its stries and 53 tastes—the ndles are prepared differently in each f Jiangxi’s 11 cities.
54 these ndles are such an imprtant part f Jiangxi culture, lcals have dne their best t prtect its reputatin（声誉）as a lcal specialty.
四、阅读理解（本大题共23小题，每小题2分，共46分）
A）请阅读下面短文，根据短文内容从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
55．Hw much des a bed at Capsule Htel cst per night?
A．Frm ＄13. B．Frm ＄30. C．Frm ＄60. D．Frm ＄90.
56．Which htel is the farthest frm the city center?
A．Park Htel . B．Capsule Htel. C．Riverside B&B. D．Beautiful Apartment.
57．Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the ads abve?
A．Yu can get duble rms at Capsule Htel.
B．Yu can ck meals at Beautiful Apartment.
C．Yu can use public bathrms at Riverside B&B.
D．Yu can stay in any f the htels with a beautiful view.
B
Ed was a prfessinal ftball player, but in 2017 he had an accident in a swimming pl. After that, he culdn’t mve his bdy frm the shulders dwn.
Dctrs tld him that he’d prbably never walk again, but Ed didn’t want t believe this. He had recently gt engaged（订婚）t the wman wh is nw his wife and he said that she was the main reasn he wanted t get better. He spent six days staring at his tes（脚趾）and trying t make them mve—and, finally, he succeeded! This was the start f a lng jurney.
While in hspital, Ed met Paul, a man in his late thirties. Dctrs had als tld Paul he wuld never walk again, but Ed encuraged him nt t give up and six mnths later, Paul tld Ed he was walking with a stick.
Only a year after his accident, Ed climbed the highest muntain in Wales. Since then he has als climbed a 6,500-meter muntain in Nepal and he said that after each big climb he nticed his bdy culd d new mvements.
Tw years later, 31-year-ld Ed climbed 8,848 meters, the height f the wrld’s highest muntain, by ging up and dwn his parents’ stairs 2,783 times. When he finished, he tld a news reprter he had lved it althugh it smetimes was “painful” and “bring”. He als raised £46,000 fr charity.
Ed hpes his stry can help peple. That’s why he started his wn charity, M2M, which aims t supprt “peple facing challenges in life.”
58．Wh did Ed want t get better mainly fr?
A．His parents. B．His dctr. C．His friend. D．His wife.
59．What is Ed like accrding t Paragraph 3?
A．Brave. B．Helpful. C．Hnest. D．Hard-wrking.
60．What des the underlined wrd “it” in Paragraph 5 refer t?
A．Raising mney. B．Ding new mvements. C．Visiting parents. D．Ging up and dwn stairs.
61．Put the events abut Ed int the crrect rder accrding t the passage.
a．Ed started M2M.
b．Ed succeeded in making his tes mve.
c．Ed had an accident in a swimming pl.
d．Ed climbed the highest muntain in Wales.
e．Ed climbed his parents’ stairs 2,783 times.
A．c-e-b-d-a B．c-b-d-e-a C．e-a-b-d-c D．e-b-d-c-a
62．What wuld be the best title fr the passage?
A．A Ftball Player. B．A Challenge Lver. C．A Charity Wrker. D．A Muntain Climber.
C
In the late 18th century, Eurpeans came t live in New Zealand. At that time, the ppulatin f the Mari was maybe 250,000 in New Zealand. Over the next ne hundred years, wars and disease killed many Mari peple. By the end f the 19th century, there were nly abut 40,000 Mari peple left. During this time, the Mari als lst much f their land t the Eurpeans. Many f them were afraid that they might lse their traditins and language t, but this did nt happen.
Tday the Mari ppulatin is increasing. There are abut 500,000 Mari peple in New Zealand. Mst live like ther New Zealanders, but they are keeping the Mari language and traditins alive. There are nw Mari radi and televisin statins. Many schls teach in the Mari language. Nearly ne half f Mari language speakers are 25 years ld r yunger.
Mari culture is als alive and well. At the center f Mari culture is the “marae”. This is a special place fr ceremnies and meetings. Tday the number f marae in New Zealand is increasing. Many f the new marae are in the cities. Nw peple in the cities can meet and learn abut their Mari traditins.
Tday mst New Zealand cities have Mari festivals each year. Amng festival activities are cmpetitins in speaking, dancing and singing. Children practice fr mnths. Then all the Mari in the area arrive t watch the cmpetitins and see wh wins.
The Mari have gne thrugh hard times. Tday they live a cmfrtable, mdern life. They keep their cultural traditins alive, because they have passed and are passing them n t their children.
63．When did the Mari first arrive in New Zealand?
A．Arund 11th century. B．Arund 14th century.
C．Arund 16th century. D．Arund 18th century.
64．What happened t the Mari during the 19th century?
A．They wned mre land. B．They lst their language.
C．They left New Zealand. D．They had a smaller ppulatin.
65．Hw d the Mari keep their traditins alive? Check and chse the right answer.
a．Increase the number f marae.
b．Mve t the center f New Zealand.
c．Set up Mari radi and TV statins.
d．Teach in the Mari language in many schls.
e．Hld cmpetitins in speaking, dancing and singing.
A．bcde B．abcd C．abde D．acde
66．What’s the theme f the passage?
A．Art. B．Culture. C．Travel. D．Technlgy.
67．What wuld be the best structure f the passage?
A． B． C． D．
D
In Octber 2018, smene in Suth Carlina wn ＄1.5 billin. The nearly impssible dds（概率）f winning were 1 in 302.5 millin! Many peple prbably wish they’d been the lucky nes happily accepting the prize.
It’s nt hard t imagine the things ne culd d with this newfund wealth, but wuld this mney actually make smene happy? The experiences f several lttery（抽奖）winners shw that it prbably wuldn’t. Suddenly cming int big mney can change a persn’s life in unexpected and smetimes unpleasant ways. Take William Pst, fr example, wh had nly ＄2.46 in the bank when he wn ＄16.2 millin in a New Yrk lttery in 1998. Within 3 mnths, he was pr again because f careless spending. He wasn’t as happy as he felt befre winning the prize.
Then there was Callie Rgers, a British teenager frm a cmmn family, wn ＄3 millin in 2003. She bught her family and friends lavish gifts and bught herself expensive clthes. After six years, Callie lst all her mney and realized that mney didn’t make her happy. In fact, she became wrried that peple were friendly with her nly t get her mney.
Lttery winners are nt the nly nes wh can end up unhappy. Peple wh get big mney fr sme ther reasns, e.g. receiving mney frm thers, are als at risk. They may nt knw hw t deal with mney and d nt ask experts fr advice. They waste mney n things they dn’t need and give away t much mney t friends and relatives.
Researchers fund that peple are happy when they are able t pay fr their basic needs, such as fd, clthes, a safe place t live, and health care. Peple are als happy when they give reasnable（合理的）amunts f mney t charities. Giving makes them feel as if they’re making a difference. Lavish things, such as expensive clthes and cars, nly make peple happy fr a mment.
Peple can hpe and wish t suddenly cme int lts f mney t imprve their lives, but perhaps there are better ways t find happiness.
68．Hw des the writer supprt his pinin in Paragraph 2?
A．By giving an example. B．By listing numbers.
C．By telling the differences. D．By asking a questin.
69．What did William and Callie have in cmmn accrding t the passage?
A．They came frm the same cuntry.
B．They wn the ltteries in the same year.
C．They were pr befre winning the ltteries.
D．They spent their mney quickly and carelessly.
70．What des the underlined wrd “lavish” in Paragraph 3 mean?
A．Expensive. B．Funny. C．Surprising. D．Lucky.
71．Which f the fllwing can be inferred frm the passage?
A．Big mney brings lasting happiness.
B．Peple’s lives depend n lttery prizes.
C．Reasnable spending makes peple happy.
D．The basic needs f peple are easily satisfied.
72．What’s the writer’s purpse fr writing the passage?
A．T encurage readers t make big mney.
B．T advise peple t stay away frm ltteries.
C．T shw his pinin abut mney and happiness.
D．T share sme success stries abut finding happiness.
B）请先阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后根据短文内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个还原到文中，使短文意思通顺、结构完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。
Five Tips t Imprve Yur Memry
Mst f us knw that ur brains becme smaller in size as we get lder, but did yu knw that diet and lifestyle have an effect n hw well ur brains wrk?
Research shws that eating lts f fruit, vegetables and prteins（蛋白质）imprves memry. 73 Eating ily fish r dark chclate（with ver 70% cca）and taking Vitamin D3 can als help make yur memry strnger.
74 A 2011 study shwed that regular exercise actually increases brain size. Anther study fund that exercise imprved memry in sme lder peple; surprisingly it fund that ne single training perid had the same effect n memry as regular, lng exercise perid!
One study fund that eight weeks f shrt, daily meditatin（默想）imprved memry. Other ways t relax can als imprve ur shrt-term memry. Try taking 5-10 minutes f yur day t meditate r listen t music. 75
Experts say that age reduces ur ability t learn, but sleep can help. 76 A 2019 study fund that students learned things better befre and after a shrt sleep!
77 Try t memrize infrmatin like phne numbers and addresses rather than putting the infrmatin in yur phne. Yu culd als learn a language r d brain training like crsswrds（填字游戏）.
五、补全对话（本大题共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
请阅读下面对话，根据对话内容从下面方框内的七个选项中选择五个填入空白处，使对话通顺、合理，意思完整，并在答题卡上将其序号涂黑。一空一句。
（William is calling t make an appintment（预约）with the receptinist（接待员）t see Dr. Kim. William=W, receptinist=R）
R: Gd mrning. Dr. Kim’s ffice. 78
W: Hell. I’d like t make an appintment t see Dr. Kim.
R: 79
W: William Jensn.
R: 80 Can yu cme in at 11:15?
W: Um ... I’d prefer smething in the afternn. I wrk in the mrning.
R: 81 Are yu free then?
W: Let me see... yes, that’s fine.
R: OK. S yur appintment is with Dr. Kim at 15:30 n Friday. 82
W: Great! Thank yu!
六、书面表达（15分）
我国义务教育阶段实施“双减”政策以来，学生拥有更多的课余时间。为了引导学生更好地利用课余时间，增强时间管理意识，学校英语社团以“Making Better Use f Time”为题向学生征文，请你根据下列写作要点写一篇短文投稿。
写作要点：
1．When d yu have free time?
2．What d yu ften d in yur free time?（Give 3 examples）
3．D yu think yur free time is better used? Why r why nt?
要求：
1．短文应包括所有的写作要点，条理清楚，行文连贯，可适当发挥；
2．短文中不能出现真实的人名、校名、地名等信息；
3．词数80-120，短文开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Making Better Use f Time
As a junir high schl student, I have gt mre free time in recent years. _____________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________
江西省2024年初中学业水平考试
英语试题参考答案
一、听力理解（共20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1．B 2．C 3．A 4．A 5．B
6．C 7．A 8．B 9．C 10．C
11．C 12．A 13．B 14．B 15．A
16．by bat 17．10/ten 18．bikes 19．guitar 20．cffee
二、单项填空（共8小题，每小题1分，共8分）
21．A 22．D 23．B 24．C 25．A
26．C 27．B 28．D
三、完形填空（共26小题，每小题1分，共26分）
29．D 30．A 31．B 32．C 33．D
34．C 35．C 36．A 37．C 38．D
39．B 40．D 41．B 42．A 43．A
44．dish 45．start 46．even 47．tns 48．ppular
49．rder 50．rises 51．such 52．stries 53．different
54．As
四、阅读理解（共23小题，每小题2分，共46分）
55．A 56．C 57．B 58．D 59．B
60．D 61．B 62．B 63．A 64．D
65．D 66．B 67．C 68．A 69．D
70．A 71．C 72．C
73．F 74．C 75．A 76．G 77．E
五、补全对话（共5小题，每小题1分，共5分）
78．B 79．C 80．F 81．G 82．E
六、书面表达（15分）
（略）Anansi the Wise
Sme peple think they knw everything. Anansi the spider didn’t think that. He was a 29 spider. And he knew t have real wisdm（智慧）. He had t learn mre.
One day, Anansi fund a（an） 30 gurd n the grund and he had an idea. “ 31 I get advice frm thers and put it in this gurd, then I’ll be wiser than anyne else in the wrld.”
S, he went frm huse t huse and asked the ther creatures（生物）, “What’s yur best piece f 32 ?” And they were all happy t share their wisdm, because they culd see that Anansi 33 it.
even as start stry rder such tns different dish ppular rises
In East China’s Jiangxi prvince, ndles are mre than just a 44 — they’re almst a way f life.
In fact, mst peple here 45 the day with a bwl f rice ndles in the mrning. This dish is s ppular that sme lcals have 46 cmpared having rice ndles t enjying fresh sea fd.
Riverside B&B
Price: frm ＄30 per nigh
Bedrms: single, twin r duble rms
View: river
Lcatin: 20 minutes frm city center（taxi）
Facilities: private bathrm, WiFi, air-cn, fridge, TV, restaurant
Beautiful Apartment
Price: frm ＄60 per night
Number f rms: whle apartment with living rm, kitchen, bathrms
Bedrms: 2（sleeps 4）
View: park
Lcatin: 5 minutes frm city center（taxi）
Facilities: WiFi, air-cn, TV
Capsule Htel
Price: frm ＄13 per night
Size: 2.5 square meters
Bed: all single
View: nne
Lcatin: city center
Facilities: shared bathrm and entertainment rm, USB, WiFi, TV
The Mari arrived in New Zealand frm Plynesian（波利尼西亚）islands abut a thusand years ag. They were the first peple t live in New Zealand.
A．Or even just take a shwer!
B．It’s imprtant t keep a healthy bdy.
C．The rle f exercise is really imprtant t.
D．Use yur phne t help yu memrize things.
E．T keep yur brain in gd cnditin, yu need t use it.
F．Try t avid sugary fds such as cakes and milk chclate.
G．Fr yur brain t wrk well, 7-9 hurs f sleep is necessary.
A．Dr. Kim speaking.
B．Hw can I help yu?
C．What is yur name, please?
D．Hw abut 10:30 n Friday?
E．Please cme abut 15 minutes early.
F．I can get yu an appintment this Thursday.
G．Wuld yu be able t cme in n Friday at 15:30?